TOP Microbiology MCQS
All Questions for: TOP Microbiology MCQS
Question 201: Anti HBsAB indicates______________?
- A Acute infection
- B Hepatocellular carcinoma
- C Good prognosis
- D Resistance to hepatitis B
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Good prognosis
Question 202: Causative agents of Vincent
- A Borrelia recurrents and bateroides
- B Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
- C Borrelia burgoloferi and lactobacillus
- D Leptospira and Treponema pallidum
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Question 203: Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______________?
- A Contact dermatitis
- B Serum sickness
- C Transfusion reaction
- D Atopic allergy
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Question 204: Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is________________?
- A ELISA
- B Indirect hemagglutination
- C Counter immune electroporesis
- D Microscopy
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: ELISA
Question 205: Test for differentiating virulent form non-virulent tubercular bacilli_____________?
- A Neutral red test
- B Catalase peroxidase test
- C Niacin test
- D Aryl sulphatase test
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Neutral red test
Question 206: Rickettsiae__________________?
- A Transmitted by arthropod vectors
- B Respond to tetracycline therapy
- C Multiply within living cell
- D All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Question 207: Virus is cultured in_______________?
- A Saubourd
- B Nonembryonated egg
- C Rogosa medium
- D Embryonated egg
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Embryonated egg
Question 208: Disinfection frees the surface from______________?
- A None of the above
- B Both of the above
- C Spore forms
- D Vegetative forms
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Vegetative forms
Question 209: Human immunoglobulins are divided based on_____________?
- A Complemented fixation
- B Structural differences
- C Functional differences
- D None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Structural differences
Question 210: Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to__________________?
- A Exotoxin
- B Capsule
- C Endotoxin
- D Invasion
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Exotoxin
Question 211: Chemotactic cytokine is_________________?
- A IL-8
- B TNF
- C IL-1
- D IL-6
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: IL-8
Question 212: The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in vivo from one bacterium to another by_____________?
- A Transduction
- B Conjugation
- C Rarefaction
- D Transformation
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Question 213: The culture media for fungus is__________________?
- A Tellurite medium
- B Chocolate agar medium
- C Sabourauds medium
- D NNN medium
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Sabourauds medium
Question 214: Immunoglobin, Which is produced first by the fetus in response to infection_______________?
- A IgD
- B IgA
- C IgG
- D IgM
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Question 215: Which of the following is an enrichment medium________________?
- A Mac Conkey agar
- B Nutrient Broth
- C Blood agar
- D Selenite F Broth
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Selenite F Broth
Question 216: What is the transport medium for cholera___________________?
- A Tellurite Medium
- B Venkatraman
- C Cary Blair Medium
- D B & C
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: B & C
Question 217: A type of immediately occuring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called_____________?
- A Type III hypersensitivity
- B Type IV hypersensitivity
- C Type II hypersensitivity
- D Type I hypersensitivity
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Type I hypersensitivity
Question 218: Same or closely related antigens present in different biological species are known as________________?
- A Isoantigens
- B Heterophile antigens
- C Haptens
- D Suquestrated antigens
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Heterophile antigens
Question 219: One of the following is an agglutination test in the diagnosis of typhoid___________?
- A Wasserman test
- B Eleks test
- C Widal test
- D Mantoux test
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Question 220: Sterilization is a process in which_________________?
- A Kill all non-pathogenic micro-organisms in the environment
- B Deactivate all pathogens not spores
- C Kill all pathogenic micro-organisms
- D Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Question 221: Human immune deficiency virus is ________________ virus?
- A Flavi
- B Retro
- C Rhabdo
- D Rheo
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Retro
Question 222: A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned in to an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis______________?
- A Calcoflour White
- B Trichrome Methylene blue
- C Carbol Fuschin
- D Acid Fast Stain
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Trichrome Methylene blue
Question 223: Half-life of free HIV in plasma is________________?
- A 3 months
- B 24 hours
- C 12 hours
- D 6 hours
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: 6 hours
Question 224: Among The infectious diseases transmitted by food, one is___________________?
- A Typhoid fever
- B Tuberculosis
- C Diptheria
- D Viral stomatitis
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid fever
Question 225: Moist heat kills all of the following EXCEPT_______________?
