TOP Microbiology MCQS
All Questions for: TOP Microbiology MCQS
Question 51: Which of the following fulfil all the criterias of kich
- A N. gonorrhoeae
- B Mycobacterium leprae
- C None of the above
- D Treponema pallidum
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: None of the above
Question 52: Anaerobic bacteria grow_______________?
- A in the presence of nitrogen
- B differential media
- C in the presence of oxygen
- D in the absence of oxygen
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: in the absence of oxygen
Question 53: Which of the following is an acid-fast bacillus_____________?
- A Treponema pallidum
- B Mycobacterium bacilli
- C Neisseria gonorrhea
- D All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium bacilli
Question 54: Which of the following is obligate aerobe ?
- A Proteus
- B diphtheria
- C Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Question 55: Malaria pigment is________________?
- A Haematin-globin pigment
- B Haemoglobin
- C Bilurubin
- D Iron
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Haematin-globin pigment
Question 56: The key cell types involved in the acquired immunity include all EXCEPT________________?
- A Erythrocytes
- B B lymphocytes
- C T lymphocytes
- D Antigen presenting cells (APC
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Erythrocytes
Question 57: Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor_____________?
- A Carbohydrate cell wall
- B Streptolysin 0
- C M protein
- D Pyrogenic exotoxin
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Pyrogenic exotoxin
Question 58: The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as_____________?
- A Idiotope
- B Paratope
- C Epitope
- D Clone
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Epitope
Question 59: Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose_______________?
- A Anaphylaxis
- B Arthus reaction
- C Contact dermatitis
- D Serum sickness
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Question 60: Immunoglobulin consists of________________?
- A 2 light, 2 heavy chains
- B 3 light, 1 heavy chain
- C 1 heavy, 2 light chains
- D 1 light, 1 heavy chain
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: 2 light, 2 heavy chains
Question 61: Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in________________?
- A Tissue culture
- B Chick embryos
- C Artificial media
- D Rabbit testis only
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Rabbit testis only
Question 62: Which of the following characteristics of bacteria is not true?
- A Free living
- B Cell wall containing muramic acid
- C Unicellular
- D Having either DNA or RNA
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Having either DNA or RNA
Question 63: A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT________________?
- A Imipenem
- B Teichoplanin
- C Linezolid
- D Vancomycin
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Imipenem
Question 64: The overall effect of HIV is to gradually impair the immune system by interference with______________?
- A Natural killer cells
- B Helper T lymphocytes
- C Macrophages
- D Plasma cells
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes
Question 65: Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?
- A Surface antigen
- B Core antibody
- C Surface antibody
- D Core antigen
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Surface antigen
Question 66: Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies_____________?
- A Rabies
- B Chicken pox
- C Small pox
- D Measles
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Measles
Question 67: Prozone phenomenon is due to______________?
- A Hyper immune reaction
- B Disproportionate antigen antibody levels
- C Excess antigen
- D Excess antibody
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Excess antibody
Question 68: Actinomycosis is a_________________?
- A Anaerobic fungal disease
- B Aerobic bacterial disease
- C Aerobic fungal disease
- D Anaerobic bacterial disease
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic bacterial disease
Question 69: HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except________________?
- A Blood transmission
- B Sexual intercourse
- C Needle prick injury
- D Saliva
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Saliva
Question 70: Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_______________?
- A Simple structure
- B Complex multiplication
- C All of the above
- D Presence of either DNA or RNA
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Question 71: False +ve for VDRL is seen in______________?
- A Yaws
- B Lepromatous Leprosy
- C All of the above
- D Malaria
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Question 72: Most fungi of medical importance belongs to__________________?
- A Basidiomycetes
- B Zygomycetes
- C Ascomycetes
- D Deuteromycetes
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Deuteromycetes
Question 73: Most of the drug resistances occurs due to_____________?
- A Mutation
- B conjugation
- C Transduction
- D Transformation
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: conjugation
Question 74: The bacterial cell wall has all of the following properties except______________?
- A It consists of a mixed polymer called peptidoglycon
- B It is a unique flexible plastic structure
- C It contains D-isomers of amino acids
- D It is the structure principally responsible for the reaction of gram staining
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: It is a unique flexible plastic structure
Question 75: The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is_____________?
