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TOP Microbiology MCQS Questions
Q.
Bacterial spores are destroyed by_______________?
Pasteurisation
Autoclave
Disinfection by hypochlorite solution
Boiling at 100
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The interaction of antigens with antibodies on the surface of a mast cel leads to degranulation and anaphylaxis. The mast cell granules produce anaphylaxis because they contain________________?
Lymphotoxins
Proteolytic enzymes
Lysosomes
Vasoactive mediators
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vasoactive mediators
Q.
Bacteria with potent exotoxin is_______________?
Shigella
Clostridium tetani
Klebsiella
Pseudomonas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani
Q.
True about prions________________?
Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Viruses which are genetically deficient
Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Q.
The best skin disinfectant is________________?
Alcohol
None of the above
Savlon
Chlorhexdine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chlorhexdine
Q.
Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates_____________?
Carrier status
Simple carriers
High infectivity
Late convalescence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: High infectivity
Q.
The facultative anaerobic bacteria are those who are_______________?
Unable to grow in the absence of oxygen
Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Unable to grow in the presence of oxygen
Able to grow in the presence of carbon dioxide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Q.
A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium malaria
Plasmodium vivax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Erysipelas is caused by________________?
Group B staphylococci
Gonococci
Pneumococci
Group A steptococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B staphylococci
Q.
True about immune response of hepatitis B is__________________?
CMI disappears soon after recover
Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
Antibody to HBC is not protective
Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Q.
Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria______________?
Loefflers serum slope
Mc Conkey
Saborauds agar
Lowenstein Jensen Medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Loefflers serum slope
Q.
A full course of immunization agianst. Telanus with 3 doses to Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how many years ?
10
5
20
15
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 10
Q.
Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?
Western blot followed by ELISA
Virus isolation
ELISA followed by western blot technique
Polymers chain reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA followed by western blot technique
Q.
Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-5m in size, multi-septate, chestnut, brown color is characteristic of________________?
Phaeohypomycosis
Histoplasmosis
Chromoblastomycosis
Rhinosporodiosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chromoblastomycosis
Q.
The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell
Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
Haemagglutination test
Haemagglutination inhibition test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Q.
An oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod which produces a bluish-green pigment has been grown in culture from a swab obtained from an infected burn wound. This organism is susceptible to gentamicin, ticarcillin and tobramicin, but resistant to all the other antibiotics which of the following organisms is it likely to be ?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Proteus miribilis
Escherichia coli
Klebsiella pnemoniae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q.
Exaltation is________________?
Increased Virulence
None
No change
Decreased virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increased Virulence
Q.
Which of the following is not true of boiling water_____________?
Can kill vegetative bacterial cells
It can kill hepatitis B virus
Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis
Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Q.
The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is_______________?
IgA
IgM
IgD
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Germ tubes are formed mainly by_______________?
Candida albicans
Candida tropicalis
Candida pseudotropicalls
Candida stellatoidea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
The best method of sterilization of dressing powder is_____________?
Tyndallization
Hot air oven
Autoclaving
Inspissation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with______________?
IgA antibodies
IgM antibodies
Mast cells
Lysozyme
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA antibodies
Q.
Loss of capsule in bacteria is generally associated with______________?
increase in invasiveness
Inability to spread through tissue
Decease in virulence
Loss of infectivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Decease in virulence
Q.
Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify______________?
Spirochaetes
Mycoplasma
Rickettsiae
Chlamydiae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochaetes
Q.
Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_____________?
Cryptococcosis
Candidiasis
Aspergilosis
Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candidiasis
Q.
Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans_________________?
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Hot air oven is used for sterilization of all EXCEPT__________________?
Sharp instrument
Rubber tubes
Glassware
Liquid paraffin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubber tubes
Q.
Which worm is longest________________?
T. Solium
A. Lumbricoides
Hook worm
T. Saginata
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T. Saginata
Q.
Malignant pustule is referred to_________________?
Facio-cervical actinomycosis
Cutaneous anthrax
Infected squamous cell carcinoma
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cutaneous anthrax
Q.
In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started________________?
Rabies
Herpes
Influenza
Poliomyelitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabies
Q.
True about VDRL test________________?
All of the above
Non
Best followed for drug therapy
Slide flocculation test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is_____________?
Hepatitis A virus
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis C virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
Lancefields classification of B hemolytic streptococcus is based on______________?
Physiological properties
Type of lipid in cell membrane
M Protein
Polysaccharide C antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Polysaccharide C antigen
Q.
Virulence of Gonococcus is due to___________________?
Cytolytic enzymes
Cell Membrane
Its intracellular location
Pili
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
Which of the following fulfil all the criterias of kich
Mycobacterium leprae
Treponema pallidum
N. gonorrhoeae
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: None of the above
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria grow_______________?
in the presence of oxygen
differential media
in the presence of nitrogen
in the absence of oxygen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in the absence of oxygen
Q.
Which of the following is an acid-fast bacillus_____________?
All of the above
Neisseria gonorrhea
Mycobacterium bacilli
Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium bacilli
Q.
Which of the following is obligate aerobe ?
Proteus
diphtheria
Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Q.
Malaria pigment is________________?
Iron
Bilurubin
Haemoglobin
Haematin-globin pigment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haematin-globin pigment
Q.
The key cell types involved in the acquired immunity include all EXCEPT________________?
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
Antigen presenting cells (APC
Erythrocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythrocytes
Q.
Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor_____________?
Streptolysin 0
Pyrogenic exotoxin
Carbohydrate cell wall
M protein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pyrogenic exotoxin
Q.
The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as_____________?
Idiotope
Paratope
Epitope
Clone
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epitope
Q.
Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose_______________?
Arthus reaction
Serum sickness
Contact dermatitis
Anaphylaxis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Immunoglobulin consists of________________?
3 light, 1 heavy chain
2 light, 2 heavy chains
1 heavy, 2 light chains
1 light, 1 heavy chain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2 light, 2 heavy chains
Q.
Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in________________?
Rabbit testis only
Chick embryos
Tissue culture
Artificial media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabbit testis only
Q.
Which of the following characteristics of bacteria is not true?
Free living
Having either DNA or RNA
Cell wall containing muramic acid
Unicellular
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Having either DNA or RNA
Q.
A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT________________?
Vancomycin
Teichoplanin
Imipenem
Linezolid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Imipenem
Q.
The overall effect of HIV is to gradually impair the immune system by interference with______________?
Natural killer cells
Plasma cells
Helper T lymphocytes
Macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes
Q.
Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?
Core antibody
Core antigen
Surface antigen
Surface antibody
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Surface antigen
Q.
Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies_____________?
Measles
Small pox
Chicken pox
Rabies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles
Q.
Prozone phenomenon is due to______________?
Hyper immune reaction
Excess antigen
Disproportionate antigen antibody levels
Excess antibody
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Excess antibody
Q.
Actinomycosis is a_________________?
Anaerobic fungal disease
Aerobic fungal disease
Anaerobic bacterial disease
Aerobic bacterial disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic bacterial disease
Q.
HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except________________?
Sexual intercourse
Needle prick injury
Blood transmission
Saliva
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saliva
Q.
Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_______________?
Simple structure
All of the above
Presence of either DNA or RNA
Complex multiplication
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
False +ve for VDRL is seen in______________?
Yaws
All of the above
Malaria
Lepromatous Leprosy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Most fungi of medical importance belongs to__________________?
Zygomycetes
Ascomycetes
Basidiomycetes
Deuteromycetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deuteromycetes
Q.
Most of the drug resistances occurs due to_____________?
conjugation
Transformation
Mutation
Transduction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: conjugation
Q.
The bacterial cell wall has all of the following properties except______________?
It contains D-isomers of amino acids
It is the structure principally responsible for the reaction of gram staining
It is a unique flexible plastic structure
It consists of a mixed polymer called peptidoglycon
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It is a unique flexible plastic structure
Q.
The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is_____________?
Herpetic gingivostomatitis
Apthous stomatitis
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Q.
Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in which of the following viruses_____________?
Measles virus
HIV
Pox virus
Hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is______________?
Donovania granulomatis
Chlamydia trachomatis
Hemophilia ducreya
Bartonella henselae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bartonella henselae
Q.
Which of the following is not a feature of anaphylaxis ?
None of the above
Immediate reaction
Delayed reaction
passive transfer by serum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Delayed reaction
Q.
DNA covering material in a virus is called as________________?
Capsid
Capsomere
Nucleocapsid
Envelope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Capsid
Q.
ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______________?
Less sensitive, more specific
More sensitive, more specific
Less sensitive less specific
More sensitive, less specific
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: More sensitive, less specific
Q.
Who first introduced solid media_______________?
Hensen
Louis pasteur
Robert koch
Ogston
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robert koch
Q.
cAMP reaction is shown by which streptococci ?
Group A
Group B
Group D
Group C
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B
Q.
Widal test is specific for____________?
Pemhigoid
Plague
Leprosy
Typhoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid
Q.
Which of the following is not a koch
The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue
When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the experimental animals
Pure cultures can be obtained
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Q.
All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_________________?
gingivalis
histolytica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: gingivalis
Q.
When horse serum is injected intravenoulsy in to a rabbit and again in to the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs as the site of the second injection________________?
Arthus phenomenon
Serum sickness
Atopy
Anaphylaxis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus phenomenon
Q.
Fimbriae are demonstrated by ___________________?
Gram stain
Biochemical reaction
Haemagglutination test
Culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haemagglutination test
Q.
The following is not true of Candida albicans______________?
Forms Chlamydospores
Yeast like fungus
Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them
Blastomeres seen in isolates
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blastomeres seen in isolates
Q.
The temperature required for cultivating mycobacterium________________?
37 degrees
0 degree
27 degrees
2 degree
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 37 degrees
Q.
All are true about bordetella pertussis except______________?
Most common cause is B. Petrussis
Bacteria culture from nasopharyngeal swab is the definitive diagnosis
It may occur in children and young adult after vaccination
Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Q.
Causative organism of Kalahazar is_______________?
Entamoeba histolytica
Toxoplasma
Plasmodium ovaie
Leishman donovani
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leishman donovani
Q.
Interferon interferes with replication of virus at the time of_____________?
Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule
DNA/RNA replication
When virus enters the cell
Protein synthesis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein synthesis
Q.
Rideal Walker test is used to determine the efficiency of the_____________?
Dry heat sterilization
Antibiotics
Disinfectant
Moist heat sterilisation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Disinfectant
Q.
The difference between sterilization and disinfection is that_______________?
Disinfection kills all spores but sterilization does not
Sterilization involves chemicals and disinfection involves physical methods
Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Sterilization is easier to achieve
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Q.
The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is_______________?
Conjugation
Translation
Lysogeny
Transformation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysogeny
Q.
For uniform staining reaction, morphology and biochemical activity it is advisable to study bacterial cultures during the_____________?
Lag phase
Death phase
Stationary phase
Logarithmic phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Logarithmic phase
Q.
The structure in involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface is_______________?
Flagella
None of the above
Capsule
Fimbria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fimbria
Q.
Vibrio cholera was discovered by_________________?
Medintoff
Koch
John snow
Virchow
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Koch
Q.
Noguchi
Brucella
None of the above
Bordetella
Borrelia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia
Q.
Donovanosis, true is___________________?
Penicillin is drug of choice
Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Characterized by painful genital ulcers
Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Q.
Which of the following statement about P24 antigen of HIV is Not True ?
It can be detected during the window period
It remains during asymptomatic phase
Virus load parallel P24 titre
Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It remains during asymptomatic phase
Q.
A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?
Autograft
Allograft
Xenograft
Isograft
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Isograft
Q.
In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_______________?
Merozoite
Hypnozoite
Gametocyte
Sporozoite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sporozoite
Q.
Virus infected cell is killed by________________?
Macrophages
Interferons
Neutrophils
Autolysis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Interferons
Q.
In small intestine, cholera toxin acts by______________?
Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
Activation of GTPase
Active absorption of NaCI
ADP
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ADP
Q.
Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by_____________?
Nisseria
Haemolytic streptococci
Streptococcus viridans
Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus viridans
Q.
Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by______________?
Inspissation
UV-Radiation
Hot air oven
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Candida is most often implicated in causation___________________?
Conjunctivitis
Desert rheumatism
Thrush
Tenea capitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thrush
Q.
Diphtheria is pathogenic only when infected with______________?
Beta phage
Alfa phage
Delta Phage
Lambda K12
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Beta phage
Q.
The antigen used in Weil Felix test is obtained from________________?
Staphylococcus
Proteus
coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to______________?
NK
CD8 T-cells
B
CD4 T-cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4 T-cells
Q.
Actinomycosis is caused by______________?
Fungus
Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Retrovirus
Acid fast, non-motile bacillus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Q.
The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route________________?
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis D virus
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis E virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______________?
Both are
ELISA IS
Western Blot is
PCR is
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both are
Q.
Lepromin test is useful for________________?
Treatment plan
Diagnosis
Prognosis
Epidemiology
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prognosis
Q.
Staphylococci typically occur in_________________?
Pairs
Chains
Tetrads
Irregular clusters
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Irregular clusters
Q.
The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the________________?
CH1 domian
CH2 domian
VL domian
CL domian
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CH2 domian
Q.
Multiple drug resistance of bacteria depends on which of the following_______________?
Colicigenic factor (Col)
All of the above
Fertility factor (F+)
Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Q.
Immunity that is conferred to the foetus by transfer of IgG and IgA antibodies is called as______________?
Natural active immunity
Active acquired immunity
Passive acquired immunity
Passive natural immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Passive natural immunity
Q.
Viron is defined as______________?
Extracellular infectious virus particle
None of the above
Smallest virus
A smallest particle similar to virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Extracellular infectious virus particle
Q.
Cough plate method is used to identify________________?
M-Tuberculosis
Y. pestis
Pertussis
Mycoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pertussis
Q.
Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functional of the cell______________?
wall
Capsule
membrane
nucleus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: membrane
Q.
A dentist suffred from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is_____________?
Paradoxical carrier
Healthy carrier
Convalscent carrier
Inactive carrier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Convalscent carrier
Q.
Sunlight acts as sterilizing agent because_________________?
Long wavelength
Ozone
short wave lenght
Heat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: short wave lenght
Q.
Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in______________?
12 weeks
9 weeks
4 weeks
2 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4 weeks
Q.
What is the sequence which a retro virus follows on entering a host cell ?
DNA-RNA
DNA-RNA-DNA
RNA-DNA
RNA -DNA-RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: RNA -DNA-RNA
Q.
Nagglers reaction detects________________?
Hyaluronidase
None of the above
Lecithinase
Coagulase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Man is the only reservoir for_______________?
Camphylobacter jejuni
Y. enterocolitica
histolytica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: histolytica
Q.
Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_________________?
Theta toxin
Lecithinase
Desmolase
Cytokinin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except___________________?
through conjugation
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through bacteriophages
Though plasmids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is__________________?
Hepatitis vaccination
Placental transfer of antibodies
Immune blood transfusion
Gamma globulin injection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Placental transfer of antibodies
Q.
All are true about legionella pneumophilia except______________?
Urine test is a reliable method
Person to person transmission
Aquatic bodies are main habitat
It can replicate in amoeba
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Person to person transmission
Q.
Smith noguchi
Salmonella
Spirochetes
Klebsiella
Bacillus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
Tyndallisation is carried out for________________?
60 minutes
Two successive days
One day
Three successive days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Three successive days
Q.
Prions true is____________?
Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Evokes strong immunogenic reaction
Contains DNA/ RNA
Sensitive to most chemical sterilization
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Q.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which of the following________________?
NK cells
B-cells
Plasma cells
Active T cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active T cells
Q.
All are oncogenic except________________?
Culex
Mansoni
Aedes
Anopheles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aedes
Q.
Which of the following viruses appears to be involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi
Human Herpes Virus 1
Human Herpes Virus 8
Human Herpes Virus 3
Human Herpes Virus 4
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Human Herpes Virus 4
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Vincent
Caused due to malnutrition
Caused by leptospira interrogans
A symbiotic infection
Ulcerative gingivostomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by leptospira interrogans
Q.
Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores can be achieved with_______________?
Peri-iodic Acid Schiff
KOH wet mount
Grocott Gomori Methenamine silver
Hematoxylin and Eosin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: KOH wet mount
Q.
The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum ?
IgG3
IgG1
IgG4
IgG2
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG1
Q.
Cytopathic effect is shown by_____________?
Virus
Anaerobe
Bacteria
Spirochete
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
Methods for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infection________________?
Wood light examination
KOH staining
Microscopic examination of skin scrapings
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Culture medium used for Bordatella pertussis is_________________?
Bile broth
Bordet Gengou medium
Robertson cooked meat medium
Wilson Blair medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bordet Gengou medium
Q.
Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_____________________?
antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis
no antibodies are present in primary HSV
only after one year
in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
Q.
Graft versus host reaction is caused by_________________?
B-Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Leukocytes
T-lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T-lymphocytes
Q.
Black pigmented anaerobes include all of the following except______________?
Porphyromonas
Prevotella
Tannerella
Buccae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Buccae
Q.
A protoplast is best characterized as a bacterial cell______________?
with a cell wall but free of a capsule
containing a cell wall and a capsule
Uniquely sensitive to penicillin
Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Q.
Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes______________?
NK Cells
B cells
Cytotoxic T cells
Memory B cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NK Cells
Q.
Grape bunch shaped colonies are seen in______________?
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
E.coli
Gonococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staphylococcus
Q.
The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is_______________?
Adeno
Parvo virus
EB virus
Hepatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parvo virus
Q.
Most antibodies are produced in the________________?
Thymus and the appendix
Brain and the meninges
Spleen and the lymph nodes
Heart and the liver
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spleen and the lymph nodes
Q.
Post streptococcal acute glomerulo nephritis is an example of________________?
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type III hypersensitivity
Q.
Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups ?
Herpes viruses
Hepadana viruses
Picorna viruses
Flavi viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi viruses
Q.
Phase contrast microscopy is based on principle of__________________?
Different refractive indices of object
Different reflective indices of object
Light attenuation
Light scattering
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Different refractive indices of object
Q.
The medium of choice for culturing yeast from of dimorphic fungi is_________________?
Any medium incubated at 35-37
Brain
Sabouraud
Sabouraud
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
The diagnosis of gonorrhea is established by_____________?
All of the above tests
Compliment fixation tests
Pili agglutination tests
Haemagglutination tests
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above tests
Q.
Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to______________?
Thread worm
Guinea worm
Hook worm
Ascaris
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hook worm
Q.
Candida albicans causes all of the following except______________?
Oral thrush
Meningitis
Mycetoma
Endocarditis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycetoma
Q.
CD4 count in normal healthy adult is_______________?
300
500
1000
200
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1000
Q.
A darkfield microscope would be useful in examining blood for_______________?
Actinomyces
Streptococcus
Mycobacterium
Treponema
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema
Q.
Immunoglobulins ar secreted by______________?
Macrophages
Neutrophils
Plasma cells
T-cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasma cells
Q.
Haptane is_______________?
Carrier required for specific antibody production
High molecular protein
None of the above
Same as epitopes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Carrier required for specific antibody production
Q.
Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by______________?
Isolation from bile
IgM antibodies in serum
Culture from blood
Isolation form stool
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM antibodies in serum
Q.
VDRL is a________________?
Tube agglutination test
Tube flocculation test
Slide flocculation test
Latex agglutination test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Slide flocculation test
Q.
One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is____________?
Viral interference
Permutation
Supervision
Mutation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Viral interference
Q.
The difference between gram positive and negative bacteria lies in their_______________?
Nuclear material
Mesosomes
cell membrane
cell wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cell wall
Q.
The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are______________?
Virus infections
Gram negative organisms
Mycoplasma
Gram positive organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram negative organisms
Q.
Endotoxins differ from exotoxins in that endotoxins______________?
are proteins
are heat labile
activate complement by the alternate pathway
are highly antigenic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: activate complement by the alternate pathway
Q.
The Dane particle is the______________?
IgG anti HAV
HBC Ag
HBV
Delta Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBV
Q.
Tuberculin test screens for_____________?
Phagocyte dysfunction
Hemoral immunity
Complement function
Cell mediated immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell mediated immunity
Q.
Endoscopes are sterilized by using_______________?
Boiling
Cidex
Autoclaving
Gamma radiation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Boiling
Q.
One of the following statement about statements about sterilization is not true_______________?
Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Liquid paraffin ? Dry heat
Flash pasteurization of milk ? 72
Glass syringes ? Boiling at 169
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Q.
Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?
Proteins
Lipids
Adjuvant
Polysaccharides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteins
Q.
IgG antibodies have a half-life of approximately_______________?
1 day
1 Month
1 week
1 hour
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 Month
Q.
Exotoxins are____________________?
Lipoprotein
Lipid-polysaccharide complex
None
Protein compound
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein compound
Q.
Following is a retrovirus_____________?
Polio virus
Immunodeficiency virus
Hepatitis virus
Influenza
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immunodeficiency virus
Q.
The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement_________________?
IgE
IgA
IgG
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
The reaginic antibody is________________?
IgE
IgG
IgD
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Kaposi
Above 600
Above 2000
Between 1000-2000
Below 200
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Below 200
Q.
All are not true for cultivation of anaerobic organisms except_______________?
Incubator
Centrifuge
anaerobic jar
Refrigerator
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: anaerobic jar
Q.
Each of the following can cause food poisoning except________________?
Cl. welchii
Staphylococcus
Cl. difficile
Cl. botulinum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. difficile
Q.
Which of the following does not go into chronic hepatitis stage ?
HCV
HBV
HEV
HDV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HEV
Q.
Physical sterilization was discovered by__________________?
John Hunter
Robert Koch
Joeph Lister
Alexander flemings
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Joeph Lister
Q.
Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito______________?
Sporozoite
Gametocyte
Zygote
Merozoite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gametocyte
Q.
Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with_______________?
Giemsa stain
Kin Young stain
Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Ziel Nelson
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Q.
Which of the following are correctly matched ?
Antigenic stimulus given by vaccine (polio) is artificial active immunity
Transfer of antibody from mother to child is through colostrum and acquired passive immunity naturally
Injection of antibodies (Hepatitis) is artificially acquired passive immunity
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which is type II hypersensitivity ?
Delayed hypersensitivity
Immune complex mediated
Anaphylaxis
Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Q.
By using phase contrast microscope_______________?
Internal metabolic activities can be observed
External capsule formation can be observed
Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Internal structures are differentiated in dead cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Q.
One of the following is a treponemal test for diagnosis of syphilis_____________?
Widal test
Kahn test
FTAB
Wasserman test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: FTAB
Q.
Which of the following have the capability to produce extra cellular polysaccharides______________?
Peptostreptococcus
Enterococcus
Strep. pyogenes
Strep. Mutans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strep. Mutans
Q.
Opportunistic infection is caused by___________________?
Aspergillus
All of the above
Penicillium
Mucor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The minimum time required for the sterilization of surgical instruments by moist heat at 134
15 minutes
60 minutes
30 minutes
3 minutes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3 minutes
Q.
Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti_________________?
Body is slender and long
Causes filariasis
Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Terminal nuclei absent
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Q.
Granules in the corynebacterium diphtheria are called by following names, except______________?
Refractile granules
Babes Ernst granules
Voluntin granules
Metachromatic granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile granules
Q.
Neurotoxin of tetanus acts on______________?
Spinal card
Brain
Synapse
Muscle
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spinal card
Q.
Sporulation occurs in__________________?
Lag phase
Decline phase
Log phase
Stationary phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
True about HIV are all except______________?
Macrophages are the reservoir
Decrease CD4 count in late stages
Attacks CD4 cells
DNA virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: DNA virus
Q.
IgG has subclasses_______________?
4
2
1
3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4
Q.
Anti HBsAB indicates______________?
Acute infection
Resistance to hepatitis B
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Good prognosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Good prognosis
Q.
Causative agents of Vincent
Leptospira and Treponema pallidum
Borrelia recurrents and bateroides
Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Borrelia burgoloferi and lactobacillus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Q.
Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______________?
Transfusion reaction
Serum sickness
Atopic allergy
Contact dermatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is________________?
ELISA
Indirect hemagglutination
Counter immune electroporesis
Microscopy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA
Q.
Test for differentiating virulent form non-virulent tubercular bacilli_____________?
Neutral red test
Aryl sulphatase test
Niacin test
Catalase peroxidase test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neutral red test
Q.
Rickettsiae__________________?
All of the above
Transmitted by arthropod vectors
Multiply within living cell
Respond to tetracycline therapy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Virus is cultured in_______________?
Rogosa medium
Saubourd
Embryonated egg
Nonembryonated egg
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Embryonated egg
Q.
Disinfection frees the surface from______________?
None of the above
Spore forms
Vegetative forms
Both of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vegetative forms
Q.
Human immunoglobulins are divided based on_____________?
Functional differences
Complemented fixation
None of the above
Structural differences
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Structural differences
Q.
Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to__________________?
Exotoxin
Endotoxin
Invasion
Capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Exotoxin
Q.
Chemotactic cytokine is_________________?
TNF
IL-6
IL-8
IL-1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IL-8
Q.
The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in vivo from one bacterium to another by_____________?
Rarefaction
Transformation
Conjugation
Transduction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
The culture media for fungus is__________________?
NNN medium
Tellurite medium
Sabourauds medium
Chocolate agar medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabourauds medium
Q.
Immunoglobin, Which is produced first by the fetus in response to infection_______________?
IgD
IgG
IgA
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Which of the following is an enrichment medium________________?
Nutrient Broth
Mac Conkey agar
Selenite F Broth
Blood agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Selenite F Broth
Q.
What is the transport medium for cholera___________________?
Cary Blair Medium
Venkatraman
B & C
Tellurite Medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: B & C
Q.
A type of immediately occuring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called_____________?
Type III hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type I hypersensitivity
Q.
Same or closely related antigens present in different biological species are known as________________?
Haptens
Isoantigens
Heterophile antigens
Suquestrated antigens
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Heterophile antigens
Q.
One of the following is an agglutination test in the diagnosis of typhoid___________?
Widal test
Mantoux test
Wasserman test
Eleks test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
Sterilization is a process in which_________________?
Kill all pathogenic micro-organisms
Kill all non-pathogenic micro-organisms in the environment
Deactivate all pathogens not spores
Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Q.
Human immune deficiency virus is ________________ virus?
Rheo
Retro
Flavi
Rhabdo
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Retro
Q.
A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned in to an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis______________?
Trichrome Methylene blue
Acid Fast Stain
Carbol Fuschin
Calcoflour White
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trichrome Methylene blue
Q.
Half-life of free HIV in plasma is________________?
6 hours
12 hours
24 hours
3 months
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 6 hours
Q.
Among The infectious diseases transmitted by food, one is___________________?
Typhoid fever
Diptheria
Tuberculosis
Viral stomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid fever
Q.
Moist heat kills all of the following EXCEPT_______________?
Coxiella burnetti
Mycobacterium
Brucella
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coxiella burnetti
Q.
The Ig found in exocrine secretions is_____________?
IgD
IgA
IgG
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Operation theatres are sterilized by_____________?
Carbolic acid spraying
Formaldehyde fumigation
Washing with soap and water
ETO gas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Formaldehyde fumigation
Q.
Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci________________?
Aerococcus
Sarcina
Staphylococcus
Micrococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sarcina
Q.
About Bacteroids True are all Except_______________?
Present mainly in mixed infections
Bile resistant anerobes
Most common species is B fragilis
Susceptible to many antibiotics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Susceptible to many antibiotics
Q.
Encapsulation in bacteria helps in__________________?
Prevent their phagocytosis
Oxygen effect
Spore formation
Decreased virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prevent their phagocytosis
Q.
In initial stages of tyhoid, salmonella can be detected in________________?
All of the above
Urine
Feacus
Blood
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood
Q.
All of the following are true of streptococcus except_____________?
Most common in humans
Shows adherence to dental enamel
It
Most common is animals
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It
Q.
Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phase of the bacterial growth curve______________?
Lag
Decline
Exponential growth
Stationary phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
Viruses can be cultured in all except_______________?
Guinea pigs
Blood agar
Cell culture
Chick embryo
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood agar
Q.
Kolmer test is a screening test done for_________________?
Tuberculosis
Lymphoma
Gonorrhea
Syphilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Function of T-lymphocyte is/are________________?
Rosette formation
All of the above
Production of interferon
Lymphokine production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The following are applicable to bacterial genoms except________________?
Its DNA has both introns and extrons
It is circular
It is composed of DNA
It doe not contain histones
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Q.
EBV causes all except_________________?
Papilloma
Infectious mononucleosis
Burkitt
Carcinoma of nasopharynx
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma
Q.
Which of the following is not used as disinfectant________________?
2% Lysol
1-2% cetrimide
5% chloroxylene
100% alcohol
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 100% alcohol
Q.
Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by_______________?
M. ulcerans
M. smegmatis
M. Kansasii
M. chelonae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. chelonae
Q.
All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except____________?
HIV
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis E
Hepatitis C
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Which of the following correctly indicates the infectivity of hepatitis virus in human ?
HBeAg
HBCAg
Anti-HBS
Anti-HBC
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBeAg
Q.
In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except__________________?
Bone marrow depression
Spleen sequestration
Malabsorption
Hemolysis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Malabsorption
Q.
Which of the following is not a pox virus ?
Small pox
Cowpox
chicken pox
Molluscum contagiosum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: chicken pox
Q.
A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is______________?
Pyte-ferraco stain
Methanamine silver stain
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
India ink preparation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
Staphylococcal food poisoning includes the following features_______________?
Heat labile enterotoxin
Incubation period of 24 hours
Requires immediate antibiotics
Common with dairy products
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Common with dairy products
Q.
Causative organism for gas gangrene_______________?
Strep. Faecalis
Clostridium welchii
Coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Streptococcus is classified based on__________________?
Bile Solubility
Cell wall carbohydrate
Cultural characteristics
M Protein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall carbohydrate
Q.
compared with autoclave, use of a dry heat over for sterilization has the following disadvantages______________?
Less effective
Time-consuming
Causes sharp instruments to dull
Causes instruments to rust
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Time-consuming
Q.
Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces?
Pili
Mesosomes
Capsule
Flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except_____________?
Legionella pneumophila
Neisseria meningitides
Salmonella typhi
Streptococcus pyogenes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus pyogenes
Q.
The best sterilization method for a hand-piece is________________?
Ethylene oxide gas
All of the above
dry heat
chemical vapour
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ethylene oxide gas
Q.
Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is____________?
Secretory IgA
Sialoperoxidase
Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Histidine rich proteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Q.
Sleeping sickness is caused by_______________?
Reduvid bug
Sand fly
Tick
House fly
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reduvid bug
Q.
The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_____________?
Alopecia areata
Kerison
Tenia incognito
Pilomatrixoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kerison
Q.
Steam under pressure in used in ________ sterilization?
hot air oven
Pasteurization
Kochs sterilizer
Autoclave
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The small nonparticulate protein leading to enhanced replication of HBV as well as HIV is______________?
HBs Ag
HBc Ag
HBx Ag
Hbe Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBx Ag
Q.
T cells multiplication is stimulated by_______________?
Macrolin
Phytohaemagglutinin
Bovine serum
Heat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Phytohaemagglutinin
Q.
Bacteria reproduce mainly by______________?
Budding
Sporing
Bacterial components produced by host cells
Binary fission
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Binary fission
Q.
The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine doses not play a major role is______________?
Arthus reaction
Urticaria
Anaphylaxis
Asthma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus reaction
Q.
Robertsons cooked meat medium is best suited for cultivation of_______________?
Clostridia
S. epidermidis
Mycobacterium
Choleria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridia
Q.
A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates________________?
Convalescence
Carrier state
Acute infection
Prodromal phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acute infection
Q.
Which of the following organisms does NOT react with gram
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Actinomyces israelii
Streptococcus mutan
Candida albicans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q.
Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins ?
IgG
IgM
IgA
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Disinfection of the rooms can be done by using_______________?
High efficiency particle arrestors
Chlorine gas
40% formaldehyde vapour
20% phenol
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 40% formaldehyde vapour
Q.
Negative staining is used to demonstrate________________?
Bacterial capsule
Bacterial spore
Bacterial Flagella
Bacterial fimbriae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacterial fimbriae
Q.
Which is not true about vibrio cholera_________________?
Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Man is the only natural host
Grows on simple media
It is non-halophilic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Q.
Group A carbohydrate of Str. pyogenes cross reacts with human_________________?
Cardiac valves
Myocardium
Vascular intima
Synovial fluid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiac valves
Q.
Pneumococus can be differentiated from streptococcus by________________?
Type of hemolysis
Bile solubility
Gram staining
Growth characteristics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bile solubility
Q.
Phage conversion is required for________________?
Diptheria
All o f the above
Gonorrhoea
Tularemia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Diptheria
Q.
parasitic inflammation would show predominantly____________________?
Basophils
Neutrophilis
Eosinophils
Lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Eosinophils
Q.
Pseudohphae are seen in____________?
Aspergillus
Candida albicans
Alternaria
Osporium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?
Epidemic typhus
Relapsing fever
Trench fever
Q fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Q fever
Q.
The causative organism of syphilis is___________?
Chalamydia trachomatis
Treponema pallidum
Leptospira interrogans
Borrelia burgolorferi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema pallidum
Q.
Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except______________?
Ascaris lumbriocoides
Giardia lambia
Strongyloides
Entamoeba
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strongyloides
Q.
Toxoids are_________________?
antigenic and toxic
non-antigenic and non-toxic
non-antigenic and toxic
antigenic and non-toxic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: antigenic and non-toxic
Q.
Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000_________________?
Secretory piece
J piece
H chain
L chain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: H chain
Q.
IL-1 is produced by_________________?
Helper B cells
Helper T cells
Macrophages
Monocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Macrophages
Q.
In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by_____________?
Blood culture
Widal test
Urine culture
Stool culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except__________________?
All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Found exclusively in human beings.
Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection
Most common cause of urethritis is male
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Q.
Pigs are important source of_____________?
Rabies
Japanese encephalitis
Yellow fever
Kuru
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Japanese encephalitis
Q.
A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains and haemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism ?
Bacitracin sensitivity
Bile solubility
Optochin sensitivity
Cataslase positive
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacitracin sensitivity
Q.
Organ of locomotion in bacteria is________________?
Capsule
Flagella
Fimbria
Cell wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flagella
Q.
All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except______________?
Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital
Gram staining
Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide
Colony morphology on saliva agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram staining
Q.
Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in______________?
Tapeworm
Hood worm
Ascariasis and tapeworm
Ascariasis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ascariasis
Q.
Bacteria with tuft of flagella at one end are called_______________?
Bipolar
Monotrichate
Lophotrichate
Peritrichate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lophotrichate
Q.
Certain viruses have been isolated in crytalline form and have been found to be_____________?
Nucleoproteins
Scleroproteins
Nucleotides
Phospholipids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleoproteins
Q.
Fungal infection of human beings is called as_____________?
Mycosis
Micromia
Mucorsis
Fungosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycosis
Q.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa_________________?
Causes Shangai fever
Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.
Does not produce any pigment
Produces heat stable enterotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Causes Shangai fever
Q.
The world german measles is applied for_____________?
Rubeola
Herpetic ginglvostomatitis
Herpes simplex
Rubella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Which of the following provides best gurantee for sterlization in the heat sterilizer ?
Determining the ability of a sterilizer to kill the hepatitis B virus
Using chemical indicator strip or pouch
Recording a temperature/ pressure readings from sterilizer guage
Using a bacterial spore test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Using a bacterial spore test
Q.
Active artificial immunization is induced by the administration of all of the following EXCEPT______________?
Toxoids
Bacterial products
Antitoxins
Vaccines
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antitoxins
Q.
Plaque test is used routinely in virology lab
Identification of viral disease
To separate specific clone of virus
To prepare vaccines
To maintain certain viral culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Identification of viral disease
Q.
The commonest method of detection of diptheria carriers is_______________?
Schick test
Casoni
Dick test
Charles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Schick test
Q.
Most common tumor associated with AIDS is______________?
Melanoma
Kaposi
Carcinoma
Ewing
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kaposi
Q.
Which of the following is a RNA virus ?
Herpes Virus
Measles virus
Papavo virus
Adeno virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
A 6 year old boy comes with abdominal pain, vomiting after consuming mild products within 6 hours. The most likely organism responsible is______________?
Staph. aureus
Clostridium botulinum
B.Cereus
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staph. aureus
Q.
The medium of choice for growing most fungi is_______________?
Sabouraud
Tissue culture
Blood agar
Thioglycollate medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
Hydatid cyst is__________________?
Fungal
Congenital
Parasitic in nature
Viral
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parasitic in nature
Q.
Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called______________?
Chemotaxis
De coding
Opsonisation
CFT
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Opsonisation
Q.
The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is___________________?
5%
10%
2%
15%
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2%
Q.
Selective media for MYCOBACTERIUM _____________?
Sabourauds medium
Lowenstein Jensen medium
Agar
Loefflers serum slope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lowenstein Jensen medium
Q.
A sporangium contains_______________?
Spherules
Oidia
porangiospores
Chlamydospores
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: porangiospores
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria can be cultured in__________________?
Loefflers medium
Sabourauds agar
L-J medium
Robertson cooked meat medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robertson cooked meat medium
Q.
All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except________________?
Cysts are 8 nucleated
Cysts are 4 nucleated
Trophozoites colonise in the colon
The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cysts are 8 nucleated
Q.
Gram -ve bacteria stain during gram staining____________?
Red color
Green
Blue color
Colorless
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Red color
Q.
The optimal time and temperature required for sterilization in an autoclave is___________________?
140
121
121
121
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 121
Q.
Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus ?
Keratoacanthoma
Condyloma acuminatum
Verruca vulgaris
Focal epithelial hyperplasia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Keratoacanthoma
Q.
IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by______________?
Activated macrophages
Plasma cells
Platelet
Lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Activated macrophages
Q.
The major intestinal pathogens which are non-lactose fermenters are_________________?
Salmonella
Klebsiella
Paracolons
Escherichia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salmonella
Q.
Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by________________?
ELISA
Direct microscopy
Culture
DNA probe
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Culture
Q.
Which component of the cell wall is responsible________________?
Region III
Boivin antigen
Region I
Region II
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Region III
Q.
In patients with asthma due to an allergic cause the serum levels of which immunoglobulin increase____________________?
IgD
IgA
IgM
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Which regards to temperature requirement, most pathogenic bacteria are_____________?
Cryophiles
Thermophiles
Psychrophiles
Mesophiles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mesophiles
Q.
Negative phase is seen in ________ immunity?
Local
Herd
Active
Passive
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active
Q.
Bacterial cell does not possess___________________?
Mitochondria
dna
Cell wall
Ribosome
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mitochondria
Q.
Australian antigen is_______________?
HB Ag
HBV
HBs AG
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBs AG
Q.
Which does not have a viral etiology______________?
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Carcinoma Cervix
Lymphoma
Hepatoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Endotoxins are produced by________________?
Fungi
Gram -ve bacteria
Virus
Gram +ve bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram -ve bacteria
Q.
EBV is responsible for all except______________?
Burkitt
Hepatoma
Infectious mononucleosis
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Complement factor through which common pathway begins___________________?
Protein B
C2
C3
C5
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C3
Q.
Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is___________________?
Spleen
Liver
Brain
Lungs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Liver
Q.
The time gap between appearance of Koplik
24 Hrs
2 weeks
10 days
3-4 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3-4 days
Q.
CD4 cells recognize the antigens in association with_____________?
B-cell receptor
MHC II
MHC III
MHC I
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: MHC II
Q.
Each of the following viruses possesses an outer lipoprotein envelope except_____________?
Varicella Zoster Virus
Influenza Virus
Human immunodeficiency virus
Papilloma Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma Virus
Q.
Mark true in following ?
Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Q.
First released immunoglobulin after primary immunization_______________?
IgD
IgE
IgG
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is_________________?
Streptococcus fecalis
T-strain mycoplasma
Escherichia coli
Neisseria gonorrhea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Escherichia coli
Q.
Black water fever is caused by______________?
Leishmania donovani
Microfilaria
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______________?
Dot
Comma
Sickle
Banana
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sickle
Q.
Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____________?
6 week
6 months
3 months
1 week
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 week
Q.
About Psedomonas. All are true except________________?
Can grow in disinfectants in hospital
Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Strick aerobes
Most common organism is burn patient
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except_______________?
Through bacteriophages
Through conjugation
Through plasmids
Incorporating part of host DNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____________?
3,10,19
16,18,31
Type 6,12,18
6,8,11
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 16,18,31
Q.
Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except_______________?
Animals
Chemically defined media
Embryonated eggs
Tissue culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chemically defined media
Q.
Type of receptor present on T-cells are__________________?
CD4
Ig G
Prostaglandins
Ig A
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4
Q.
All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_____________?
Eccentric nucleus
Refractile nucleus
Chromatid bars
Glycogen mass
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile nucleus
Q.
Leprosy bacilli can be grown in_________________?
Testes of guinea pig
Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Testes of albino rats
Tail of guinea pig
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Q.
Group A B-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the pharynx may be followed in some by_____________?
Rheumatic fever
Typhoid fever
Diphtheria
Syphilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatic fever
Q.
Secretory Ig is_______________?
IgD
IgM
IgA
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Which of the following viruses does not infect salivary glands ?
Hepatitis C
Echo virus
Orthomyxovirus
HIV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxovirus
Q.
Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following________________?
Tetanus toxoid
Sabin
All of the above
Salk vaccine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salk vaccine
Q.
True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by_______________?
Dogs
Cow
cats
Rats
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cats
Q.
Candidal hyphae can be stained using_______________?
Masson Trichrome stain
Periodic acid schiff stain
Toluidine blue stain
Van Gieson
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Periodic acid schiff stain
Q.
The prototype of Type II hypersensitivity reaction is__________________?
Contact dermatitis
SLE
Arthus reaction
Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Q.
The earliest identifiable cells of T-Cell lineage during maturation are_______________?
CD5+ Pre-T-Cells
CD8+ Pre-T-Cells
CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
CD8+ Pro-T-Cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
Q.
Dengue virus belongs to______________?
Flavi virus
Togaviridae
Rhabdoviridae
Reoviridae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi virus
Q.
T cell matures in______________?
Busra of Fabricius
Thymus
Payers patch
Lymph node
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thymus
Q.
The presence of Which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility ?
Polysaccharide
Protein coat
Enzymes
Lipids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein coat
Q.
Wasserman test test is diagnostic of__________________?
Tyhoid
Gonorrhea
Syphilis
TB
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Glasswares are sterilised by______________?
Hot air oven
Incineration
Formaldehyde
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by which of the following_____________?
All of the above
Boiling
Ethanol
Cidex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affets_______________?
Mast cells
Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Red blood cells
Fibroblasts
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Q.
Which of the following enzyme is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot pathogenic staphylococci_____________?
Fibrinolysin
Lysozyme
Coagulase
S protein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coagulase
Q.
Secondary response is mediated by_______________?
IgG
IgE
IgM
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Bacterial species which is protective or beneficial to the host is_______________?
Spirochetes
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Treponema denticola
Streptococcus sanguis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus sanguis
Q.
Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve________________?
Duodenum
Jejunum and Ileum
Stomach
Caecum and large intestine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caecum and large intestine
Q.
A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents________________?
Auto
Allo
ISO
Xeno
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Allo
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical mycobacteria by______________?
Niacin test
AFB staining
Pas staining
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Niacin test
Q.
The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by____________?
Conjugation
Cell fusion
Transduction
Translation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
Sterilisation control for moist heat is
Using methylene blue
Using chemical indicator
using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Using non-pathogenic strain of clostridium tetani
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Q.
Complement binding immunoglobin via the classical pathway is_______________?
IgG & IgA
IgG & IgD
IgD & IgE
IgG & igM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG & igM
Q.
Commonest mycobacterial infection in tropical countries_______________?
M. leprae
Kansasi
M. avium intracellulare
M. tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. tuberculosis
Q.
Sterilisation is______________?
Only pathogenic micro-organisms killed
All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Pathogens killed but spores are not affected
Non-pathogenic killed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Q.
Killer and Helper cells are part of_______________?
Macrophage
Monocytes
T cells
B cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T cells
Q.
Bacteriophage was discovered by_________________?
Robert koch
Menkin
Metchinkoff
Twort and d
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Twort and d
Q.
Growth factor needed for Salmonella_________________?
Tryptophan
Citrate
B-12
Niacin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Tryptophan
Q.
Louis Pasteur is not associated with_______________?
Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Introduction of complex media
Discovery of Rabies Vaccine
Disproved spontaneous regression theory
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Q.
Synthesis of antibodies in plasma cells occurs in_________________?
Nucleus
Golgi body
Mitochondria
Endoplasmic reticulum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.
Leishmania is cultured in ________________ media?
Sabourauds
Tellurite
NNN
Chocolate agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NNN
Q.
Purpose of Sterilization is to eliminate________________?
Spore formers
Fungus
Viruses
Bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spore formers
Q.
The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to_____________?
Remove microbes
Kill mircobes
Inhibit microbial growth
Dehydrate microbial cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Remove microbes
Q.
The only virus, which has double stranded RNA, is______________?
Calci virus
Reo virus
Rhabdo virus
Bunya virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reo virus
Q.
Culture media of candida is_________________?
Pingolevin
Methylene blue dextrose agar
Saboraud
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saboraud
Q.
L.D bodies are seen in_______________?
Kalahazar
Malaria
Toxoplasmosis
Sleeping sickness
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kalahazar
Q.
Schuffner
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium malariae
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium vivax
Q.
Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus infection during window period ?
None of the above
IgM anti
Anti HBs
HBs Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM anti
Q.
Delhi boil refer to_______________?
Venereal ulcer
Solar Keratosis
L. Tropica sore
Malignant pustule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: L. Tropica sore
Q.
Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except________________?
Have infections
All are true
50% chances to have AIDS
Failure to thrive
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 50% chances to have AIDS
Q.
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to_______________?
T lymphocytes
B lymphocytes
Histiocytes
Monocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T lymphocytes
Q.
The cell wall deficient bacteria_______________?
Mycoplasma
Rickettsiae
Chlamydiae
Ehrlichiae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycoplasma
Q.
Pasteur developed the vaccine for_______________?
Cholera
Anthrax
All of the above
Rabies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Borrelia vincenti is always associated with______________?
Fusiform bacilli
Treponema vincenti
Spirochaetes
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fusiform bacilli
Q.
The Manufacturing unit of surgical needle & sutures are sterilized by ________________?
X-Rays
Autoclaving
Gamma-Rays
Boiling
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma-Rays
Q.
Glutaraldehyde is preferred more than formaldehyde because______________?
It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
It has got more bacteriostatic activity
It has got more bactericidal activity
Its application is easier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Q.
The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is_____________?
Sabourad
Robertoson
Chorio allantoic membrane
Chocolate agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chorio allantoic membrane
Q.
Rh incompatibility is which type of hyper sensitivity reaction ?
Type II
Type I
Type III
Type IV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Silver impregnation method of staining is useful to demonstrate_____________?
None of the above
Spirochetes
Bacterial flagella
Both of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both of the above
Q.
Which of the following would you consider to be general properties of viruses______________?
Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids
Contain DNA but no RNA
Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Q.
Dematophytes are fungi infecting________________?
Subcutaneous tissue
Superficial skin and deep tissue
Nails, hair and skin
Systemic organs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nails, hair and skin
Q.
Chlamydia causes all of the following except________________?
Trachoma
Pneumonia
Parotitis
Non-gonococcal urethritis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parotitis
Q.
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (SSS syndrome) is due to______________?
Enterotoxin A
Enterotoxin B
Enterotoxin F
Enterotoxin D
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterotoxin F
Q.
Leprosy bacilli are transmitted from person to person by all except______________?
Dischange from nasal mucosa
Through breast milk
Through intact skin
From open sore
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Through breast milk
Q.
ASO (Antistreptolysin 0) test is uesd for the diagnosis of________________?
Rickettsial fever
Typhoid fever
Rheumatie fever
Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatie fever
Q.
Actinomycetes is______________?
Gram positive bacteria
Fungus
A yeast like form
Gram negative bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is_____________?
Blue stain
Eosin stain
Haemotoxin stain
Ninhydrin stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ninhydrin stain
Q.
Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by_____________?
Virus
Bacteria
Bacteria superadded on virus
Parasite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
The term animalcules to oral microorganisms is given by__________________?
Leumenhoek
Socranci
Wd miller
Robertson
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leumenhoek
Q.
Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly_______________?
Nasal mucosa
Lung
Skin
Gastrointestinal tract
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gastrointestinal tract
Q.
Phospholipid used to investigate syphilis by the reagin test is________________?
Plasminogen
Cardiolipin
Serine
Palmityl lecithin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiolipin
Q.
Cleavage of IgG molecule by Papin gives rise to:One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments_______________?
Two Fc fragments and two Fab fragments
Two Fc fragment and one Fab fragment
One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
One Fc fragment and four Fab fragments
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Q.
Following reaction are produced by heterophil antigens except_____________?
Weil-Felix reaction
Paul bunnel reaction
Forssman antigen antibody reaction
Widal reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal reaction
Q.
The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______________?
IgA
IgG
IgE
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV irradiation_______________?
Inorganic salts
Nucleic acids
Carbohydrates
Lipids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleic acids
Q.
Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by________________?
Epithelial cells
Sucrose
Dextran
Bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dextran
Q.
The anaphylaxis should be treated first with_____________?
Anti histamines
Steroids
Epinephrine
Antibiotics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epinephrine
Q.
Dorset
Gonococcus
Streptococcus
Mycobacterium
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best demonstrated by_________________?
PAS stain
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
H & E stain
Gram
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Q.
The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is______________?
Borrelia vincenti
Borrelia burgdorferi
Treponema pallidum
Treponjema pertenue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti
Q.
Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is ________________?
Aspergillus
Mucor
Rhizopus
Penicillium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus
Q.
Best method of sterilizing disposable syringes_______________?
Gamma rays
Boiling
U.V. rays
Hot air oven
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma rays
Q.
Anaphylaxis refers to the________________?
State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens
Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions
Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________________?
Causes meningitis
Basidiomycetes yeast
Melanin production related to virulence
Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Q.
The Process of attenuation can be achieved by all except___________________?
Repeated cultures in artificial media
Growing bacteria in unconventional host
Serial passage in an experimental host
Growing bacteria in adverse environment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serial passage in an experimental host
Q.
Probiotic organism used_________________?
Staphylococcus
Bifido bacteria
Salmonella
E coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bifido bacteria
Q.
Staphylococcus does not causes_______________?
Osteomyelitis
Pneumonia
Scarlet fever
Abscess
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Scarlet fever
Q.
Oil and Grease are sterilized by________________?
Hot air oven
Auto claving
Irradiation
Ethylene dioxide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Most sensitive test for antigen detection is_______________?
Immunoflourescence
Radioimmuno Assay
Passive hemaglutination
ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Radioimmuno Assay
Q.
Antigen combining site of the antibody is____________________?
Hapten
Epitope
Idiotope
Paratope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Paratope
Q.
The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______________?
Erythema
Necrosis
Vasculitis
Induration
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythema
Q.
The most common site where organisms are present in a typhoid carrier is______________?
Spleen
Salivary gland
Gall Bladder
Liver
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gall Bladder
Q.
Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause foetal defect ?
Mumps
Rubella
Papilloma
Herpes Simplex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Babu, a 28 year old male comes with compaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by____________?
ELISA
Western blot
P24 antigen
Lymph node biopsy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: P24 antigen
Q.
The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is ________________?
Coagulase production
lecithinase production
exotoxin production
hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: hypersensitivity
Q.
In T.B cell mediated immunity is by_______________?
CD 8*
B
None of the above
CD 4*
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD 4*
Q.
Australia antigen is associated with________________?
Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Basal cell carcinoma
AIDS
Chronic leukemia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Q.
Incubation pariod of herpes zoster is________________?
3-6 months
1 months
7-14 days
1-2 years
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 7-14 days
Q.
Salmonella typhi can be isolated at different times from______________?