- A Brucella
- B Salmonella
- C Coxiella burnetti
- D Mycobacterium
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Coxiella burnetti
Question 226: The Ig found in exocrine secretions is_____________?
- A IgD
- B IgA
- C IgG
- D IgM
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Question 227: Operation theatres are sterilized by_____________?
- A ETO gas
- B Formaldehyde fumigation
- C Washing with soap and water
- D Carbolic acid spraying
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Formaldehyde fumigation
Question 228: Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci________________?
- A Aerococcus
- B Micrococcus
- C Sarcina
- D Staphylococcus
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Sarcina
Question 229: About Bacteroids True are all Except_______________?
- A Present mainly in mixed infections
- B Most common species is B fragilis
- C Bile resistant anerobes
- D Susceptible to many antibiotics
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Susceptible to many antibiotics
Question 230: Encapsulation in bacteria helps in__________________?
- A Spore formation
- B Oxygen effect
- C Prevent their phagocytosis
- D Decreased virulence
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Prevent their phagocytosis
Question 231: In initial stages of tyhoid, salmonella can be detected in________________?
- A Urine
- B Feacus
- C All of the above
- D Blood
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Blood
Question 232: All of the following are true of streptococcus except_____________?
- A Most common is animals
- B It
- C Shows adherence to dental enamel
- D Most common in humans
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: It
Question 233: Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phase of the bacterial growth curve______________?
- A Stationary phase
- B Decline
- C Exponential growth
- D Lag
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Question 234: Viruses can be cultured in all except_______________?
- A Chick embryo
- B Blood agar
- C Guinea pigs
- D Cell culture
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Blood agar
Question 235: Kolmer test is a screening test done for_________________?
- A Tuberculosis
- B Syphilis
- C Gonorrhea
- D Lymphoma
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Question 236: Function of T-lymphocyte is/are________________?
- A Production of interferon
- B Rosette formation
- C Lymphokine production
- D All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Question 237: The following are applicable to bacterial genoms except________________?
- A Its DNA has both introns and extrons
- B It is circular
- C It is composed of DNA
- D It doe not contain histones
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Question 238: EBV causes all except_________________?
- A Papilloma
- B Burkitt
- C Carcinoma of nasopharynx
- D Infectious mononucleosis
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma
Question 239: Which of the following is not used as disinfectant________________?
- A 2% Lysol
- B 1-2% cetrimide
- C 5% chloroxylene
- D 100% alcohol
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: 100% alcohol
Question 240: Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by_______________?
- A M. smegmatis
- B M. ulcerans
- C M. chelonae
- D M. Kansasii
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: M. chelonae
Question 241: All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except____________?
- A Hepatitis B
- B HIV
- C Hepatitis C
- D Hepatitis E
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Question 242: Which of the following correctly indicates the infectivity of hepatitis virus in human ?
- A Anti-HBC
- B HBeAg
- C HBCAg
- D Anti-HBS
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: HBeAg
Question 243: In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except__________________?
- A Malabsorption
- B Spleen sequestration
- C Hemolysis
- D Bone marrow depression
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Malabsorption
Question 244: Which of the following is not a pox virus ?
- A chicken pox
- B Cowpox
- C Small pox
- D Molluscum contagiosum
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: chicken pox
Question 245: A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is______________?
- A Ziehl-Neelsen stain
- B Methanamine silver stain
- C India ink preparation
- D Pyte-ferraco stain
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Question 246: Staphylococcal food poisoning includes the following features_______________?
- A Incubation period of 24 hours
- B Common with dairy products
- C Heat labile enterotoxin
- D Requires immediate antibiotics
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Common with dairy products
Question 247: Causative organism for gas gangrene_______________?
- A Clostridium welchii
- B Coli
- C Strep. Faecalis
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Question 248: Streptococcus is classified based on__________________?
- A Cultural characteristics
- B M Protein
- C Cell wall carbohydrate
- D Bile Solubility
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall carbohydrate
Question 249: compared with autoclave, use of a dry heat over for sterilization has the following disadvantages______________?
- A Causes sharp instruments to dull
- B Less effective
- C Causes instruments to rust
- D Time-consuming
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Time-consuming
Question 250: Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces?
- A Mesosomes
- B Flagella
- C Pili
- D Capsule
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Pili