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TOP Microbiology MCQS Questions
Q.
Bacterial spores are destroyed by_______________?
Boiling at 100
Disinfection by hypochlorite solution
Autoclave
Pasteurisation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The interaction of antigens with antibodies on the surface of a mast cel leads to degranulation and anaphylaxis. The mast cell granules produce anaphylaxis because they contain________________?
Lymphotoxins
Vasoactive mediators
Proteolytic enzymes
Lysosomes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vasoactive mediators
Q.
Bacteria with potent exotoxin is_______________?
Shigella
Clostridium tetani
Pseudomonas
Klebsiella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani
Q.
True about prions________________?
Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Viruses which are genetically deficient
Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Q.
The best skin disinfectant is________________?
None of the above
Alcohol
Chlorhexdine
Savlon
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chlorhexdine
Q.
Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates_____________?
Simple carriers
High infectivity
Late convalescence
Carrier status
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: High infectivity
Q.
The facultative anaerobic bacteria are those who are_______________?
Unable to grow in the absence of oxygen
Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Able to grow in the presence of carbon dioxide
Unable to grow in the presence of oxygen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Q.
A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium malaria
Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Erysipelas is caused by________________?
Group B staphylococci
Pneumococci
Group A steptococci
Gonococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B staphylococci
Q.
True about immune response of hepatitis B is__________________?
Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
CMI disappears soon after recover
Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Antibody to HBC is not protective
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Q.
Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria______________?
Saborauds agar
Mc Conkey
Lowenstein Jensen Medium
Loefflers serum slope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Loefflers serum slope
Q.
A full course of immunization agianst. Telanus with 3 doses to Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how many years ?
15
5
20
10
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 10
Q.
Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?
Virus isolation
Western blot followed by ELISA
ELISA followed by western blot technique
Polymers chain reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA followed by western blot technique
Q.
Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-5m in size, multi-septate, chestnut, brown color is characteristic of________________?
Rhinosporodiosis
Histoplasmosis
Phaeohypomycosis
Chromoblastomycosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chromoblastomycosis
Q.
The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell
Haemagglutination inhibition test
Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
Haemagglutination test
Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Q.
An oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod which produces a bluish-green pigment has been grown in culture from a swab obtained from an infected burn wound. This organism is susceptible to gentamicin, ticarcillin and tobramicin, but resistant to all the other antibiotics which of the following organisms is it likely to be ?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Escherichia coli
Klebsiella pnemoniae
Proteus miribilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q.
Exaltation is________________?
Increased Virulence
None
Decreased virulence
No change
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increased Virulence
Q.
Which of the following is not true of boiling water_____________?
Can kill vegetative bacterial cells
It can kill hepatitis B virus
Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Q.
The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is_______________?
IgD
IgG
IgA
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Germ tubes are formed mainly by_______________?
Candida tropicalis
Candida stellatoidea
Candida pseudotropicalls
Candida albicans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
The best method of sterilization of dressing powder is_____________?
Tyndallization
Hot air oven
Inspissation
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with______________?
IgA antibodies
Mast cells
Lysozyme
IgM antibodies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA antibodies
Q.
Loss of capsule in bacteria is generally associated with______________?
Loss of infectivity
Inability to spread through tissue
increase in invasiveness
Decease in virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Decease in virulence
Q.
Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify______________?
Chlamydiae
Rickettsiae
Spirochaetes
Mycoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochaetes
Q.
Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_____________?
Aspergilosis
Cryptococcosis
Tuberculosis
Candidiasis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candidiasis
Q.
Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans_________________?
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Hot air oven is used for sterilization of all EXCEPT__________________?
Sharp instrument
Glassware
Rubber tubes
Liquid paraffin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubber tubes
Q.
Which worm is longest________________?
Hook worm
A. Lumbricoides
T. Saginata
T. Solium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T. Saginata
Q.
Malignant pustule is referred to_________________?
Facio-cervical actinomycosis
Infected squamous cell carcinoma
None of the above
Cutaneous anthrax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cutaneous anthrax
Q.
In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started________________?
Rabies
Influenza
Poliomyelitis
Herpes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabies
Q.
True about VDRL test________________?
Non
Slide flocculation test
All of the above
Best followed for drug therapy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is_____________?
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis A virus
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
Lancefields classification of B hemolytic streptococcus is based on______________?
Type of lipid in cell membrane
Physiological properties
Polysaccharide C antigen
M Protein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Polysaccharide C antigen
Q.
Virulence of Gonococcus is due to___________________?
Pili
Cell Membrane
Its intracellular location
Cytolytic enzymes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
Which of the following fulfil all the criterias of kich
Treponema pallidum
N. gonorrhoeae
None of the above
Mycobacterium leprae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: None of the above
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria grow_______________?
in the absence of oxygen
in the presence of nitrogen
differential media
in the presence of oxygen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in the absence of oxygen
Q.
Which of the following is an acid-fast bacillus_____________?
Treponema pallidum
All of the above
Mycobacterium bacilli
Neisseria gonorrhea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium bacilli
Q.
Which of the following is obligate aerobe ?
Pseudomonas aerogenosa
diphtheria
Proteus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Q.
Malaria pigment is________________?
Haemoglobin
Iron
Bilurubin
Haematin-globin pigment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haematin-globin pigment
Q.
The key cell types involved in the acquired immunity include all EXCEPT________________?
Antigen presenting cells (APC
Erythrocytes
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythrocytes
Q.
Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor_____________?
M protein
Carbohydrate cell wall
Pyrogenic exotoxin
Streptolysin 0
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pyrogenic exotoxin
Q.
The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as_____________?
Clone
Idiotope
Epitope
Paratope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epitope
Q.
Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose_______________?
Anaphylaxis
Serum sickness
Contact dermatitis
Arthus reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Immunoglobulin consists of________________?
3 light, 1 heavy chain
2 light, 2 heavy chains
1 light, 1 heavy chain
1 heavy, 2 light chains
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2 light, 2 heavy chains
Q.
Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in________________?
Rabbit testis only
Chick embryos
Artificial media
Tissue culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabbit testis only
Q.
Which of the following characteristics of bacteria is not true?
Cell wall containing muramic acid
Free living
Unicellular
Having either DNA or RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Having either DNA or RNA
Q.
A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT________________?
Teichoplanin
Imipenem
Vancomycin
Linezolid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Imipenem
Q.
The overall effect of HIV is to gradually impair the immune system by interference with______________?
Helper T lymphocytes
Macrophages
Plasma cells
Natural killer cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes
Q.
Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?
Surface antigen
Core antigen
Core antibody
Surface antibody
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Surface antigen
Q.
Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies_____________?
Measles
Rabies
Small pox
Chicken pox
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles
Q.
Prozone phenomenon is due to______________?
Hyper immune reaction
Disproportionate antigen antibody levels
Excess antigen
Excess antibody
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Excess antibody
Q.
Actinomycosis is a_________________?
Anaerobic fungal disease
Aerobic bacterial disease
Anaerobic bacterial disease
Aerobic fungal disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic bacterial disease
Q.
HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except________________?
Blood transmission
Sexual intercourse
Needle prick injury
Saliva
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saliva
Q.
Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_______________?
Simple structure
Presence of either DNA or RNA
All of the above
Complex multiplication
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
False +ve for VDRL is seen in______________?
Malaria
Lepromatous Leprosy
All of the above
Yaws
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Most fungi of medical importance belongs to__________________?
Basidiomycetes
Ascomycetes
Zygomycetes
Deuteromycetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deuteromycetes
Q.
Most of the drug resistances occurs due to_____________?
Transduction
Mutation
conjugation
Transformation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: conjugation
Q.
The bacterial cell wall has all of the following properties except______________?
It contains D-isomers of amino acids
It is a unique flexible plastic structure
It is the structure principally responsible for the reaction of gram staining
It consists of a mixed polymer called peptidoglycon
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It is a unique flexible plastic structure
Q.
The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is_____________?
Herpetic gingivostomatitis
Apthous stomatitis
Tuberculosis
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Q.
Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in which of the following viruses_____________?
Hepatitis B virus
Pox virus
HIV
Measles virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is______________?
Bartonella henselae
Hemophilia ducreya
Donovania granulomatis
Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bartonella henselae
Q.
Which of the following is not a feature of anaphylaxis ?
Delayed reaction
Immediate reaction
None of the above
passive transfer by serum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Delayed reaction
Q.
DNA covering material in a virus is called as________________?
Nucleocapsid
Capsid
Envelope
Capsomere
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Capsid
Q.
ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______________?
Less sensitive, more specific
More sensitive, more specific
More sensitive, less specific
Less sensitive less specific
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: More sensitive, less specific
Q.
Who first introduced solid media_______________?
Ogston
Louis pasteur
Hensen
Robert koch
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robert koch
Q.
cAMP reaction is shown by which streptococci ?
Group B
Group D
Group A
Group C
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B
Q.
Widal test is specific for____________?
Pemhigoid
Plague
Leprosy
Typhoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid
Q.
Which of the following is not a koch
Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the experimental animals
Pure cultures can be obtained
When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Q.
All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_________________?
gingivalis
histolytica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: gingivalis
Q.
When horse serum is injected intravenoulsy in to a rabbit and again in to the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs as the site of the second injection________________?
Arthus phenomenon
Serum sickness
Anaphylaxis
Atopy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus phenomenon
Q.
Fimbriae are demonstrated by ___________________?
Culture
Haemagglutination test
Gram stain
Biochemical reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haemagglutination test
Q.
The following is not true of Candida albicans______________?
Blastomeres seen in isolates
Yeast like fungus
Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them
Forms Chlamydospores
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blastomeres seen in isolates
Q.
The temperature required for cultivating mycobacterium________________?
2 degree
37 degrees
0 degree
27 degrees
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 37 degrees
Q.
All are true about bordetella pertussis except______________?
Bacteria culture from nasopharyngeal swab is the definitive diagnosis
Most common cause is B. Petrussis
It may occur in children and young adult after vaccination
Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Q.
Causative organism of Kalahazar is_______________?
Entamoeba histolytica
Toxoplasma
Leishman donovani
Plasmodium ovaie
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leishman donovani
Q.
Interferon interferes with replication of virus at the time of_____________?
Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule
When virus enters the cell
DNA/RNA replication
Protein synthesis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein synthesis
Q.
Rideal Walker test is used to determine the efficiency of the_____________?
Disinfectant
Antibiotics
Moist heat sterilisation
Dry heat sterilization
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Disinfectant
Q.
The difference between sterilization and disinfection is that_______________?
Sterilization involves chemicals and disinfection involves physical methods
Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Sterilization is easier to achieve
Disinfection kills all spores but sterilization does not
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Q.
The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is_______________?
Lysogeny
Conjugation
Translation
Transformation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysogeny
Q.
For uniform staining reaction, morphology and biochemical activity it is advisable to study bacterial cultures during the_____________?
Death phase
Lag phase
Stationary phase
Logarithmic phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Logarithmic phase
Q.
The structure in involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface is_______________?
Fimbria
Flagella
None of the above
Capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fimbria
Q.
Vibrio cholera was discovered by_________________?
Koch
John snow
Medintoff
Virchow
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Koch
Q.
Noguchi
Brucella
Bordetella
None of the above
Borrelia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia
Q.
Donovanosis, true is___________________?
Penicillin is drug of choice
Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Characterized by painful genital ulcers
Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Q.
Which of the following statement about P24 antigen of HIV is Not True ?
It remains during asymptomatic phase
Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:
Virus load parallel P24 titre
It can be detected during the window period
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It remains during asymptomatic phase
Q.
A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?
Allograft
Autograft
Isograft
Xenograft
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Isograft
Q.
In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_______________?
Merozoite
Gametocyte
Sporozoite
Hypnozoite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sporozoite
Q.
Virus infected cell is killed by________________?
Macrophages
Interferons
Autolysis
Neutrophils
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Interferons
Q.
In small intestine, cholera toxin acts by______________?
Activation of GTPase
Active absorption of NaCI
ADP
Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ADP
Q.
Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by_____________?
Streptococcus viridans
Staphylococcus aureus
Haemolytic streptococci
Nisseria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus viridans
Q.
Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by______________?
Hot air oven
Inspissation
UV-Radiation
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Candida is most often implicated in causation___________________?
Desert rheumatism
Conjunctivitis
Tenea capitis
Thrush
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thrush
Q.
Diphtheria is pathogenic only when infected with______________?
Delta Phage
Beta phage
Lambda K12
Alfa phage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Beta phage
Q.
The antigen used in Weil Felix test is obtained from________________?
Staphylococcus
Proteus
coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to______________?
NK
CD4 T-cells
B
CD8 T-cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4 T-cells
Q.
Actinomycosis is caused by______________?
Fungus
Retrovirus
Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Acid fast, non-motile bacillus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Q.
The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route________________?
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis D virus
Hepatitis C virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______________?
Western Blot is
Both are
ELISA IS
PCR is
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both are
Q.
Lepromin test is useful for________________?
Treatment plan
Prognosis
Diagnosis
Epidemiology
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prognosis
Q.
Staphylococci typically occur in_________________?
Pairs
Chains
Irregular clusters
Tetrads
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Irregular clusters
Q.
The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the________________?
CH1 domian
CH2 domian
CL domian
VL domian
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CH2 domian
Q.
Multiple drug resistance of bacteria depends on which of the following_______________?
Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Fertility factor (F+)
Colicigenic factor (Col)
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Q.
Immunity that is conferred to the foetus by transfer of IgG and IgA antibodies is called as______________?
Active acquired immunity
Passive acquired immunity
Natural active immunity
Passive natural immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Passive natural immunity
Q.
Viron is defined as______________?
Smallest virus
A smallest particle similar to virus
Extracellular infectious virus particle
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Extracellular infectious virus particle
Q.
Cough plate method is used to identify________________?
Pertussis
Y. pestis
Mycoplasma
M-Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pertussis
Q.
Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functional of the cell______________?
membrane
nucleus
Capsule
wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: membrane
Q.
A dentist suffred from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is_____________?
Paradoxical carrier
Inactive carrier
Healthy carrier
Convalscent carrier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Convalscent carrier
Q.
Sunlight acts as sterilizing agent because_________________?
Long wavelength
Ozone
Heat
short wave lenght
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: short wave lenght
Q.
Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in______________?
2 weeks
9 weeks
12 weeks
4 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4 weeks
Q.
What is the sequence which a retro virus follows on entering a host cell ?
RNA-DNA
DNA-RNA
RNA -DNA-RNA
DNA-RNA-DNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: RNA -DNA-RNA
Q.
Nagglers reaction detects________________?
Coagulase
Hyaluronidase
Lecithinase
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Man is the only reservoir for_______________?
Y. enterocolitica
Camphylobacter jejuni
histolytica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: histolytica
Q.
Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_________________?
Cytokinin
Theta toxin
Desmolase
Lecithinase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except___________________?
Though plasmids
through conjugation
Through bacteriophages
Incorporating part of host DNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is__________________?
Immune blood transfusion
Placental transfer of antibodies
Hepatitis vaccination
Gamma globulin injection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Placental transfer of antibodies
Q.
All are true about legionella pneumophilia except______________?
Aquatic bodies are main habitat
It can replicate in amoeba
Person to person transmission
Urine test is a reliable method
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Person to person transmission
Q.
Smith noguchi
Klebsiella
Bacillus
Spirochetes
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
Tyndallisation is carried out for________________?
Three successive days
60 minutes
Two successive days
One day
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Three successive days
Q.
Prions true is____________?
Contains DNA/ RNA
Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Sensitive to most chemical sterilization
Evokes strong immunogenic reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Q.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which of the following________________?
Plasma cells
B-cells
NK cells
Active T cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active T cells
Q.
All are oncogenic except________________?
Anopheles
Culex
Mansoni
Aedes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aedes
Q.
Which of the following viruses appears to be involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi
Human Herpes Virus 4
Human Herpes Virus 8
Human Herpes Virus 1
Human Herpes Virus 3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Human Herpes Virus 4
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Vincent
A symbiotic infection
Caused by leptospira interrogans
Caused due to malnutrition
Ulcerative gingivostomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by leptospira interrogans
Q.
Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores can be achieved with_______________?
Grocott Gomori Methenamine silver
Hematoxylin and Eosin
KOH wet mount
Peri-iodic Acid Schiff
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: KOH wet mount
Q.
The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum ?
IgG4
IgG3
IgG2
IgG1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG1
Q.
Cytopathic effect is shown by_____________?
Virus
Anaerobe
Bacteria
Spirochete
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
Methods for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infection________________?
All of the above
Wood light examination
KOH staining
Microscopic examination of skin scrapings
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Culture medium used for Bordatella pertussis is_________________?
Bordet Gengou medium
Wilson Blair medium
Bile broth
Robertson cooked meat medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bordet Gengou medium
Q.
Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_____________________?
only after one year
in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis
no antibodies are present in primary HSV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
Q.
Graft versus host reaction is caused by_________________?
T-lymphocytes
Leukocytes
Monocytes
B-Lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T-lymphocytes
Q.
Black pigmented anaerobes include all of the following except______________?
Prevotella
Porphyromonas
Buccae
Tannerella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Buccae
Q.
A protoplast is best characterized as a bacterial cell______________?
Uniquely sensitive to penicillin
Free of a cell wall and a capsule
with a cell wall but free of a capsule
containing a cell wall and a capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Q.
Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes______________?
Cytotoxic T cells
B cells
NK Cells
Memory B cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NK Cells
Q.
Grape bunch shaped colonies are seen in______________?
Gonococci
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
E.coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staphylococcus
Q.
The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is_______________?
Hepatitis
EB virus
Adeno
Parvo virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parvo virus
Q.
Most antibodies are produced in the________________?
Spleen and the lymph nodes
Brain and the meninges
Thymus and the appendix
Heart and the liver
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spleen and the lymph nodes
Q.
Post streptococcal acute glomerulo nephritis is an example of________________?
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type III hypersensitivity
Q.
Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups ?
Flavi viruses
Hepadana viruses
Herpes viruses
Picorna viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi viruses
Q.
Phase contrast microscopy is based on principle of__________________?
Different refractive indices of object
Light attenuation
Light scattering
Different reflective indices of object
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Different refractive indices of object
Q.
The medium of choice for culturing yeast from of dimorphic fungi is_________________?
Sabouraud
Brain
Sabouraud
Any medium incubated at 35-37
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
The diagnosis of gonorrhea is established by_____________?
All of the above tests
Compliment fixation tests
Pili agglutination tests
Haemagglutination tests
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above tests
Q.
Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to______________?
Hook worm
Thread worm
Guinea worm
Ascaris
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hook worm
Q.
Candida albicans causes all of the following except______________?
Endocarditis
Oral thrush
Mycetoma
Meningitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycetoma
Q.
CD4 count in normal healthy adult is_______________?
300
500
1000
200
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1000
Q.
A darkfield microscope would be useful in examining blood for_______________?
Treponema
Streptococcus
Actinomyces
Mycobacterium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema
Q.
Immunoglobulins ar secreted by______________?
Macrophages
Neutrophils
Plasma cells
T-cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasma cells
Q.
Haptane is_______________?
None of the above
Same as epitopes
Carrier required for specific antibody production
High molecular protein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Carrier required for specific antibody production
Q.
Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by______________?
Culture from blood
Isolation form stool
Isolation from bile
IgM antibodies in serum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM antibodies in serum
Q.
VDRL is a________________?
Latex agglutination test
Slide flocculation test
Tube agglutination test
Tube flocculation test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Slide flocculation test
Q.
One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is____________?
Viral interference
Mutation
Supervision
Permutation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Viral interference
Q.
The difference between gram positive and negative bacteria lies in their_______________?
cell membrane
Nuclear material
cell wall
Mesosomes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cell wall
Q.
The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are______________?
Mycoplasma
Gram negative organisms
Virus infections
Gram positive organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram negative organisms
Q.
Endotoxins differ from exotoxins in that endotoxins______________?
are proteins
are heat labile
activate complement by the alternate pathway
are highly antigenic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: activate complement by the alternate pathway
Q.
The Dane particle is the______________?
IgG anti HAV
HBV
HBC Ag
Delta Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBV
Q.
Tuberculin test screens for_____________?
Cell mediated immunity
Complement function
Hemoral immunity
Phagocyte dysfunction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell mediated immunity
Q.
Endoscopes are sterilized by using_______________?
Boiling
Cidex
Gamma radiation
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Boiling
Q.
One of the following statement about statements about sterilization is not true_______________?
Glass syringes ? Boiling at 169
Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Flash pasteurization of milk ? 72
Liquid paraffin ? Dry heat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Q.
Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?
Polysaccharides
Adjuvant
Proteins
Lipids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteins
Q.
IgG antibodies have a half-life of approximately_______________?
1 hour
1 week
1 Month
1 day
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 Month
Q.
Exotoxins are____________________?
None
Protein compound
Lipid-polysaccharide complex
Lipoprotein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein compound
Q.
Following is a retrovirus_____________?
Polio virus
Hepatitis virus
Immunodeficiency virus
Influenza
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immunodeficiency virus
Q.
The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement_________________?
IgM
IgG
IgA
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
The reaginic antibody is________________?
IgA
IgD
IgE
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Kaposi
Above 2000
Below 200
Above 600
Between 1000-2000
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Below 200
Q.
All are not true for cultivation of anaerobic organisms except_______________?
Centrifuge
anaerobic jar
Incubator
Refrigerator
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: anaerobic jar
Q.
Each of the following can cause food poisoning except________________?
Staphylococcus
Cl. botulinum
Cl. difficile
Cl. welchii
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. difficile
Q.
Which of the following does not go into chronic hepatitis stage ?
HDV
HCV
HBV
HEV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HEV
Q.
Physical sterilization was discovered by__________________?
John Hunter
Joeph Lister
Alexander flemings
Robert Koch
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Joeph Lister
Q.
Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito______________?
Merozoite
Sporozoite
Zygote
Gametocyte
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gametocyte
Q.
Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with_______________?
Kin Young stain
Ziel Nelson
Giemsa stain
Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Q.
Which of the following are correctly matched ?
Injection of antibodies (Hepatitis) is artificially acquired passive immunity
Antigenic stimulus given by vaccine (polio) is artificial active immunity
All of the above
Transfer of antibody from mother to child is through colostrum and acquired passive immunity naturally
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which is type II hypersensitivity ?
Delayed hypersensitivity
Immune complex mediated
Anaphylaxis
Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Q.
By using phase contrast microscope_______________?
Internal metabolic activities can be observed
External capsule formation can be observed
Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Internal structures are differentiated in dead cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Q.
One of the following is a treponemal test for diagnosis of syphilis_____________?
Widal test
FTAB
Wasserman test
Kahn test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: FTAB
Q.
Which of the following have the capability to produce extra cellular polysaccharides______________?
Peptostreptococcus
Strep. pyogenes
Enterococcus
Strep. Mutans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strep. Mutans
Q.
Opportunistic infection is caused by___________________?
All of the above
Penicillium
Mucor
Aspergillus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The minimum time required for the sterilization of surgical instruments by moist heat at 134
30 minutes
60 minutes
15 minutes
3 minutes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3 minutes
Q.
Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti_________________?
Terminal nuclei absent
Causes filariasis
Body is slender and long
Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Q.
Granules in the corynebacterium diphtheria are called by following names, except______________?
Babes Ernst granules
Metachromatic granules
Voluntin granules
Refractile granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile granules
Q.
Neurotoxin of tetanus acts on______________?
Brain
Spinal card
Synapse
Muscle
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spinal card
Q.
Sporulation occurs in__________________?
Lag phase
Stationary phase
Decline phase
Log phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
True about HIV are all except______________?
Decrease CD4 count in late stages
Attacks CD4 cells
Macrophages are the reservoir
DNA virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: DNA virus
Q.
IgG has subclasses_______________?
2
3
4
1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4
Q.
Anti HBsAB indicates______________?
Acute infection
Good prognosis
Resistance to hepatitis B
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Good prognosis
Q.
Causative agents of Vincent
Borrelia recurrents and bateroides
Leptospira and Treponema pallidum
Borrelia burgoloferi and lactobacillus
Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Q.
Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______________?
Serum sickness
Transfusion reaction
Contact dermatitis
Atopic allergy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is________________?
Counter immune electroporesis
Indirect hemagglutination
ELISA
Microscopy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA
Q.
Test for differentiating virulent form non-virulent tubercular bacilli_____________?
Aryl sulphatase test
Catalase peroxidase test
Neutral red test
Niacin test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neutral red test
Q.
Rickettsiae__________________?
Respond to tetracycline therapy
Multiply within living cell
Transmitted by arthropod vectors
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Virus is cultured in_______________?
Saubourd
Embryonated egg
Nonembryonated egg
Rogosa medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Embryonated egg
Q.
Disinfection frees the surface from______________?
Vegetative forms
None of the above
Both of the above
Spore forms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vegetative forms
Q.
Human immunoglobulins are divided based on_____________?
Structural differences
None of the above
Complemented fixation
Functional differences
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Structural differences
Q.
Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to__________________?
Exotoxin
Invasion
Capsule
Endotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Exotoxin
Q.
Chemotactic cytokine is_________________?
IL-6
IL-1
IL-8
TNF
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IL-8
Q.
The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in vivo from one bacterium to another by_____________?
Transduction
Transformation
Conjugation
Rarefaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
The culture media for fungus is__________________?
Tellurite medium
Chocolate agar medium
Sabourauds medium
NNN medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabourauds medium
Q.
Immunoglobin, Which is produced first by the fetus in response to infection_______________?
IgA
IgM
IgG
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Which of the following is an enrichment medium________________?
Selenite F Broth
Nutrient Broth
Mac Conkey agar
Blood agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Selenite F Broth
Q.
What is the transport medium for cholera___________________?
Tellurite Medium
Venkatraman
B & C
Cary Blair Medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: B & C
Q.
A type of immediately occuring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called_____________?
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type I hypersensitivity
Q.
Same or closely related antigens present in different biological species are known as________________?
Suquestrated antigens
Haptens
Isoantigens
Heterophile antigens
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Heterophile antigens
Q.
One of the following is an agglutination test in the diagnosis of typhoid___________?
Wasserman test
Eleks test
Mantoux test
Widal test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
Sterilization is a process in which_________________?
Kill all pathogenic micro-organisms
Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Kill all non-pathogenic micro-organisms in the environment
Deactivate all pathogens not spores
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Q.
Human immune deficiency virus is ________________ virus?
Rheo
Rhabdo
Flavi
Retro
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Retro
Q.
A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned in to an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis______________?
Acid Fast Stain
Calcoflour White
Carbol Fuschin
Trichrome Methylene blue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trichrome Methylene blue
Q.
Half-life of free HIV in plasma is________________?
12 hours
3 months
24 hours
6 hours
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 6 hours
Q.
Among The infectious diseases transmitted by food, one is___________________?
Typhoid fever
Diptheria
Viral stomatitis
Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid fever
Q.
Moist heat kills all of the following EXCEPT_______________?
Mycobacterium
Coxiella burnetti
Brucella
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coxiella burnetti
Q.
The Ig found in exocrine secretions is_____________?
IgM
IgG
IgD
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Operation theatres are sterilized by_____________?
Formaldehyde fumigation
ETO gas
Carbolic acid spraying
Washing with soap and water
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Formaldehyde fumigation
Q.
Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci________________?
Aerococcus
Micrococcus
Sarcina
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sarcina
Q.
About Bacteroids True are all Except_______________?
Present mainly in mixed infections
Most common species is B fragilis
Susceptible to many antibiotics
Bile resistant anerobes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Susceptible to many antibiotics
Q.
Encapsulation in bacteria helps in__________________?
Oxygen effect
Prevent their phagocytosis
Spore formation
Decreased virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prevent their phagocytosis
Q.
In initial stages of tyhoid, salmonella can be detected in________________?
All of the above
Urine
Feacus
Blood
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood
Q.
All of the following are true of streptococcus except_____________?
It
Most common in humans
Shows adherence to dental enamel
Most common is animals
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It
Q.
Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phase of the bacterial growth curve______________?
Exponential growth
Lag
Decline
Stationary phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
Viruses can be cultured in all except_______________?
Blood agar
Guinea pigs
Chick embryo
Cell culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood agar
Q.
Kolmer test is a screening test done for_________________?
Syphilis
Lymphoma
Gonorrhea
Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Function of T-lymphocyte is/are________________?
Rosette formation
Production of interferon
Lymphokine production
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The following are applicable to bacterial genoms except________________?
Its DNA has both introns and extrons
It is circular
It doe not contain histones
It is composed of DNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Q.
EBV causes all except_________________?
Infectious mononucleosis
Papilloma
Carcinoma of nasopharynx
Burkitt
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma
Q.
Which of the following is not used as disinfectant________________?
100% alcohol
2% Lysol
5% chloroxylene
1-2% cetrimide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 100% alcohol
Q.
Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by_______________?
M. smegmatis
M. Kansasii
M. ulcerans
M. chelonae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. chelonae
Q.
All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except____________?
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis E
Hepatitis C
HIV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Which of the following correctly indicates the infectivity of hepatitis virus in human ?
HBCAg
HBeAg
Anti-HBC
Anti-HBS
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBeAg
Q.
In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except__________________?
Malabsorption
Bone marrow depression
Hemolysis
Spleen sequestration
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Malabsorption
Q.
Which of the following is not a pox virus ?
chicken pox
Molluscum contagiosum
Small pox
Cowpox
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: chicken pox
Q.
A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is______________?
India ink preparation
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Pyte-ferraco stain
Methanamine silver stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
Staphylococcal food poisoning includes the following features_______________?
Heat labile enterotoxin
Requires immediate antibiotics
Common with dairy products
Incubation period of 24 hours
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Common with dairy products
Q.
Causative organism for gas gangrene_______________?
Clostridium welchii
Coli
Strep. Faecalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Streptococcus is classified based on__________________?
Bile Solubility
M Protein
Cell wall carbohydrate
Cultural characteristics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall carbohydrate
Q.
compared with autoclave, use of a dry heat over for sterilization has the following disadvantages______________?
Less effective
Causes sharp instruments to dull
Time-consuming
Causes instruments to rust
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Time-consuming
Q.
Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces?
Capsule
Mesosomes
Flagella
Pili
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except_____________?
Neisseria meningitides
Salmonella typhi
Legionella pneumophila
Streptococcus pyogenes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus pyogenes
Q.
The best sterilization method for a hand-piece is________________?
All of the above
chemical vapour
dry heat
Ethylene oxide gas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ethylene oxide gas
Q.
Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is____________?
Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Secretory IgA
Sialoperoxidase
Histidine rich proteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Q.
Sleeping sickness is caused by_______________?
House fly
Reduvid bug
Tick
Sand fly
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reduvid bug
Q.
The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_____________?
Pilomatrixoma
Tenia incognito
Kerison
Alopecia areata
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kerison
Q.
Steam under pressure in used in ________ sterilization?
Pasteurization
Autoclave
hot air oven
Kochs sterilizer
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The small nonparticulate protein leading to enhanced replication of HBV as well as HIV is______________?
Hbe Ag
HBs Ag
HBc Ag
HBx Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBx Ag
Q.
T cells multiplication is stimulated by_______________?
Macrolin
Heat
Phytohaemagglutinin
Bovine serum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Phytohaemagglutinin
Q.
Bacteria reproduce mainly by______________?
Bacterial components produced by host cells
Sporing
Budding
Binary fission
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Binary fission
Q.
The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine doses not play a major role is______________?
Anaphylaxis
Asthma
Arthus reaction
Urticaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus reaction
Q.
Robertsons cooked meat medium is best suited for cultivation of_______________?
S. epidermidis
Clostridia
Choleria
Mycobacterium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridia
Q.
A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates________________?
Carrier state
Acute infection
Convalescence
Prodromal phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acute infection
Q.
Which of the following organisms does NOT react with gram
Candida albicans
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Actinomyces israelii
Streptococcus mutan
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q.
Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins ?
IgE
IgA
IgM
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Disinfection of the rooms can be done by using_______________?
20% phenol
High efficiency particle arrestors
40% formaldehyde vapour
Chlorine gas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 40% formaldehyde vapour
Q.
Negative staining is used to demonstrate________________?
Bacterial capsule
Bacterial Flagella
Bacterial fimbriae
Bacterial spore
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacterial fimbriae
Q.
Which is not true about vibrio cholera_________________?
Grows on simple media
It is non-halophilic
Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Man is the only natural host
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Q.
Group A carbohydrate of Str. pyogenes cross reacts with human_________________?
Cardiac valves
Myocardium
Vascular intima
Synovial fluid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiac valves
Q.
Pneumococus can be differentiated from streptococcus by________________?
Gram staining
Type of hemolysis
Growth characteristics
Bile solubility
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bile solubility
Q.
Phage conversion is required for________________?
All o f the above
Diptheria
Gonorrhoea
Tularemia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Diptheria
Q.
parasitic inflammation would show predominantly____________________?
Basophils
Eosinophils
Lymphocytes
Neutrophilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Eosinophils
Q.
Pseudohphae are seen in____________?
Candida albicans
Aspergillus
Alternaria
Osporium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?
Relapsing fever
Q fever
Epidemic typhus
Trench fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Q fever
Q.
The causative organism of syphilis is___________?
Leptospira interrogans
Borrelia burgolorferi
Chalamydia trachomatis
Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema pallidum
Q.
Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except______________?
Giardia lambia
Ascaris lumbriocoides
Strongyloides
Entamoeba
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strongyloides
Q.
Toxoids are_________________?
non-antigenic and non-toxic
antigenic and non-toxic
antigenic and toxic
non-antigenic and toxic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: antigenic and non-toxic
Q.
Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000_________________?
J piece
Secretory piece
L chain
H chain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: H chain
Q.
IL-1 is produced by_________________?
Macrophages
Helper B cells
Helper T cells
Monocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Macrophages
Q.
In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by_____________?
Stool culture
Blood culture
Urine culture
Widal test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except__________________?
Most common cause of urethritis is male
All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection
Found exclusively in human beings.
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Q.
Pigs are important source of_____________?
Japanese encephalitis
Yellow fever
Rabies
Kuru
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Japanese encephalitis
Q.
A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains and haemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism ?
Cataslase positive
Bacitracin sensitivity
Bile solubility
Optochin sensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacitracin sensitivity
Q.
Organ of locomotion in bacteria is________________?
Fimbria
Flagella
Capsule
Cell wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flagella
Q.
All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except______________?
Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide
Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital
Colony morphology on saliva agar
Gram staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram staining
Q.
Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in______________?
Tapeworm
Ascariasis
Ascariasis and tapeworm
Hood worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ascariasis
Q.
Bacteria with tuft of flagella at one end are called_______________?
Monotrichate
Bipolar
Lophotrichate
Peritrichate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lophotrichate
Q.
Certain viruses have been isolated in crytalline form and have been found to be_____________?
Nucleotides
Phospholipids
Scleroproteins
Nucleoproteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleoproteins
Q.
Fungal infection of human beings is called as_____________?
Micromia
Fungosis
Mucorsis
Mycosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycosis
Q.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa_________________?
Produces heat stable enterotoxin
Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.
Causes Shangai fever
Does not produce any pigment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Causes Shangai fever
Q.
The world german measles is applied for_____________?
Herpes simplex
Rubeola
Herpetic ginglvostomatitis
Rubella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Which of the following provides best gurantee for sterlization in the heat sterilizer ?
Using a bacterial spore test
Using chemical indicator strip or pouch
Recording a temperature/ pressure readings from sterilizer guage
Determining the ability of a sterilizer to kill the hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Using a bacterial spore test
Q.
Active artificial immunization is induced by the administration of all of the following EXCEPT______________?
Toxoids
Bacterial products
Antitoxins
Vaccines
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antitoxins
Q.
Plaque test is used routinely in virology lab
Identification of viral disease
To separate specific clone of virus
To prepare vaccines
To maintain certain viral culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Identification of viral disease
Q.
The commonest method of detection of diptheria carriers is_______________?
Schick test
Casoni
Dick test
Charles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Schick test
Q.
Most common tumor associated with AIDS is______________?
Melanoma
Carcinoma
Ewing
Kaposi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kaposi
Q.
Which of the following is a RNA virus ?
Adeno virus
Measles virus
Papavo virus
Herpes Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
A 6 year old boy comes with abdominal pain, vomiting after consuming mild products within 6 hours. The most likely organism responsible is______________?
B.Cereus
Salmonella
Clostridium botulinum
Staph. aureus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staph. aureus
Q.
The medium of choice for growing most fungi is_______________?
Sabouraud
Tissue culture
Thioglycollate medium
Blood agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
Hydatid cyst is__________________?
Viral
Fungal
Parasitic in nature
Congenital
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parasitic in nature
Q.
Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called______________?
CFT
Chemotaxis
De coding
Opsonisation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Opsonisation
Q.
The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is___________________?
5%
15%
2%
10%
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2%
Q.
Selective media for MYCOBACTERIUM _____________?
Lowenstein Jensen medium
Sabourauds medium
Agar
Loefflers serum slope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lowenstein Jensen medium
Q.
A sporangium contains_______________?
porangiospores
Oidia
Chlamydospores
Spherules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: porangiospores
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria can be cultured in__________________?
Sabourauds agar
L-J medium
Loefflers medium
Robertson cooked meat medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robertson cooked meat medium
Q.
All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except________________?
Cysts are 4 nucleated
The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides
Trophozoites colonise in the colon
Cysts are 8 nucleated
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cysts are 8 nucleated
Q.
Gram -ve bacteria stain during gram staining____________?
Red color
Blue color
Green
Colorless
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Red color
Q.
The optimal time and temperature required for sterilization in an autoclave is___________________?
140
121
121
121
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 121
Q.
Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus ?
Condyloma acuminatum
Keratoacanthoma
Verruca vulgaris
Focal epithelial hyperplasia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Keratoacanthoma
Q.
IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by______________?
Lymphocytes
Activated macrophages
Plasma cells
Platelet
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Activated macrophages
Q.
The major intestinal pathogens which are non-lactose fermenters are_________________?
Klebsiella
Escherichia
Paracolons
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salmonella
Q.
Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by________________?
ELISA
DNA probe
Direct microscopy
Culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Culture
Q.
Which component of the cell wall is responsible________________?
Region II
Boivin antigen
Region III
Region I
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Region III
Q.
In patients with asthma due to an allergic cause the serum levels of which immunoglobulin increase____________________?
IgA
IgE
IgM
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Which regards to temperature requirement, most pathogenic bacteria are_____________?
Psychrophiles
Thermophiles
Cryophiles
Mesophiles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mesophiles
Q.
Negative phase is seen in ________ immunity?
Local
Passive
Active
Herd
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active
Q.
Bacterial cell does not possess___________________?
Cell wall
dna
Mitochondria
Ribosome
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mitochondria
Q.
Australian antigen is_______________?
HBs AG
HBV
HB Ag
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBs AG
Q.
Which does not have a viral etiology______________?
Hepatoma
Carcinoma Cervix
Lymphoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Endotoxins are produced by________________?
Fungi
Virus
Gram +ve bacteria
Gram -ve bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram -ve bacteria
Q.
EBV is responsible for all except______________?
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Burkitt
Hepatoma
Infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Complement factor through which common pathway begins___________________?
Protein B
C2
C5
C3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C3
Q.
Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is___________________?
Brain
Lungs
Spleen
Liver
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Liver
Q.
The time gap between appearance of Koplik
2 weeks
24 Hrs
10 days
3-4 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3-4 days
Q.
CD4 cells recognize the antigens in association with_____________?
MHC III
MHC II
MHC I
B-cell receptor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: MHC II
Q.
Each of the following viruses possesses an outer lipoprotein envelope except_____________?
Varicella Zoster Virus
Influenza Virus
Papilloma Virus
Human immunodeficiency virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma Virus
Q.
Mark true in following ?
None of the above
Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Q.
First released immunoglobulin after primary immunization_______________?
IgM
IgE
IgG
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is_________________?
Streptococcus fecalis
Neisseria gonorrhea
Escherichia coli
T-strain mycoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Escherichia coli
Q.
Black water fever is caused by______________?
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax
Microfilaria
Leishmania donovani
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______________?
Comma
Sickle
Banana
Dot
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sickle
Q.
Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____________?
6 months
3 months
6 week
1 week
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 week
Q.
About Psedomonas. All are true except________________?
Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Strick aerobes
Most common organism is burn patient
Can grow in disinfectants in hospital
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except_______________?
Through conjugation
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through plasmids
Through bacteriophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____________?
3,10,19
16,18,31
6,8,11
Type 6,12,18
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 16,18,31
Q.
Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except_______________?
Chemically defined media
Animals
Tissue culture
Embryonated eggs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chemically defined media
Q.
Type of receptor present on T-cells are__________________?
Prostaglandins
CD4
Ig G
Ig A
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4
Q.
All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_____________?
Eccentric nucleus
Glycogen mass
Refractile nucleus
Chromatid bars
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile nucleus
Q.
Leprosy bacilli can be grown in_________________?
Tail of guinea pig
Testes of albino rats
Testes of guinea pig
Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Q.
Group A B-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the pharynx may be followed in some by_____________?
Rheumatic fever
Syphilis
Typhoid fever
Diphtheria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatic fever
Q.
Secretory Ig is_______________?
IgA
IgE
IgD
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Which of the following viruses does not infect salivary glands ?
HIV
Orthomyxovirus
Echo virus
Hepatitis C
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxovirus
Q.
Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following________________?
Tetanus toxoid
All of the above
Sabin
Salk vaccine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salk vaccine
Q.
True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by_______________?
Rats
cats
Dogs
Cow
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cats
Q.
Candidal hyphae can be stained using_______________?
Van Gieson
Masson Trichrome stain
Periodic acid schiff stain
Toluidine blue stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Periodic acid schiff stain
Q.
The prototype of Type II hypersensitivity reaction is__________________?
Arthus reaction
SLE
Contact dermatitis
Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Q.
The earliest identifiable cells of T-Cell lineage during maturation are_______________?
CD8+ Pre-T-Cells
CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
CD5+ Pre-T-Cells
CD8+ Pro-T-Cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
Q.
Dengue virus belongs to______________?
Reoviridae
Togaviridae
Flavi virus
Rhabdoviridae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi virus
Q.
T cell matures in______________?
Busra of Fabricius
Payers patch
Lymph node
Thymus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thymus
Q.
The presence of Which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility ?
Lipids
Protein coat
Polysaccharide
Enzymes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein coat
Q.
Wasserman test test is diagnostic of__________________?
Tyhoid
Syphilis
Gonorrhea
TB
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Glasswares are sterilised by______________?
Incineration
Autoclaving
Formaldehyde
Hot air oven
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by which of the following_____________?
All of the above
Boiling
Cidex
Ethanol
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affets_______________?
Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Red blood cells
Mast cells
Fibroblasts
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Q.
Which of the following enzyme is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot pathogenic staphylococci_____________?
Coagulase
S protein
Fibrinolysin
Lysozyme
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coagulase
Q.
Secondary response is mediated by_______________?
IgM
IgA
IgG
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Bacterial species which is protective or beneficial to the host is_______________?
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Spirochetes
Treponema denticola
Streptococcus sanguis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus sanguis
Q.
Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve________________?
Duodenum
Jejunum and Ileum
Stomach
Caecum and large intestine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caecum and large intestine
Q.
A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents________________?
Auto
Allo
Xeno
ISO
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Allo
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical mycobacteria by______________?
None of the above
Niacin test
AFB staining
Pas staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Niacin test
Q.
The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by____________?
Cell fusion
Translation
Transduction
Conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
Sterilisation control for moist heat is
using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Using non-pathogenic strain of clostridium tetani
Using chemical indicator
Using methylene blue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Q.
Complement binding immunoglobin via the classical pathway is_______________?
IgG & IgD
IgD & IgE
IgG & IgA
IgG & igM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG & igM
Q.
Commonest mycobacterial infection in tropical countries_______________?
M. leprae
M. avium intracellulare
Kansasi
M. tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. tuberculosis
Q.
Sterilisation is______________?
Non-pathogenic killed
Pathogens killed but spores are not affected
All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Only pathogenic micro-organisms killed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Q.
Killer and Helper cells are part of_______________?
T cells
B cells
Macrophage
Monocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T cells
Q.
Bacteriophage was discovered by_________________?
Twort and d
Menkin
Robert koch
Metchinkoff
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Twort and d
Q.
Growth factor needed for Salmonella_________________?
B-12
Tryptophan
Niacin
Citrate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Tryptophan
Q.
Louis Pasteur is not associated with_______________?
Disproved spontaneous regression theory
Introduction of complex media
Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Discovery of Rabies Vaccine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Q.
Synthesis of antibodies in plasma cells occurs in_________________?
Golgi body
Endoplasmic reticulum
Nucleus
Mitochondria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.
Leishmania is cultured in ________________ media?
Tellurite
Sabourauds
NNN
Chocolate agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NNN
Q.
Purpose of Sterilization is to eliminate________________?
Fungus
Spore formers
Viruses
Bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spore formers
Q.
The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to_____________?
Kill mircobes
Remove microbes
Dehydrate microbial cells
Inhibit microbial growth
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Remove microbes
Q.
The only virus, which has double stranded RNA, is______________?
Rhabdo virus
Reo virus
Bunya virus
Calci virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reo virus
Q.
Culture media of candida is_________________?
All of the above
Saboraud
Methylene blue dextrose agar
Pingolevin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saboraud
Q.
L.D bodies are seen in_______________?
Kalahazar
Toxoplasmosis
Sleeping sickness
Malaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kalahazar
Q.
Schuffner
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium malariae
Plasmodium ovale
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium vivax
Q.
Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus infection during window period ?
Anti HBs
IgM anti
HBs Ag
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM anti
Q.
Delhi boil refer to_______________?
L. Tropica sore
Solar Keratosis
Venereal ulcer
Malignant pustule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: L. Tropica sore
Q.
Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except________________?
Have infections
All are true
Failure to thrive
50% chances to have AIDS
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 50% chances to have AIDS
Q.
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to_______________?
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
Monocytes
Histiocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T lymphocytes
Q.
The cell wall deficient bacteria_______________?
Chlamydiae
Ehrlichiae
Mycoplasma
Rickettsiae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycoplasma
Q.
Pasteur developed the vaccine for_______________?
Cholera
Rabies
Anthrax
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Borrelia vincenti is always associated with______________?
Fusiform bacilli
Treponema vincenti
None of the above
Spirochaetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fusiform bacilli
Q.
The Manufacturing unit of surgical needle & sutures are sterilized by ________________?
Gamma-Rays
X-Rays
Autoclaving
Boiling
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma-Rays
Q.
Glutaraldehyde is preferred more than formaldehyde because______________?
It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Its application is easier
It has got more bactericidal activity
It has got more bacteriostatic activity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Q.
The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is_____________?
Robertoson
Sabourad
Chocolate agar
Chorio allantoic membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chorio allantoic membrane
Q.
Rh incompatibility is which type of hyper sensitivity reaction ?
Type IV
Type II
Type I
Type III
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Silver impregnation method of staining is useful to demonstrate_____________?
None of the above
Spirochetes
Both of the above
Bacterial flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both of the above
Q.
Which of the following would you consider to be general properties of viruses______________?
Contain DNA but no RNA
Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids
New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses
Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Q.
Dematophytes are fungi infecting________________?
Systemic organs
Subcutaneous tissue
Superficial skin and deep tissue
Nails, hair and skin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nails, hair and skin
Q.
Chlamydia causes all of the following except________________?
Trachoma
Pneumonia
Parotitis
Non-gonococcal urethritis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parotitis
Q.
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (SSS syndrome) is due to______________?
Enterotoxin D
Enterotoxin F
Enterotoxin A
Enterotoxin B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterotoxin F
Q.
Leprosy bacilli are transmitted from person to person by all except______________?
Through intact skin
Dischange from nasal mucosa
Through breast milk
From open sore
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Through breast milk
Q.
ASO (Antistreptolysin 0) test is uesd for the diagnosis of________________?
Rickettsial fever
Typhoid fever
Rheumatoid arthritis
Rheumatie fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatie fever
Q.
Actinomycetes is______________?
Gram positive bacteria
A yeast like form
Gram negative bacteria
Fungus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is_____________?
Ninhydrin stain
Blue stain
Eosin stain
Haemotoxin stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ninhydrin stain
Q.
Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by_____________?
Bacteria
Virus
Bacteria superadded on virus
Parasite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
The term animalcules to oral microorganisms is given by__________________?
Leumenhoek
Wd miller
Socranci
Robertson
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leumenhoek
Q.
Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly_______________?
Nasal mucosa
Skin
Gastrointestinal tract
Lung
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gastrointestinal tract
Q.
Phospholipid used to investigate syphilis by the reagin test is________________?
Plasminogen
Cardiolipin
Palmityl lecithin
Serine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiolipin
Q.
Cleavage of IgG molecule by Papin gives rise to:One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments_______________?
Two Fc fragment and one Fab fragment
One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Two Fc fragments and two Fab fragments
One Fc fragment and four Fab fragments
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Q.
Following reaction are produced by heterophil antigens except_____________?
Widal reaction
Weil-Felix reaction
Paul bunnel reaction
Forssman antigen antibody reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal reaction
Q.
The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______________?
IgA
IgG
IgD
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV irradiation_______________?
Nucleic acids
Lipids
Inorganic salts
Carbohydrates
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleic acids
Q.
Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by________________?
Sucrose
Epithelial cells
Dextran
Bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dextran
Q.
The anaphylaxis should be treated first with_____________?
Steroids
Anti histamines
Antibiotics
Epinephrine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epinephrine
Q.
Dorset
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Gonococcus
Mycobacterium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best demonstrated by_________________?
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Gram
PAS stain
H & E stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Q.
The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is______________?
Borrelia vincenti
Treponjema pertenue
Borrelia burgdorferi
Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti
Q.
Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is ________________?
Aspergillus
Mucor
Penicillium
Rhizopus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus
Q.
Best method of sterilizing disposable syringes_______________?
U.V. rays
Hot air oven
Gamma rays
Boiling
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma rays
Q.
Anaphylaxis refers to the________________?
State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions
Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________________?
Melanin production related to virulence
Basidiomycetes yeast
Causes meningitis
Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Q.
The Process of attenuation can be achieved by all except___________________?
Serial passage in an experimental host
Growing bacteria in adverse environment
Repeated cultures in artificial media
Growing bacteria in unconventional host
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serial passage in an experimental host
Q.
Probiotic organism used_________________?
Bifido bacteria
Staphylococcus
Salmonella
E coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bifido bacteria
Q.
Staphylococcus does not causes_______________?
Pneumonia
Scarlet fever
Osteomyelitis
Abscess
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Scarlet fever
Q.
Oil and Grease are sterilized by________________?
Ethylene dioxide
Hot air oven
Auto claving
Irradiation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Most sensitive test for antigen detection is_______________?
Radioimmuno Assay
Immunoflourescence
ELISA
Passive hemaglutination
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Radioimmuno Assay
Q.
Antigen combining site of the antibody is____________________?
Hapten
Epitope
Paratope
Idiotope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Paratope
Q.
The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______________?
Vasculitis
Necrosis
Induration
Erythema
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythema
Q.
The most common site where organisms are present in a typhoid carrier is______________?
Liver
Gall Bladder
Salivary gland
Spleen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gall Bladder
Q.
Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause foetal defect ?
Herpes Simplex
Mumps
Papilloma
Rubella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Babu, a 28 year old male comes with compaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by____________?
Western blot
Lymph node biopsy
ELISA
P24 antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: P24 antigen
Q.
The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is ________________?
exotoxin production
Coagulase production
hypersensitivity
lecithinase production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: hypersensitivity
Q.
In T.B cell mediated immunity is by_______________?
None of the above
CD 4*
CD 8*
B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD 4*
Q.
Australia antigen is associated with________________?
Basal cell carcinoma
Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Chronic leukemia
AIDS
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Q.
Incubation pariod of herpes zoster is________________?
3-6 months
7-14 days
1-2 years
1 months
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 7-14 days
Q.
Salmonella typhi can be isolated at different times from______________?
All of the above
Urine
Blood
Feaces
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which of the following antibacterial substance is present in eggs and saliva ?
Secretozyme
Lysozyme
Albumin
Isozyme
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysozyme
Q.
Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection_________________?
Isopora belli
Balantidium coli
Taenia solium
Giardia lambella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Taenia solium
Q.
Electron microscopic examination of the bacterial flora of necrotising ulcerative gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are______________?
Bacteriophages
Cocci
Filamentous rods
Spirochetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
The most frequently encountered clostridial species in gas gangrene is______________?
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium welchii
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Q fever is caused by________________?
R. quintana
Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
R. prowozekii
C. burnetti
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C. burnetti
Q.
Mesophilic organisms are those that grow best at temperature of______________?
25
-7
55
-20
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 25
Q.
An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry cough, sputum culture showed growth on charcoal yeast Extract Medium, theorganism is______________?
Moraxella catarrhalis
Burkholderia cepacia
Legionella
H. influenza
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Legionella
Q.
Techoic acid is present in_____________?
Cytoplasm of Gram positive organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram negative organisms
Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Cell wall of Gram negative organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Q.
Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?
Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission
Causes positive Nagler reaction
The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Q.
Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by_________________?
Threadworm
Fish tapeworm
Dog tapeworm
Hookworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fish tapeworm
Q.
Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?
Coccidia
Prions
Spore
Mycobacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prions
Q.
Blood agar is________________?
Enriched media
Differential media
Simple media
Transport media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enriched media
Q.
Signs of tyhoid fever is/are_____________________?
All of the above
perforation
Haemorrhage
Osteomyelitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by ___________________?
Candida albicans
Cryptococcus
Mucor
Aspergillus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction______________?
Haemophilus
E.coli
Proteus
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?
Give ARV
Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity
Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Immediately wash wound with soap and water
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Q.
One of the following is a zoonotic disease_____________?
Anthrax
Typhoid
Cholera
Bacillary dysentery
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anthrax
Q.
Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of______________?
Wool sorters disease
Malaria
Gas gangrene
Whooping cough
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gas gangrene
Q.
Which of the following is a live vaccine_____________?
Salk
HDCV
Hepatitis
17 D
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HDCV
Q.
The function of IgD is______________?
Reagin activity
Compliment activation
Localization protection in external secretion
Antigen recognition by B cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antigen recognition by B cells
Q.
The following statement is true regarding fungal infection__________________?
Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal
Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man
albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals
Candida infection is usually endogenous
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida infection is usually endogenous
Q.
One of the following staining methods is an example of negative staining_______________?
Gram
India ink preparation
Zheil-Neilson
Fontana
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
All are true about widel test except________________________?
Base lines differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative
H antigen cannot differentiate between subtypes
O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Q.
The virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhea include all of the following except____________?
Outer membrane proteins
Pili
IgA Protease
M-Proteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M-Proteins
Q.
Characteristic feature of retrovirus is_____________?
Restriction endonuclease
DNA polymerase
Ribonuclease
Reverse transcriptase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reverse transcriptase
Q.
Serum sickness syndrome is an example of________________?
Anaphylactic
Angioneurotic edema
Systemic arthus reaction
Cell-mediated immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Systemic arthus reaction
Q.
The Window period in HIV infection means______________?
None of the above
The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab
The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS
The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
Q.
Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to________________?
Increase antigenicity
Increase toxigenicity
Reduce the antigenicity
reduce the toxigenicity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increase antigenicity
Q.
Which of the following is true about amoebic liver disease ?
Portal system is the main filtration system
Left lobe of liver is commonly involved
Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Non-suppurative form is the serious form of extra intestinal amoebiasis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Q.
Teichoic acid is present in cell walls of_________________?
Gram positive bacteria
Protozoa
Yeast
Gram negative bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Grave
Type IV
Type II
Type I
Type III
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Madura mycosis produces______________?
White to yellow granules
Brown to black granules
No granules
Red granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: White to yellow granules
Q.
A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?
Francisella spp
Pasturella spp
Bartonella spp
Brucella spp
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Brucella spp
Q.
Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a_______________?
RIPA
ELISA
Immunodot
Western Blot
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Western Blot
Q.
Rabies virus________________?
Cytotropic
Neurotropic
Chromophilic
Dermatotropic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neurotropic
Q.
Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is_______________?
IgE
IgG
IgA
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
B.C.G untrue is_____________?
T.B vaccine
Orally administered
live vaccine
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orally administered
Q.
In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a_______________?
Carrier
Super antigen
Hapten
Toxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hapten
Q.
Thread worm is______________?
Ancylostoma
Necator
Enterobius
Ascaris
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterobius
Q.
Endotoxin have all but one of the properties given below_______________?
Produced by gram positive bacteria
Produced by gram negative bacteria
Cannot be toxoided
Not secreted outside the cell
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Produced by gram positive bacteria
Q.
The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is___________?
Detection of coagulase
Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes
Mannitol fermentation
The catalase test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Detection of coagulase
Q.
Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus is due to ________________________?
Lack of nucleic acid in the cell wall
Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Penicillin analogue production
Pleomorphism
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Q.
Influenza is caused by_____________?
Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Q.
Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is_________________?
1:2
2:1
3:1
1:3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2:1
Q.
On a stained slide, clostridium tetani has the appearance of a__________________?
Safely pin
Drum stick
Bunch of a
Chain of beads
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Drum stick
Q.
Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine ?
Tuberculosis (BCG)
Varicella Zoster virus
Typhoid
Cholera
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cholera
Q.
which of the following is anaerobic_______________?
Pseudomonas
Bacteroides
Klebsiella
E.coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacteroides
Q.
Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstratig________________?
Trophozoites in the feces
Trophozoites in the pus
Cysts in the sterile pus
Cysts in the intestine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites in the pus
Q.
The urine sample of a patient has been sent to the laboratory to look for Leptospira. The specimen is to be screened by use of the__________________?
Scanning microscope
Dark ground microscope
Electron microscope
Inverted microscope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dark ground microscope
Q.
Function of Ig A is________________?
Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Circulating antibody
Kills virus infected cells
Activates macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Q.
Aflatoxins are produced by________________?
Aspergillus niger
Aspergillus flavus
All of the above
Aspergillus fumigatus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus flavus
Q.
The chemotactic factor is______________?
C3b
C5a
C2a
C4a
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C5a
Q.
Characters of exotoxin include all, except_______________?
Highly potent
Protein polysaccharide complex
Has specific tissue affinity
Heat labile
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein polysaccharide complex
Q.
Leptospirosis, all are true except______________?
Incubation period is 10 days
Onset of IgM in 2 days
It is sensitive to penicillin
Faeces & urine of rodents is the cause
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Onset of IgM in 2 days
Q.
Which of the following belongs to cell fraction derived vaccine______________?
Hepatitis B
Measles
Rubella
Mumps
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B
Q.
The killer cells are associated with immunologic response___________________?
Type II
Type III
Type I
Type IV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
The term epitope refers to________________?
Smallest antigenic determinant
Immunogen
Hapten
complete antigen molecule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Smallest antigenic determinant
Q.
Drumstick appearance is seen in______________?
Cl. sphenoids
Cl. tetanomorphum
Cl. tetani
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. tetani
Q.
The commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercie bacilli________________?
Auramine and Rhodamine
Acridine orange
Thioglavin
Congo red
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine and Rhodamine
Q.
Common name for Trichuris trichura________________?
Seat woman
Round worm
Tape worm
Whip worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Whip worm
Q.
Herpes virus_____________?
Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane
Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane
None of the above
Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Q.
The specific test for Treponema pallidum is___________?