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TOP Microbiology MCQS Questions
Q.
Bacterial spores are destroyed by_______________?
Autoclave
Disinfection by hypochlorite solution
Pasteurisation
Boiling at 100
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The interaction of antigens with antibodies on the surface of a mast cel leads to degranulation and anaphylaxis. The mast cell granules produce anaphylaxis because they contain________________?
Vasoactive mediators
Lysosomes
Proteolytic enzymes
Lymphotoxins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vasoactive mediators
Q.
Bacteria with potent exotoxin is_______________?
Shigella
Clostridium tetani
Pseudomonas
Klebsiella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani
Q.
True about prions________________?
Viruses which are genetically deficient
Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective
Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Q.
The best skin disinfectant is________________?
Savlon
Chlorhexdine
None of the above
Alcohol
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chlorhexdine
Q.
Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates_____________?
Carrier status
Simple carriers
Late convalescence
High infectivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: High infectivity
Q.
The facultative anaerobic bacteria are those who are_______________?
Unable to grow in the presence of oxygen
Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Able to grow in the presence of carbon dioxide
Unable to grow in the absence of oxygen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Q.
A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium malaria
Plasmodium vivax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Erysipelas is caused by________________?
Group B staphylococci
Group A steptococci
Pneumococci
Gonococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B staphylococci
Q.
True about immune response of hepatitis B is__________________?
CMI disappears soon after recover
Antibody to HBC is not protective
Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Q.
Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria______________?
Loefflers serum slope
Saborauds agar
Lowenstein Jensen Medium
Mc Conkey
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Loefflers serum slope
Q.
A full course of immunization agianst. Telanus with 3 doses to Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how many years ?
10
5
15
20
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 10
Q.
Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?
Virus isolation
Western blot followed by ELISA
ELISA followed by western blot technique
Polymers chain reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA followed by western blot technique
Q.
Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-5m in size, multi-septate, chestnut, brown color is characteristic of________________?
Phaeohypomycosis
Rhinosporodiosis
Histoplasmosis
Chromoblastomycosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chromoblastomycosis
Q.
The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell
Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Haemagglutination inhibition test
Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
Haemagglutination test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Q.
An oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod which produces a bluish-green pigment has been grown in culture from a swab obtained from an infected burn wound. This organism is susceptible to gentamicin, ticarcillin and tobramicin, but resistant to all the other antibiotics which of the following organisms is it likely to be ?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Escherichia coli
Proteus miribilis
Klebsiella pnemoniae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q.
Exaltation is________________?
None
Increased Virulence
No change
Decreased virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increased Virulence
Q.
Which of the following is not true of boiling water_____________?
It can kill hepatitis B virus
Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis
Can kill vegetative bacterial cells
Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Q.
The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is_______________?
IgG
IgD
IgM
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Germ tubes are formed mainly by_______________?
Candida pseudotropicalls
Candida stellatoidea
Candida tropicalis
Candida albicans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
The best method of sterilization of dressing powder is_____________?
Hot air oven
Tyndallization
Autoclaving
Inspissation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with______________?
IgA antibodies
IgM antibodies
Mast cells
Lysozyme
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA antibodies
Q.
Loss of capsule in bacteria is generally associated with______________?
Inability to spread through tissue
Loss of infectivity
increase in invasiveness
Decease in virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Decease in virulence
Q.
Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify______________?
Rickettsiae
Chlamydiae
Spirochaetes
Mycoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochaetes
Q.
Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_____________?
Cryptococcosis
Aspergilosis
Tuberculosis
Candidiasis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candidiasis
Q.
Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans_________________?
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Hot air oven is used for sterilization of all EXCEPT__________________?
Glassware
Liquid paraffin
Sharp instrument
Rubber tubes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubber tubes
Q.
Which worm is longest________________?
T. Solium
A. Lumbricoides
T. Saginata
Hook worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T. Saginata
Q.
Malignant pustule is referred to_________________?
None of the above
Cutaneous anthrax
Infected squamous cell carcinoma
Facio-cervical actinomycosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cutaneous anthrax
Q.
In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started________________?
Rabies
Poliomyelitis
Herpes
Influenza
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabies
Q.
True about VDRL test________________?
Non
All of the above
Slide flocculation test
Best followed for drug therapy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is_____________?
Hepatitis A virus
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
Lancefields classification of B hemolytic streptococcus is based on______________?
Polysaccharide C antigen
M Protein
Type of lipid in cell membrane
Physiological properties
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Polysaccharide C antigen
Q.
Virulence of Gonococcus is due to___________________?
Its intracellular location
Cytolytic enzymes
Pili
Cell Membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
Which of the following fulfil all the criterias of kich
N. gonorrhoeae
None of the above
Treponema pallidum
Mycobacterium leprae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: None of the above
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria grow_______________?
in the presence of nitrogen
differential media
in the presence of oxygen
in the absence of oxygen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in the absence of oxygen
Q.
Which of the following is an acid-fast bacillus_____________?
Neisseria gonorrhea
All of the above
Mycobacterium bacilli
Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium bacilli
Q.
Which of the following is obligate aerobe ?
Proteus
diphtheria
Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Q.
Malaria pigment is________________?
Haematin-globin pigment
Bilurubin
Haemoglobin
Iron
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haematin-globin pigment
Q.
The key cell types involved in the acquired immunity include all EXCEPT________________?
Antigen presenting cells (APC
Erythrocytes
T lymphocytes
B lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythrocytes
Q.
Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor_____________?
Streptolysin 0
Carbohydrate cell wall
M protein
Pyrogenic exotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pyrogenic exotoxin
Q.
The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as_____________?
Epitope
Idiotope
Clone
Paratope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epitope
Q.
Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose_______________?
Anaphylaxis
Arthus reaction
Serum sickness
Contact dermatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Immunoglobulin consists of________________?
1 light, 1 heavy chain
2 light, 2 heavy chains
3 light, 1 heavy chain
1 heavy, 2 light chains
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2 light, 2 heavy chains
Q.
Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in________________?
Chick embryos
Rabbit testis only
Tissue culture
Artificial media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabbit testis only
Q.
Which of the following characteristics of bacteria is not true?
Free living
Cell wall containing muramic acid
Having either DNA or RNA
Unicellular
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Having either DNA or RNA
Q.
A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT________________?
Teichoplanin
Linezolid
Imipenem
Vancomycin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Imipenem
Q.
The overall effect of HIV is to gradually impair the immune system by interference with______________?
Natural killer cells
Macrophages
Plasma cells
Helper T lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes
Q.
Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?
Surface antigen
Core antibody
Core antigen
Surface antibody
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Surface antigen
Q.
Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies_____________?
Chicken pox
Rabies
Small pox
Measles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles
Q.
Prozone phenomenon is due to______________?
Disproportionate antigen antibody levels
Excess antibody
Excess antigen
Hyper immune reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Excess antibody
Q.
Actinomycosis is a_________________?
Anaerobic bacterial disease
Anaerobic fungal disease
Aerobic fungal disease
Aerobic bacterial disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic bacterial disease
Q.
HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except________________?
Sexual intercourse
Blood transmission
Needle prick injury
Saliva
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saliva
Q.
Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_______________?
All of the above
Presence of either DNA or RNA
Complex multiplication
Simple structure
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
False +ve for VDRL is seen in______________?
Yaws
Lepromatous Leprosy
All of the above
Malaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Most fungi of medical importance belongs to__________________?
Ascomycetes
Deuteromycetes
Basidiomycetes
Zygomycetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deuteromycetes
Q.
Most of the drug resistances occurs due to_____________?
Transduction
Mutation
Transformation
conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: conjugation
Q.
The bacterial cell wall has all of the following properties except______________?
It contains D-isomers of amino acids
It consists of a mixed polymer called peptidoglycon
It is a unique flexible plastic structure
It is the structure principally responsible for the reaction of gram staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It is a unique flexible plastic structure
Q.
The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is_____________?
Apthous stomatitis
Tuberculosis
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Herpetic gingivostomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Q.
Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in which of the following viruses_____________?
Hepatitis B virus
HIV
Pox virus
Measles virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is______________?
Hemophilia ducreya
Bartonella henselae
Chlamydia trachomatis
Donovania granulomatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bartonella henselae
Q.
Which of the following is not a feature of anaphylaxis ?
passive transfer by serum
None of the above
Immediate reaction
Delayed reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Delayed reaction
Q.
DNA covering material in a virus is called as________________?
Envelope
Nucleocapsid
Capsid
Capsomere
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Capsid
Q.
ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______________?
More sensitive, less specific
Less sensitive, more specific
Less sensitive less specific
More sensitive, more specific
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: More sensitive, less specific
Q.
Who first introduced solid media_______________?
Ogston
Louis pasteur
Robert koch
Hensen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robert koch
Q.
cAMP reaction is shown by which streptococci ?
Group A
Group C
Group B
Group D
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B
Q.
Widal test is specific for____________?
Typhoid
Plague
Leprosy
Pemhigoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid
Q.
Which of the following is not a koch
When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the experimental animals
Pure cultures can be obtained
The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Q.
All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_________________?
gingivalis
histolytica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: gingivalis
Q.
When horse serum is injected intravenoulsy in to a rabbit and again in to the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs as the site of the second injection________________?
Atopy
Arthus phenomenon
Serum sickness
Anaphylaxis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus phenomenon
Q.
Fimbriae are demonstrated by ___________________?
Biochemical reaction
Haemagglutination test
Culture
Gram stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haemagglutination test
Q.
The following is not true of Candida albicans______________?
Forms Chlamydospores
Blastomeres seen in isolates
Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them
Yeast like fungus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blastomeres seen in isolates
Q.
The temperature required for cultivating mycobacterium________________?
2 degree
37 degrees
27 degrees
0 degree
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 37 degrees
Q.
All are true about bordetella pertussis except______________?
Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
It may occur in children and young adult after vaccination
Most common cause is B. Petrussis
Bacteria culture from nasopharyngeal swab is the definitive diagnosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Q.
Causative organism of Kalahazar is_______________?
Toxoplasma
Plasmodium ovaie
Leishman donovani
Entamoeba histolytica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leishman donovani
Q.
Interferon interferes with replication of virus at the time of_____________?
Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule
DNA/RNA replication
When virus enters the cell
Protein synthesis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein synthesis
Q.
Rideal Walker test is used to determine the efficiency of the_____________?
Moist heat sterilisation
Antibiotics
Disinfectant
Dry heat sterilization
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Disinfectant
Q.
The difference between sterilization and disinfection is that_______________?
Sterilization involves chemicals and disinfection involves physical methods
Disinfection kills all spores but sterilization does not
Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Sterilization is easier to achieve
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Q.
The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is_______________?
Conjugation
Transformation
Translation
Lysogeny
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysogeny
Q.
For uniform staining reaction, morphology and biochemical activity it is advisable to study bacterial cultures during the_____________?
Stationary phase
Death phase
Lag phase
Logarithmic phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Logarithmic phase
Q.
The structure in involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface is_______________?
None of the above
Capsule
Flagella
Fimbria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fimbria
Q.
Vibrio cholera was discovered by_________________?
Medintoff
Virchow
Koch
John snow
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Koch
Q.
Noguchi
Borrelia
Brucella
None of the above
Bordetella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia
Q.
Donovanosis, true is___________________?
Characterized by painful genital ulcers
Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic
Penicillin is drug of choice
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Q.
Which of the following statement about P24 antigen of HIV is Not True ?
Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:
It can be detected during the window period
Virus load parallel P24 titre
It remains during asymptomatic phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It remains during asymptomatic phase
Q.
A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?
Xenograft
Allograft
Autograft
Isograft
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Isograft
Q.
In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_______________?
Merozoite
Hypnozoite
Sporozoite
Gametocyte
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sporozoite
Q.
Virus infected cell is killed by________________?
Neutrophils
Interferons
Macrophages
Autolysis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Interferons
Q.
In small intestine, cholera toxin acts by______________?
Active absorption of NaCI
Activation of GTPase
ADP
Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ADP
Q.
Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by_____________?
Nisseria
Haemolytic streptococci
Streptococcus viridans
Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus viridans
Q.
Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by______________?
Inspissation
UV-Radiation
Hot air oven
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Candida is most often implicated in causation___________________?
Tenea capitis
Thrush
Conjunctivitis
Desert rheumatism
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thrush
Q.
Diphtheria is pathogenic only when infected with______________?
Delta Phage
Alfa phage
Lambda K12
Beta phage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Beta phage
Q.
The antigen used in Weil Felix test is obtained from________________?
Proteus
coli
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to______________?
NK
B
CD4 T-cells
CD8 T-cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4 T-cells
Q.
Actinomycosis is caused by______________?
Acid fast, non-motile bacillus
Retrovirus
Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Fungus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Q.
The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route________________?
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis D virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______________?
Both are
ELISA IS
Western Blot is
PCR is
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both are
Q.
Lepromin test is useful for________________?
Prognosis
Diagnosis
Epidemiology
Treatment plan
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prognosis
Q.
Staphylococci typically occur in_________________?
Chains
Tetrads
Irregular clusters
Pairs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Irregular clusters
Q.
The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the________________?
VL domian
CL domian
CH2 domian
CH1 domian
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CH2 domian
Q.
Multiple drug resistance of bacteria depends on which of the following_______________?
All of the above
Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Fertility factor (F+)
Colicigenic factor (Col)
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Q.
Immunity that is conferred to the foetus by transfer of IgG and IgA antibodies is called as______________?
Active acquired immunity
Passive acquired immunity
Natural active immunity
Passive natural immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Passive natural immunity
Q.
Viron is defined as______________?
Smallest virus
None of the above
A smallest particle similar to virus
Extracellular infectious virus particle
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Extracellular infectious virus particle
Q.
Cough plate method is used to identify________________?
Y. pestis
Mycoplasma
Pertussis
M-Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pertussis
Q.
Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functional of the cell______________?
membrane
Capsule
nucleus
wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: membrane
Q.
A dentist suffred from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is_____________?
Healthy carrier
Paradoxical carrier
Inactive carrier
Convalscent carrier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Convalscent carrier
Q.
Sunlight acts as sterilizing agent because_________________?
Ozone
short wave lenght
Long wavelength
Heat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: short wave lenght
Q.
Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in______________?
9 weeks
4 weeks
12 weeks
2 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4 weeks
Q.
What is the sequence which a retro virus follows on entering a host cell ?
DNA-RNA
DNA-RNA-DNA
RNA -DNA-RNA
RNA-DNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: RNA -DNA-RNA
Q.
Nagglers reaction detects________________?
Coagulase
None of the above
Lecithinase
Hyaluronidase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Man is the only reservoir for_______________?
histolytica
Y. enterocolitica
Camphylobacter jejuni
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: histolytica
Q.
Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_________________?
Desmolase
Lecithinase
Theta toxin
Cytokinin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except___________________?
Though plasmids
Incorporating part of host DNA
through conjugation
Through bacteriophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is__________________?
Hepatitis vaccination
Immune blood transfusion
Placental transfer of antibodies
Gamma globulin injection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Placental transfer of antibodies
Q.
All are true about legionella pneumophilia except______________?
Person to person transmission
It can replicate in amoeba
Urine test is a reliable method
Aquatic bodies are main habitat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Person to person transmission
Q.
Smith noguchi
Klebsiella
Bacillus
Spirochetes
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
Tyndallisation is carried out for________________?
60 minutes
Three successive days
Two successive days
One day
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Three successive days
Q.
Prions true is____________?
Contains DNA/ RNA
Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Evokes strong immunogenic reaction
Sensitive to most chemical sterilization
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Q.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which of the following________________?
Plasma cells
Active T cells
B-cells
NK cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active T cells
Q.
All are oncogenic except________________?
Anopheles
Culex
Mansoni
Aedes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aedes
Q.
Which of the following viruses appears to be involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi
Human Herpes Virus 3
Human Herpes Virus 1
Human Herpes Virus 8
Human Herpes Virus 4
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Human Herpes Virus 4
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Vincent
Caused by leptospira interrogans
A symbiotic infection
Ulcerative gingivostomatitis
Caused due to malnutrition
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by leptospira interrogans
Q.
Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores can be achieved with_______________?
Grocott Gomori Methenamine silver
Peri-iodic Acid Schiff
Hematoxylin and Eosin
KOH wet mount
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: KOH wet mount
Q.
The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum ?
IgG1
IgG2
IgG4
IgG3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG1
Q.
Cytopathic effect is shown by_____________?
Virus
Anaerobe
Bacteria
Spirochete
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
Methods for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infection________________?
Wood light examination
Microscopic examination of skin scrapings
KOH staining
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Culture medium used for Bordatella pertussis is_________________?
Bile broth
Bordet Gengou medium
Robertson cooked meat medium
Wilson Blair medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bordet Gengou medium
Q.
Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_____________________?
antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis
only after one year
no antibodies are present in primary HSV
in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
Q.
Graft versus host reaction is caused by_________________?
T-lymphocytes
Monocytes
Leukocytes
B-Lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T-lymphocytes
Q.
Black pigmented anaerobes include all of the following except______________?
Porphyromonas
Tannerella
Prevotella
Buccae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Buccae
Q.
A protoplast is best characterized as a bacterial cell______________?
with a cell wall but free of a capsule
Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Uniquely sensitive to penicillin
containing a cell wall and a capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Q.
Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes______________?
Memory B cells
Cytotoxic T cells
NK Cells
B cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NK Cells
Q.
Grape bunch shaped colonies are seen in______________?
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Gonococci
E.coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staphylococcus
Q.
The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is_______________?
Hepatitis
EB virus
Adeno
Parvo virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parvo virus
Q.
Most antibodies are produced in the________________?
Thymus and the appendix
Heart and the liver
Brain and the meninges
Spleen and the lymph nodes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spleen and the lymph nodes
Q.
Post streptococcal acute glomerulo nephritis is an example of________________?
Type I hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type III hypersensitivity
Q.
Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups ?
Picorna viruses
Hepadana viruses
Flavi viruses
Herpes viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi viruses
Q.
Phase contrast microscopy is based on principle of__________________?
Different reflective indices of object
Light scattering
Different refractive indices of object
Light attenuation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Different refractive indices of object
Q.
The medium of choice for culturing yeast from of dimorphic fungi is_________________?
Sabouraud
Sabouraud
Any medium incubated at 35-37
Brain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
The diagnosis of gonorrhea is established by_____________?
Compliment fixation tests
All of the above tests
Haemagglutination tests
Pili agglutination tests
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above tests
Q.
Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to______________?
Hook worm
Guinea worm
Ascaris
Thread worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hook worm
Q.
Candida albicans causes all of the following except______________?
Oral thrush
Endocarditis
Meningitis
Mycetoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycetoma
Q.
CD4 count in normal healthy adult is_______________?
500
1000
200
300
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1000
Q.
A darkfield microscope would be useful in examining blood for_______________?
Mycobacterium
Actinomyces
Streptococcus
Treponema
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema
Q.
Immunoglobulins ar secreted by______________?
Plasma cells
Macrophages
T-cells
Neutrophils
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasma cells
Q.
Haptane is_______________?
Carrier required for specific antibody production
None of the above
High molecular protein
Same as epitopes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Carrier required for specific antibody production
Q.
Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by______________?
IgM antibodies in serum
Isolation from bile
Isolation form stool
Culture from blood
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM antibodies in serum
Q.
VDRL is a________________?
Tube flocculation test
Tube agglutination test
Slide flocculation test
Latex agglutination test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Slide flocculation test
Q.
One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is____________?
Supervision
Permutation
Viral interference
Mutation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Viral interference
Q.
The difference between gram positive and negative bacteria lies in their_______________?
Mesosomes
Nuclear material
cell wall
cell membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cell wall
Q.
The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are______________?
Gram positive organisms
Virus infections
Mycoplasma
Gram negative organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram negative organisms
Q.
Endotoxins differ from exotoxins in that endotoxins______________?
are proteins
are heat labile
activate complement by the alternate pathway
are highly antigenic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: activate complement by the alternate pathway
Q.