- A Herpetic gingivostomatitis
- B Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
- C Tuberculosis
- D Apthous stomatitis
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Question 76: Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in which of the following viruses_____________?
- A Hepatitis B virus
- B HIV
- C Pox virus
- D Measles virus
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Question 77: The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is______________?
- A Chlamydia trachomatis
- B Donovania granulomatis
- C Hemophilia ducreya
- D Bartonella henselae
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Bartonella henselae
Question 78: Which of the following is not a feature of anaphylaxis ?
- A passive transfer by serum
- B None of the above
- C Delayed reaction
- D Immediate reaction
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Delayed reaction
Question 79: DNA covering material in a virus is called as________________?
- A Capsid
- B Envelope
- C Nucleocapsid
- D Capsomere
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Capsid
Question 80: ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______________?
- A Less sensitive less specific
- B More sensitive, more specific
- C More sensitive, less specific
- D Less sensitive, more specific
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: More sensitive, less specific
Question 81: Who first introduced solid media_______________?
- A Hensen
- B Robert koch
- C Ogston
- D Louis pasteur
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Robert koch
Question 82: cAMP reaction is shown by which streptococci ?
- A Group A
- B Group D
- C Group C
- D Group B
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Group B
Question 83: Widal test is specific for____________?
- A Pemhigoid
- B Typhoid
- C Leprosy
- D Plague
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid
Question 84: Which of the following is not a koch
- A Pure cultures can be obtained
- B When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
- C The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue
- D Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the experimental animals
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Question 85: All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_________________?
- A gingivalis
- B histolytica
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: gingivalis
Question 86: When horse serum is injected intravenoulsy in to a rabbit and again in to the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs as the site of the second injection________________?
- A Serum sickness
- B Arthus phenomenon
- C Anaphylaxis
- D Atopy
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Arthus phenomenon
Question 87: Fimbriae are demonstrated by ___________________?
- A Culture
- B Haemagglutination test
- C Biochemical reaction
- D Gram stain
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Haemagglutination test
Question 88: The following is not true of Candida albicans______________?
- A Blastomeres seen in isolates
- B Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them
- C Yeast like fungus
- D Forms Chlamydospores
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Blastomeres seen in isolates
Question 89: The temperature required for cultivating mycobacterium________________?
- A 27 degrees
- B 37 degrees
- C 0 degree
- D 2 degree
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: 37 degrees
Question 90: All are true about bordetella pertussis except______________?
- A Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
- B It may occur in children and young adult after vaccination
- C Bacteria culture from nasopharyngeal swab is the definitive diagnosis
- D Most common cause is B. Petrussis
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Question 91: Causative organism of Kalahazar is_______________?
- A Entamoeba histolytica
- B Plasmodium ovaie
- C Toxoplasma
- D Leishman donovani
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Leishman donovani
Question 92: Interferon interferes with replication of virus at the time of_____________?
- A Protein synthesis
- B DNA/RNA replication
- C When virus enters the cell
- D Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Protein synthesis
Question 93: Rideal Walker test is used to determine the efficiency of the_____________?
- A Antibiotics
- B Disinfectant
- C Moist heat sterilisation
- D Dry heat sterilization
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Disinfectant
Question 94: The difference between sterilization and disinfection is that_______________?
- A Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
- B Disinfection kills all spores but sterilization does not
- C Sterilization involves chemicals and disinfection involves physical methods
- D Sterilization is easier to achieve
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Question 95: The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is_______________?
- A Transformation
- B Lysogeny
- C Translation
- D Conjugation
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Lysogeny
Question 96: For uniform staining reaction, morphology and biochemical activity it is advisable to study bacterial cultures during the_____________?
- A Lag phase
- B Logarithmic phase
- C Stationary phase
- D Death phase
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Logarithmic phase
Question 97: The structure in involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface is_______________?
- A Fimbria
- B None of the above
- C Capsule
- D Flagella
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Fimbria
Question 98: Vibrio cholera was discovered by_________________?
- A John snow
- B Koch
- C Virchow
- D Medintoff
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Koch
Question 99: Noguchi
- A Bordetella
- B Brucella
- C Borrelia
- D None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia
Question 100: Donovanosis, true is___________________?
- A Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
- B Penicillin is drug of choice
- C Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic
- D Characterized by painful genital ulcers
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis