TOP Microbiology MCQS
All Questions for: TOP Microbiology MCQS
Question 301: The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is___________________?
- A 15%
- B 10%
- C 2%
- D 5%
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: 2%
Question 302: Selective media for MYCOBACTERIUM _____________?
- A Sabourauds medium
- B Loefflers serum slope
- C Lowenstein Jensen medium
- D Agar
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Lowenstein Jensen medium
Question 303: A sporangium contains_______________?
- A Chlamydospores
- B Oidia
- C Spherules
- D porangiospores
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: porangiospores
Question 304: Anaerobic bacteria can be cultured in__________________?
- A Sabourauds agar
- B L-J medium
- C Robertson cooked meat medium
- D Loefflers medium
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Robertson cooked meat medium
Question 305: All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except________________?
- A Trophozoites colonise in the colon
- B Cysts are 4 nucleated
- C Cysts are 8 nucleated
- D The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Cysts are 8 nucleated
Question 306: Gram -ve bacteria stain during gram staining____________?
- A Green
- B Blue color
- C Red color
- D Colorless
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Red color
Question 307: The optimal time and temperature required for sterilization in an autoclave is___________________?
- A 140
- B 121
- C 121
- D 121
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: 121
Question 308: Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus ?
- A Verruca vulgaris
- B Focal epithelial hyperplasia
- C Condyloma acuminatum
- D Keratoacanthoma
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Keratoacanthoma
Question 309: IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by______________?
- A Activated macrophages
- B Plasma cells
- C Platelet
- D Lymphocytes
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Activated macrophages
Question 310: The major intestinal pathogens which are non-lactose fermenters are_________________?
- A Paracolons
- B Klebsiella
- C Escherichia
- D Salmonella
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Salmonella
Question 311: Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by________________?
- A Culture
- B ELISA
- C DNA probe
- D Direct microscopy
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Culture
Question 312: Which component of the cell wall is responsible________________?
- A Region I
- B Region II
- C Boivin antigen
- D Region III
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Region III
Question 313: In patients with asthma due to an allergic cause the serum levels of which immunoglobulin increase____________________?
- A IgD
- B IgE
- C IgM
- D IgA
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Question 314: Which regards to temperature requirement, most pathogenic bacteria are_____________?
- A Cryophiles
- B Thermophiles
- C Mesophiles
- D Psychrophiles
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Mesophiles
Question 315: Negative phase is seen in ________ immunity?
- A Active
- B Passive
- C Herd
- D Local
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Active
Question 316: Bacterial cell does not possess___________________?
- A dna
- B Ribosome
- C Mitochondria
- D Cell wall
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Mitochondria
Question 317: Australian antigen is_______________?
- A HBV
- B HBs AG
- C HB Ag
- D None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: HBs AG
Question 318: Which does not have a viral etiology______________?
- A Hepatoma
- B Lymphoma
- C Carcinoma Cervix
- D Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Question 319: Endotoxins are produced by________________?
- A Virus
- B Fungi
- C Gram -ve bacteria
- D Gram +ve bacteria
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Gram -ve bacteria
Question 320: EBV is responsible for all except______________?
- A Hepatoma
- B Infectious mononucleosis
- C Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
- D Burkitt
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Question 321: Complement factor through which common pathway begins___________________?
- A C3
- B Protein B
- C C5
- D C2
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: C3
Question 322: Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is___________________?
- A Liver
- B Spleen
- C Lungs
- D Brain
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Liver
Question 323: The time gap between appearance of Koplik
- A 10 days
- B 2 weeks
- C 24 Hrs
- D 3-4 days
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: 3-4 days
Question 324: CD4 cells recognize the antigens in association with_____________?
- A MHC II
- B B-cell receptor
- C MHC I
- D MHC III
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: MHC II
Question 325: Each of the following viruses possesses an outer lipoprotein envelope except_____________?
- A Influenza Virus
- B Papilloma Virus
- C Varicella Zoster Virus
- D Human immunodeficiency virus
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma Virus
Question 326: Mark true in following ?
- A None of the above
- B Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
- C Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
- D Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Question 327: First released immunoglobulin after primary immunization_______________?
- A IgD
- B IgE
- C IgM
- D IgG
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Question 328: Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is_________________?
- A T-strain mycoplasma
- B Streptococcus fecalis
- C Neisseria gonorrhea
- D Escherichia coli
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Escherichia coli
Question 329: Black water fever is caused by______________?
- A Plasmodium vivax
- B Microfilaria
- C Leishmania donovani
- D Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Question 330: Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______________?
- A Banana
- B Dot
- C Comma
- D Sickle
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Sickle
Question 331: Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____________?
- A 6 week
- B 3 months
- C 6 months
- D 1 week
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: 1 week
Question 332: About Psedomonas. All are true except________________?
- A Strick aerobes
- B Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
- C Can grow in disinfectants in hospital
- D Most common organism is burn patient
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Question 333: Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except_______________?
- A Through conjugation
- B Incorporating part of host DNA
- C Through bacteriophages
- D Through plasmids
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Question 334: Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____________?
- A 3,10,19
- B 16,18,31
- C 6,8,11
- D Type 6,12,18
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: 16,18,31
Question 335: Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except_______________?
- A Chemically defined media
- B Tissue culture
- C Animals
- D Embryonated eggs
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Chemically defined media
Question 336: Type of receptor present on T-cells are__________________?
- A CD4
- B Ig A
- C Ig G
- D Prostaglandins
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: CD4
Question 337: All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_____________?
- A Refractile nucleus
- B Chromatid bars
- C Eccentric nucleus
- D Glycogen mass
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Refractile nucleus
Question 338: Leprosy bacilli can be grown in_________________?
- A Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
- B Testes of albino rats
- C Tail of guinea pig
- D Testes of guinea pig
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Question 339: Group A B-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the pharynx may be followed in some by_____________?
- A Rheumatic fever
- B Syphilis
- C Typhoid fever
- D Diphtheria
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatic fever
Question 340: Secretory Ig is_______________?
- A IgE
- B IgD
- C IgA
- D IgM
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Question 341: Which of the following viruses does not infect salivary glands ?
- A Orthomyxovirus
- B HIV
- C Echo virus
- D Hepatitis C
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxovirus
Question 342: Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following________________?
- A Tetanus toxoid
- B Salk vaccine
- C Sabin
- D All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Salk vaccine
Question 343: True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by_______________?
- A Cow
- B Dogs
- C cats
- D Rats
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: cats
Question 344: Candidal hyphae can be stained using_______________?
- A Toluidine blue stain
- B Van Gieson
- C Periodic acid schiff stain
- D Masson Trichrome stain
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Periodic acid schiff stain
Question 345: The prototype of Type II hypersensitivity reaction is__________________?
- A Arthus reaction
- B Contact dermatitis
- C SLE
- D Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Question 346: The earliest identifiable cells of T-Cell lineage during maturation are_______________?
- A CD5+ Pre-T-Cells
- B CD8+ Pre-T-Cells
- C CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
- D CD8+ Pro-T-Cells
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
Question 347: Dengue virus belongs to______________?
- A Rhabdoviridae
- B Togaviridae
- C Flavi virus
- D Reoviridae
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Flavi virus
Question 348: T cell matures in______________?
- A Payers patch
- B Lymph node
- C Busra of Fabricius
- D Thymus
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Thymus
Question 349: The presence of Which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility ?
- A Polysaccharide
- B Protein coat
- C Enzymes
- D Lipids
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Protein coat
Question 350: Wasserman test test is diagnostic of__________________?
- A Tyhoid
- B Gonorrhea
- C Syphilis
- D TB
Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis