TOP Microbiology MCQS

All Questions for: TOP Microbiology MCQS

Question 1: Bacterial spores are destroyed by_______________?

  • A Pasteurisation
  • B Boiling at 100
  • C Disinfection by hypochlorite solution
  • D Autoclave

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave

Question 2: The interaction of antigens with antibodies on the surface of a mast cel leads to degranulation and anaphylaxis. The mast cell granules produce anaphylaxis because they contain________________?

  • A Proteolytic enzymes
  • B Vasoactive mediators
  • C Lysosomes
  • D Lymphotoxins

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Vasoactive mediators

Question 3: Bacteria with potent exotoxin is_______________?

  • A Klebsiella
  • B Pseudomonas
  • C Clostridium tetani
  • D Shigella

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani

Question 4: True about prions________________?

  • A Viruses which are genetically deficient
  • B Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
  • C Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
  • D Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid

Question 5: The best skin disinfectant is________________?

  • A Savlon
  • B Alcohol
  • C Chlorhexdine
  • D None of the above

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Chlorhexdine

Question 6: Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates_____________?

  • A Simple carriers
  • B Late convalescence
  • C High infectivity
  • D Carrier status

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: High infectivity

Question 7: The facultative anaerobic bacteria are those who are_______________?

  • A Unable to grow in the presence of oxygen
  • B Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
  • C Able to grow in the presence of carbon dioxide
  • D Unable to grow in the absence of oxygen

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen

Question 8: A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?

  • A Plasmodium ovale
  • B Plasmodium vivax
  • C Plasmodium falciparum
  • D Plasmodium malaria

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum

Question 9: Erysipelas is caused by________________?

  • A Group B staphylococci
  • B Group A steptococci
  • C Pneumococci
  • D Gonococci

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Group B staphylococci

Question 10: True about immune response of hepatitis B is__________________?

  • A Antibody to HBC is not protective
  • B CMI disappears soon after recover
  • C Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
  • D Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection

Question 11: Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria______________?

  • A Lowenstein Jensen Medium
  • B Loefflers serum slope
  • C Mc Conkey
  • D Saborauds agar

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Loefflers serum slope

Question 12: A full course of immunization agianst. Telanus with 3 doses to Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how many years ?

  • A 20
  • B 15
  • C 5
  • D 10

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: 10

Question 13: Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?

  • A ELISA followed by western blot technique
  • B Western blot followed by ELISA
  • C Polymers chain reaction
  • D Virus isolation

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: ELISA followed by western blot technique

Question 14: Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-5m in size, multi-septate, chestnut, brown color is characteristic of________________?

  • A Histoplasmosis
  • B Chromoblastomycosis
  • C Rhinosporodiosis
  • D Phaeohypomycosis

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Chromoblastomycosis

Question 15: The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell

  • A Haemagglutination inhibition test
  • B Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
  • C Cytopathic changes in culture cells
  • D Haemagglutination test

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Cytopathic changes in culture cells

Question 16: An oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod which produces a bluish-green pigment has been grown in culture from a swab obtained from an infected burn wound. This organism is susceptible to gentamicin, ticarcillin and tobramicin, but resistant to all the other antibiotics which of the following organisms is it likely to be ?

  • A Proteus miribilis
  • B Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • C Escherichia coli
  • D Klebsiella pnemoniae

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Question 17: Exaltation is________________?

  • A No change
  • B Increased Virulence
  • C Decreased virulence
  • D None

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Increased Virulence

Question 18: Which of the following is not true of boiling water_____________?

  • A Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
  • B Can kill vegetative bacterial cells
  • C Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • D It can kill hepatitis B virus

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Used for sterilizing surgical instruments

Question 19: The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is_______________?

  • A IgA
  • B IgD
  • C IgG
  • D IgM

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: IgG

Question 20: Germ tubes are formed mainly by_______________?

  • A Candida albicans
  • B Candida tropicalis
  • C Candida pseudotropicalls
  • D Candida stellatoidea

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans

Question 21: The best method of sterilization of dressing powder is_____________?

  • A Inspissation
  • B Hot air oven
  • C Autoclaving
  • D Tyndallization

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven

Question 22: The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with______________?

  • A Mast cells
  • B IgM antibodies
  • C IgA antibodies
  • D Lysozyme

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: IgA antibodies

Question 23: Loss of capsule in bacteria is generally associated with______________?

  • A Inability to spread through tissue
  • B Loss of infectivity
  • C increase in invasiveness
  • D Decease in virulence

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Decease in virulence

Question 24: Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify______________?

  • A Mycoplasma
  • B Chlamydiae
  • C Spirochaetes
  • D Rickettsiae

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Spirochaetes

Question 25: Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_____________?

  • A Tuberculosis
  • B Candidiasis
  • C Cryptococcosis
  • D Aspergilosis

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Candidiasis

Question 26: Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans_________________?