Blood
Urine
Feaces
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which of the following antibacterial substance is present in eggs and saliva ?
Isozyme
Lysozyme
Secretozyme
Albumin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysozyme
Q.
Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection_________________?
Giardia lambella
Taenia solium
Isopora belli
Balantidium coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Taenia solium
Q.
Electron microscopic examination of the bacterial flora of necrotising ulcerative gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are______________?
Spirochetes
Bacteriophages
Filamentous rods
Cocci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
The most frequently encountered clostridial species in gas gangrene is______________?
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium welchii
Clostridium tetani
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Q fever is caused by________________?
C. burnetti
R. prowozekii
R. quintana
Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C. burnetti
Q.
Mesophilic organisms are those that grow best at temperature of______________?
55
-7
25
-20
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 25
Q.
An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry cough, sputum culture showed growth on charcoal yeast Extract Medium, theorganism is______________?
H. influenza
Moraxella catarrhalis
Burkholderia cepacia
Legionella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Legionella
Q.
Techoic acid is present in_____________?
Cytoplasm of Gram positive organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram negative organisms
Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Cell wall of Gram negative organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Q.
Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?
The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously
Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Causes positive Nagler reaction
The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Q.
Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by_________________?
Hookworm
Fish tapeworm
Dog tapeworm
Threadworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fish tapeworm
Q.
Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?
Spore
Coccidia
Mycobacteria
Prions
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prions
Q.
Blood agar is________________?
Transport media
Simple media
Enriched media
Differential media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enriched media
Q.
Signs of tyhoid fever is/are_____________________?
Haemorrhage
All of the above
perforation
Osteomyelitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by ___________________?
Mucor
Aspergillus
Cryptococcus
Candida albicans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction______________?
E.coli
Haemophilus
Staphylococcus
Proteus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?
Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity
Give ARV
Immediately wash wound with soap and water
Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Q.
One of the following is a zoonotic disease_____________?
Bacillary dysentery
Typhoid
Anthrax
Cholera
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anthrax
Q.
Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of______________?
Whooping cough
Gas gangrene
Malaria
Wool sorters disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gas gangrene
Q.
Which of the following is a live vaccine_____________?
Salk
HDCV
17 D
Hepatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HDCV
Q.
The function of IgD is______________?
Compliment activation
Reagin activity
Localization protection in external secretion
Antigen recognition by B cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antigen recognition by B cells
Q.
The following statement is true regarding fungal infection__________________?
Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man
Candida infection is usually endogenous
albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals
Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida infection is usually endogenous
Q.
One of the following staining methods is an example of negative staining_______________?
Gram
India ink preparation
Zheil-Neilson
Fontana
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
All are true about widel test except________________________?
Base lines differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative
H antigen cannot differentiate between subtypes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Q.
The virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhea include all of the following except____________?
IgA Protease
Outer membrane proteins
Pili
M-Proteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M-Proteins
Q.
Characteristic feature of retrovirus is_____________?
Reverse transcriptase
Ribonuclease
DNA polymerase
Restriction endonuclease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reverse transcriptase
Q.
Serum sickness syndrome is an example of________________?
Cell-mediated immunity
Angioneurotic edema
Anaphylactic
Systemic arthus reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Systemic arthus reaction
Q.
The Window period in HIV infection means______________?
The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab
None of the above
The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS
The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
Q.
Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to________________?
Increase toxigenicity
Increase antigenicity
Reduce the antigenicity
reduce the toxigenicity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increase antigenicity
Q.
Which of the following is true about amoebic liver disease ?
Portal system is the main filtration system
Non-suppurative form is the serious form of extra intestinal amoebiasis
Left lobe of liver is commonly involved
Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Q.
Teichoic acid is present in cell walls of_________________?
Gram positive bacteria
Protozoa
Gram negative bacteria
Yeast
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Grave
Type III
Type IV
Type II
Type I
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Madura mycosis produces______________?
Brown to black granules
White to yellow granules
No granules
Red granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: White to yellow granules
Q.
A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?
Bartonella spp
Brucella spp
Pasturella spp
Francisella spp
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Brucella spp
Q.
Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a_______________?
RIPA
Immunodot
ELISA
Western Blot
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Western Blot
Q.
Rabies virus________________?
Chromophilic
Cytotropic
Neurotropic
Dermatotropic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neurotropic
Q.
Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is_______________?
IgG
IgE
IgA
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
B.C.G untrue is_____________?
T.B vaccine
live vaccine
Orally administered
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orally administered
Q.
In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a_______________?
Carrier
Toxin
Super antigen
Hapten
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hapten
Q.
Thread worm is______________?
Necator
Ancylostoma
Enterobius
Ascaris
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterobius
Q.
Endotoxin have all but one of the properties given below_______________?
Not secreted outside the cell
Cannot be toxoided
Produced by gram negative bacteria
Produced by gram positive bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Produced by gram positive bacteria
Q.
The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is___________?
Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes
The catalase test
Detection of coagulase
Mannitol fermentation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Detection of coagulase
Q.
Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus is due to ________________________?
Penicillin analogue production
Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Pleomorphism
Lack of nucleic acid in the cell wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Q.
Influenza is caused by_____________?
Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Q.
Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is_________________?
2:1
3:1
1:2
1:3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2:1
Q.
On a stained slide, clostridium tetani has the appearance of a__________________?
Safely pin
Bunch of a
Drum stick
Chain of beads
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Drum stick
Q.
Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine ?
Tuberculosis (BCG)
Varicella Zoster virus
Cholera
Typhoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cholera
Q.
which of the following is anaerobic_______________?
Pseudomonas
Bacteroides
E.coli
Klebsiella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacteroides
Q.
Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstratig________________?
Trophozoites in the feces
Trophozoites in the pus
Cysts in the intestine
Cysts in the sterile pus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites in the pus
Q.
The urine sample of a patient has been sent to the laboratory to look for Leptospira. The specimen is to be screened by use of the__________________?
Dark ground microscope
Scanning microscope
Inverted microscope
Electron microscope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dark ground microscope
Q.
Function of Ig A is________________?
Kills virus infected cells
Activates macrophages
Circulating antibody
Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Q.
Aflatoxins are produced by________________?
Aspergillus fumigatus
Aspergillus flavus
Aspergillus niger
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus flavus
Q.
The chemotactic factor is______________?
C2a
C5a
C3b
C4a
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C5a
Q.
Characters of exotoxin include all, except_______________?
Has specific tissue affinity
Heat labile
Highly potent
Protein polysaccharide complex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein polysaccharide complex
Q.
Leptospirosis, all are true except______________?
Incubation period is 10 days
It is sensitive to penicillin
Onset of IgM in 2 days
Faeces & urine of rodents is the cause
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Onset of IgM in 2 days
Q.
Which of the following belongs to cell fraction derived vaccine______________?
Rubella
Hepatitis B
Mumps
Measles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B
Q.
The killer cells are associated with immunologic response___________________?
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Type I
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
The term epitope refers to________________?
complete antigen molecule
Immunogen
Hapten
Smallest antigenic determinant
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Smallest antigenic determinant
Q.
Drumstick appearance is seen in______________?
All of the above
Cl. tetani
Cl. sphenoids
Cl. tetanomorphum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. tetani
Q.
The commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercie bacilli________________?
Acridine orange
Auramine and Rhodamine
Thioglavin
Congo red
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine and Rhodamine
Q.
Common name for Trichuris trichura________________?
Tape worm
Round worm
Whip worm
Seat woman
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Whip worm
Q.
Herpes virus_____________?
Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane
Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane
Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Q.
The specific test for Treponema pallidum is___________?