TOP Microbiology MCQS

All Questions for: TOP Microbiology MCQS

Question 101: Which of the following statement about P24 antigen of HIV is Not True ?

  • A Virus load parallel P24 titre
  • B Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:
  • C It remains during asymptomatic phase
  • D It can be detected during the window period

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: It remains during asymptomatic phase

Question 102: A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?

  • A Allograft
  • B Isograft
  • C Autograft
  • D Xenograft

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Isograft

Question 103: In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_______________?

  • A Gametocyte
  • B Merozoite
  • C Hypnozoite
  • D Sporozoite

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Sporozoite

Question 104: Virus infected cell is killed by________________?

  • A Macrophages
  • B Autolysis
  • C Neutrophils
  • D Interferons

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Interferons

Question 105: In small intestine, cholera toxin acts by______________?

  • A ADP
  • B Active absorption of NaCI
  • C Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
  • D Activation of GTPase

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: ADP

Question 106: Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by_____________?

  • A Haemolytic streptococci
  • B Staphylococcus aureus
  • C Nisseria
  • D Streptococcus viridans

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus viridans

Question 107: Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by______________?

  • A Inspissation
  • B Hot air oven
  • C UV-Radiation
  • D Autoclaving

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven

Question 108: Candida is most often implicated in causation___________________?

  • A Conjunctivitis
  • B Desert rheumatism
  • C Thrush
  • D Tenea capitis

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Thrush

Question 109: Diphtheria is pathogenic only when infected with______________?

  • A Alfa phage
  • B Lambda K12
  • C Beta phage
  • D Delta Phage

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Beta phage

Question 110: The antigen used in Weil Felix test is obtained from________________?

  • A Staphylococcus
  • B Proteus
  • C coli

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Proteus

Question 111: In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to______________?

  • A CD4 T-cells
  • B CD8 T-cells
  • C B
  • D NK

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: CD4 T-cells

Question 112: Actinomycosis is caused by______________?

  • A Fungus
  • B Retrovirus
  • C Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
  • D Acid fast, non-motile bacillus

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.

Question 113: The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route________________?

  • A Hepatitis E virus
  • B Hepatitis B virus
  • C Hepatitis D virus
  • D Hepatitis C virus

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus

Question 114: During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______________?

  • A Both are
  • B Western Blot is
  • C PCR is
  • D ELISA IS

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Both are

Question 115: Lepromin test is useful for________________?

  • A Epidemiology
  • B Treatment plan
  • C Diagnosis
  • D Prognosis

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Prognosis

Question 116: Staphylococci typically occur in_________________?

  • A Chains
  • B Irregular clusters
  • C Tetrads
  • D Pairs

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Irregular clusters

Question 117: The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the________________?

  • A CH2 domian
  • B VL domian
  • C CL domian
  • D CH1 domian

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: CH2 domian

Question 118: Multiple drug resistance of bacteria depends on which of the following_______________?

  • A All of the above
  • B Fertility factor (F+)
  • C Colicigenic factor (Col)
  • D Resistance transfer factor (RTF)

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Resistance transfer factor (RTF)

Question 119: Immunity that is conferred to the foetus by transfer of IgG and IgA antibodies is called as______________?

  • A Active acquired immunity
  • B Passive acquired immunity
  • C Passive natural immunity
  • D Natural active immunity

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Passive natural immunity

Question 120: Viron is defined as______________?

  • A A smallest particle similar to virus
  • B Extracellular infectious virus particle
  • C Smallest virus
  • D None of the above

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Extracellular infectious virus particle

Question 121: Cough plate method is used to identify________________?

  • A Y. pestis
  • B Pertussis
  • C Mycoplasma
  • D M-Tuberculosis

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Pertussis

Question 122: Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functional of the cell______________?

  • A nucleus
  • B membrane
  • C Capsule
  • D wall

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: membrane

Question 123: A dentist suffred from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is_____________?

  • A Inactive carrier
  • B Healthy carrier
  • C Convalscent carrier
  • D Paradoxical carrier

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Convalscent carrier

Question 124: Sunlight acts as sterilizing agent because_________________?

  • A Long wavelength
  • B short wave lenght
  • C Ozone
  • D Heat

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: short wave lenght

Question 125: Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in______________?

  • A 4 weeks
  • B 9 weeks
  • C 2 weeks
  • D 12 weeks

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: 4 weeks

Question 126: What is the sequence which a retro virus follows on entering a host cell ?