  • A IgG
  • B IgA
  • C IgM
  • D IgD

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: IgG

Question 27: Dry heat destroys microorganisms by_____________?

  • A Coagulation of proteins
  • B Oxidation
  • C Hydrolysis of DNA
  • D Lysis

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Oxidation

Question 28: Which of the following is true about pasteurization ?

  • A Tubercle bacilli are destroyed
  • B It kills all bacteria except thermoduric bacteria
  • C It kills bacteria and spores
  • D It kills 95% of microorganisms

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: It kills all bacteria except thermoduric bacteria

Question 29: Flash pasteurization of milk is done at what temperature______________?

  • A 60
  • B 72
  • C 72
  • D 125

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: 72

Question 30: patients with organ transplants are most frequently infected with______________?

  • A CMV
  • B Hepatitis B
  • C EBV
  • D Hepatitis A

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: CMV

Question 31: The viral action is differentiated from bacterial action by_________________?

  • A Toxin production
  • B Lymphocytes production
  • C Neutrophils production
  • D Interferon production

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Interferon production

Question 32: Which organism causes prosthetic valve endocarditis within 60 days of surgery________________?

  • A Streptococcus Viridans
  • B Fungus
  • C Staphylococcus aureus
  • D Staphylococcus epidermis

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Staphylococcus epidermis

Question 33: Hospital dressing is best disposed by_____________?

  • A Burying
  • B Autoclaving
  • C Incineration
  • D Dumping

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Incineration

Question 34: Salivary peroxidise system is known to be effective agianst________________?

  • A Lactobacillus acidophilus
  • B Streptococcus mutans
  • C Veilonella parvula
  • D Actinomyces viscosus

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Lactobacillus acidophilus

Question 35: Secretory piece of IgA is synthesized in______________?

  • A T-cells
  • B Mucosal epithelium
  • C B-cells
  • D Lymph nodes

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Mucosal epithelium

Question 36: Cysticercosis celluosae is caused by_____________?

  • A Echinococcus granulosus
  • B T. Saginata
  • C T. Solium

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: T. Solium

Question 37: Borelia vincenti is a______________?

  • A Mycoplasma
  • B Chlamydia
  • C Spirochaete
  • D Mycobacteria

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Spirochaete

Question 38: Hot air oven cannot be used for sterlisling___________________?

  • A Needles
  • B Culture media
  • C Instruments
  • D Clothes

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Culture media

Question 39: Cold sterilization refers to the process of sterilization by use of____________________?

  • A Gamma rays
  • B Infrared rays
  • C Ultrasonic vibrations
  • D Ultra violet rays

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Gamma rays

Question 40: Which one of the following enteric organisms is anaerogenic and non motile ?

  • A Klebsiella pneumonia
  • B Salmonella typhi
  • C Proteus mirabilis
  • D Shigella sonnei

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Shigella sonnei

Question 41: Common inhabitant of throat and tonsils is______________?

  • A Beta hemolytic streptococci
  • B Alpha hymolytic streptococci (S. viridans)
  • C Staphylococci
  • D Pneumococci

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Alpha hymolytic streptococci (S. viridans)

Question 42: Enterically transmitted NANB hepatitis B_____________?

  • A Hepatitis C
  • B Hepatitis F
  • C Hepatitis E
  • D Hepatitis D

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E

Question 43: Hot air oven is used for sterilization of all EXCEPT__________________?

  • A Glassware
  • B Sharp instrument
  • C Rubber tubes
  • D Liquid paraffin

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Rubber tubes

Question 44: Which worm is longest________________?

  • A Hook worm
  • B T. Saginata
  • C A. Lumbricoides
  • D T. Solium

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: T. Saginata

Question 45: Malignant pustule is referred to_________________?

  • A Cutaneous anthrax
  • B Facio-cervical actinomycosis
  • C Infected squamous cell carcinoma
  • D None of the above

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Cutaneous anthrax

Question 46: In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started________________?

  • A Influenza
  • B Rabies
  • C Poliomyelitis
  • D Herpes

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Rabies

Question 47: True about VDRL test________________?

  • A Non
  • B Best followed for drug therapy
  • C Slide flocculation test
  • D All of the above

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: All of the above

Question 48: A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is_____________?

  • A Hepatitis B virus
  • B Hepatitis E virus
  • C Hepatitis C virus
  • D Hepatitis A virus

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus

Question 49: Lancefields classification of B hemolytic streptococcus is based on______________?

  • A M Protein
  • B Physiological properties
  • C Polysaccharide C antigen
  • D Type of lipid in cell membrane

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Polysaccharide C antigen

Question 50: Virulence of Gonococcus is due to___________________?

  • A Cell Membrane
  • B Its intracellular location
  • C Pili
  • D Cytolytic enzymes

Explanation: The correct answer to the question is: Pili