TOP Microbiology MCQS
All Questions for: TOP Microbiology MCQS
Question 401: Cleavage of IgG molecule by Papin gives rise to:One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments_______________?
- A One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
- B One Fc fragment and four Fab fragments
- C Two Fc fragment and one Fab fragment
- D Two Fc fragments and two Fab fragments
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Question 402: Following reaction are produced by heterophil antigens except_____________?
- A Widal reaction
- B Forssman antigen antibody reaction
- C Paul bunnel reaction
- D Weil-Felix reaction
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Widal reaction
Question 403: The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______________?
- A IgE
- B IgD
- C IgA
- D IgG
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Question 404: The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV irradiation_______________?
- A Nucleic acids
- B Inorganic salts
- C Lipids
- D Carbohydrates
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Nucleic acids
Question 405: Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by________________?
- A Epithelial cells
- B Dextran
- C Sucrose
- D Bacteria
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Dextran
Question 406: The anaphylaxis should be treated first with_____________?
- A Antibiotics
- B Epinephrine
- C Steroids
- D Anti histamines
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Epinephrine
Question 407: Dorset
- A Staphylococcus
- B Streptococcus
- C Mycobacterium
- D Gonococcus
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium
Question 408: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best demonstrated by_________________?
- A Ziehl-Neelsen stain
- B PAS stain
- C H & E stain
- D Gram
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Question 409: The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is______________?
- A Borrelia vincenti
- B Treponjema pertenue
- C Borrelia burgdorferi
- D Treponema pallidum
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti
Question 410: Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is ________________?
- A Penicillium
- B Mucor
- C Rhizopus
- D Aspergillus
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus
Question 411: Best method of sterilizing disposable syringes_______________?
- A Hot air oven
- B Gamma rays
- C U.V. rays
- D Boiling
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Gamma rays
Question 412: Anaphylaxis refers to the________________?
- A Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions
- B State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
- C Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
- D Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Question 413: Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________________?
- A Causes meningitis
- B Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
- C Basidiomycetes yeast
- D Melanin production related to virulence
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Question 414: The Process of attenuation can be achieved by all except___________________?
- A Growing bacteria in unconventional host
- B Repeated cultures in artificial media
- C Serial passage in an experimental host
- D Growing bacteria in adverse environment
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Serial passage in an experimental host
Question 415: Probiotic organism used_________________?
- A Salmonella
- B Staphylococcus
- C E coli
- D Bifido bacteria
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Bifido bacteria
Question 416: Staphylococcus does not causes_______________?
- A Osteomyelitis
- B Abscess
- C Pneumonia
- D Scarlet fever
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Scarlet fever
Question 417: Oil and Grease are sterilized by________________?
- A Hot air oven
- B Ethylene dioxide
- C Irradiation
- D Auto claving
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Question 418: Most sensitive test for antigen detection is_______________?
- A Immunoflourescence
- B Radioimmuno Assay
- C ELISA
- D Passive hemaglutination
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Radioimmuno Assay
Question 419: Antigen combining site of the antibody is____________________?
- A Epitope
- B Hapten
- C Idiotope
- D Paratope
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Paratope
Question 420: The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______________?
- A Induration
- B Erythema
- C Vasculitis
- D Necrosis
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Erythema
Question 421: The most common site where organisms are present in a typhoid carrier is______________?
- A Gall Bladder
- B Liver
- C Spleen
- D Salivary gland
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Gall Bladder
Question 422: Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause foetal defect ?
- A Rubella
- B Papilloma
- C Mumps
- D Herpes Simplex
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Question 423: Babu, a 28 year old male comes with compaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by____________?
- A P24 antigen
- B Western blot
- C ELISA
- D Lymph node biopsy
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: P24 antigen
Question 424: The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is ________________?
- A exotoxin production
- B Coagulase production
- C lecithinase production
- D hypersensitivity
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: hypersensitivity
Question 425: In T.B cell mediated immunity is by_______________?
- A B
- B CD 8*
- C None of the above
- D CD 4*
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: CD 4*
Question 426: Australia antigen is associated with________________?
- A AIDS
- B Chronic leukemia
- C Basal cell carcinoma
- D Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Question 427: Incubation pariod of herpes zoster is________________?
- A 3-6 months
- B 1 months
- C 7-14 days
- D 1-2 years
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: 7-14 days
Question 428: Salmonella typhi can be isolated at different times from______________?
- A All of the above
- B Feaces
- C Blood
- D Urine
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Question 429: Which of the following antibacterial substance is present in eggs and saliva ?
- A Lysozyme
- B Isozyme
- C Albumin
- D Secretozyme
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Lysozyme
Question 430: Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection_________________?
- A Giardia lambella
- B Taenia solium
- C Balantidium coli
- D Isopora belli
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Taenia solium
Question 431: Electron microscopic examination of the bacterial flora of necrotising ulcerative gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are______________?
- A Cocci
- B Filamentous rods
- C Bacteriophages
- D Spirochetes
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Question 432: The most frequently encountered clostridial species in gas gangrene is______________?
- A Clostridium botulinum
- B Clostridium welchii
- C Clostridium tetani
- D Clostridium difficile
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Question 433: Q fever is caused by________________?
- A Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
- B R. prowozekii
- C C. burnetti
- D R. quintana
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: C. burnetti
Question 434: Immunoglobulin crossing placenta is_________________?
- A Ig G
- B Ig A
- C Ig M
- D Ig D
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Ig G
Question 435: Mesophilic organisms are those that grow best at temperature of______________?
- A -7
- B -20
- C 55
- D 25
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: 25
Question 436: An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry cough, sputum culture showed growth on charcoal yeast Extract Medium, theorganism is______________?
- A Burkholderia cepacia
- B H. influenza
- C Moraxella catarrhalis
- D Legionella
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Legionella
Question 437: Techoic acid is present in_____________?
- A Cytoplasm of Gram positive organisms
- B Cytoplasm of Gram negative organisms
- C Cell wall of Gram negative organisms
- D Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Question 438: Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?
- A The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously
- B The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission
- C Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
- D Causes positive Nagler reaction
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Question 439: Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by_________________?
- A Fish tapeworm
- B Dog tapeworm
- C Threadworm
- D Hookworm
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Fish tapeworm
Question 440: Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?
- A Coccidia
- B Prions
- C Mycobacteria
- D Spore
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Prions
Question 441: Blood agar is________________?
- A Transport media
- B Enriched media
- C Simple media
- D Differential media
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Enriched media
Question 442: Signs of tyhoid fever is/are_____________________?
- A All of the above
- B Haemorrhage
- C perforation
- D Osteomyelitis
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Question 443: Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by ___________________?
- A Cryptococcus
- B Mucor
- C Aspergillus
- D Candida albicans
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Question 444: Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction______________?
- A Staphylococcus
- B E.coli
- C Haemophilus
- D Proteus
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Question 445: For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?
- A Immediately wash wound with soap and water
- B Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
- C Give ARV
- D Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Question 446: One of the following is a zoonotic disease_____________?
- A Typhoid
- B Anthrax
- C Cholera
- D Bacillary dysentery
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Anthrax
Question 447: Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of______________?
- A Wool sorters disease
- B Gas gangrene
- C Malaria
- D Whooping cough
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Gas gangrene
Question 448: Which of the following is a live vaccine_____________?
- A HDCV
- B 17 D
- C Salk
- D Hepatitis
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: HDCV
Question 449: The function of IgD is______________?
- A Reagin activity
- B Compliment activation
- C Localization protection in external secretion
- D Antigen recognition by B cells
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Antigen recognition by B cells
Question 450: The following statement is true regarding fungal infection__________________?
- A albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals
- B Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man
- C Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal
- D Candida infection is usually endogenous
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Candida infection is usually endogenous