  • A RNA -DNA-RNA
  • B RNA-DNA
  • C DNA-RNA-DNA
  • D DNA-RNA

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: RNA -DNA-RNA

Question 127: Nagglers reaction detects________________?

  • A None of the above
  • B Lecithinase
  • C Coagulase
  • D Hyaluronidase

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase

Question 128: Man is the only reservoir for_______________?

  • A Camphylobacter jejuni
  • B histolytica
  • C Y. enterocolitica

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: histolytica

Question 129: Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_________________?

  • A Cytokinin
  • B Lecithinase
  • C Theta toxin
  • D Desmolase

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase

Question 130: Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except___________________?

  • A Though plasmids
  • B through conjugation
  • C Incorporating part of host DNA
  • D Through bacteriophages

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA

Question 131: An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is__________________?

  • A Immune blood transfusion
  • B Hepatitis vaccination
  • C Gamma globulin injection
  • D Placental transfer of antibodies

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Placental transfer of antibodies

Question 132: All are true about legionella pneumophilia except______________?

  • A It can replicate in amoeba
  • B Aquatic bodies are main habitat
  • C Person to person transmission
  • D Urine test is a reliable method

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Person to person transmission

Question 133: Smith noguchi

  • A Klebsiella
  • B Bacillus
  • C Spirochetes
  • D Salmonella

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes

Question 134: Tyndallisation is carried out for________________?

  • A Three successive days
  • B Two successive days
  • C One day
  • D 60 minutes

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Three successive days

Question 135: Prions true is____________?

  • A Sensitive to most chemical sterilization
  • B Contains DNA/ RNA
  • C Evokes strong immunogenic reaction
  • D Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C

Question 136: Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which of the following________________?

  • A Plasma cells
  • B Active T cells
  • C NK cells
  • D B-cells

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Active T cells

Question 137: All are oncogenic except________________?

  • A Culex
  • B Mansoni
  • C Anopheles
  • D Aedes

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Aedes

Question 138: Which of the following viruses appears to be involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi

  • A Human Herpes Virus 1
  • B Human Herpes Virus 3
  • C Human Herpes Virus 4
  • D Human Herpes Virus 8

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Human Herpes Virus 4

Question 139: Following are the characteristics of Vincent

  • A Ulcerative gingivostomatitis
  • B Caused by leptospira interrogans
  • C Caused due to malnutrition
  • D A symbiotic infection

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Caused by leptospira interrogans

Question 140: Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores can be achieved with_______________?

  • A Grocott Gomori Methenamine silver
  • B Hematoxylin and Eosin
  • C Peri-iodic Acid Schiff
  • D KOH wet mount

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: KOH wet mount

Question 141: The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum ?

  • A IgG4
  • B IgG1
  • C IgG2
  • D IgG3

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: IgG1

Question 142: Cytopathic effect is shown by_____________?

  • A Spirochete
  • B Virus
  • C Bacteria
  • D Anaerobe

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Virus

Question 143: Methods for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infection________________?

  • A KOH staining
  • B Wood light examination
  • C Microscopic examination of skin scrapings
  • D All of the above

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: All of the above

Question 144: Culture medium used for Bordatella pertussis is_________________?

  • A Wilson Blair medium
  • B Bile broth
  • C Bordet Gengou medium
  • D Robertson cooked meat medium

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Bordet Gengou medium

Question 145: Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_____________________?

  • A antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis
  • B in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
  • C only after one year
  • D no antibodies are present in primary HSV

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks

Question 146: Graft versus host reaction is caused by_________________?

  • A Monocytes
  • B T-lymphocytes
  • C B-Lymphocytes
  • D Leukocytes

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: T-lymphocytes

Question 147: Black pigmented anaerobes include all of the following except______________?

  • A Buccae
  • B Prevotella
  • C Porphyromonas
  • D Tannerella

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Buccae

Question 148: A protoplast is best characterized as a bacterial cell______________?

  • A with a cell wall but free of a capsule
  • B Uniquely sensitive to penicillin
  • C containing a cell wall and a capsule
  • D Free of a cell wall and a capsule

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Free of a cell wall and a capsule

Question 149: Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes______________?

  • A Cytotoxic T cells
  • B Memory B cells
  • C B cells
  • D NK Cells

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: NK Cells

Question 150: Grape bunch shaped colonies are seen in______________?

  • A Gonococci
  • B Streptococcus
  • C Staphylococcus
  • D E.coli

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Staphylococcus