The Dane particle is the______________?
IgG anti HAV
HBV
HBC Ag
Delta Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBV
Q.
Tuberculin test screens for_____________?
Hemoral immunity
Complement function
Cell mediated immunity
Phagocyte dysfunction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell mediated immunity
Q.
Endoscopes are sterilized by using_______________?
Gamma radiation
Boiling
Cidex
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Boiling
Q.
One of the following statement about statements about sterilization is not true_______________?
Glass syringes ? Boiling at 169
Flash pasteurization of milk ? 72
Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Liquid paraffin ? Dry heat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Q.
Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?
Lipids
Polysaccharides
Proteins
Adjuvant
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteins
Q.
IgG antibodies have a half-life of approximately_______________?
1 hour
1 Month
1 week
1 day
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 Month
Q.
Exotoxins are____________________?
Lipoprotein
Lipid-polysaccharide complex
None
Protein compound
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein compound
Q.
Following is a retrovirus_____________?
Influenza
Polio virus
Immunodeficiency virus
Hepatitis virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immunodeficiency virus
Q.
The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement_________________?
IgG
IgM
IgA
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
The reaginic antibody is________________?
IgA
IgD
IgG
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Kaposi
Below 200
Between 1000-2000
Above 600
Above 2000
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Below 200
Q.
All are not true for cultivation of anaerobic organisms except_______________?
anaerobic jar
Incubator
Centrifuge
Refrigerator
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: anaerobic jar
Q.
Each of the following can cause food poisoning except________________?
Staphylococcus
Cl. difficile
Cl. botulinum
Cl. welchii
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. difficile
Q.
Which of the following does not go into chronic hepatitis stage ?
HEV
HCV
HBV
HDV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HEV
Q.
Physical sterilization was discovered by__________________?
John Hunter
Robert Koch
Joeph Lister
Alexander flemings
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Joeph Lister
Q.
Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito______________?
Merozoite
Sporozoite
Gametocyte
Zygote
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gametocyte
Q.
Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with_______________?
Giemsa stain
Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Kin Young stain
Ziel Nelson
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Q.
Which of the following are correctly matched ?
Antigenic stimulus given by vaccine (polio) is artificial active immunity
Injection of antibodies (Hepatitis) is artificially acquired passive immunity
Transfer of antibody from mother to child is through colostrum and acquired passive immunity naturally
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which is type II hypersensitivity ?
Delayed hypersensitivity
Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Immune complex mediated
Anaphylaxis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Q.
By using phase contrast microscope_______________?
Internal metabolic activities can be observed
External capsule formation can be observed
Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Internal structures are differentiated in dead cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Q.
One of the following is a treponemal test for diagnosis of syphilis_____________?
Wasserman test
Kahn test
FTAB
Widal test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: FTAB
Q.
Which of the following have the capability to produce extra cellular polysaccharides______________?
Strep. Mutans
Strep. pyogenes
Peptostreptococcus
Enterococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strep. Mutans
Q.
Opportunistic infection is caused by___________________?
Aspergillus
All of the above
Penicillium
Mucor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The minimum time required for the sterilization of surgical instruments by moist heat at 134
30 minutes
60 minutes
15 minutes
3 minutes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3 minutes
Q.
Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti_________________?
Causes filariasis
Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Body is slender and long
Terminal nuclei absent
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Q.
Granules in the corynebacterium diphtheria are called by following names, except______________?
Refractile granules
Voluntin granules
Babes Ernst granules
Metachromatic granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile granules
Q.
Neurotoxin of tetanus acts on______________?
Synapse
Brain
Muscle
Spinal card
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spinal card
Q.
Sporulation occurs in__________________?
Lag phase
Decline phase
Log phase
Stationary phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
True about HIV are all except______________?
DNA virus
Macrophages are the reservoir
Attacks CD4 cells
Decrease CD4 count in late stages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: DNA virus
Q.
IgG has subclasses_______________?
1
2
4
3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4
Q.
Anti HBsAB indicates______________?
Resistance to hepatitis B
Acute infection
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Good prognosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Good prognosis
Q.
Causative agents of Vincent
Borrelia burgoloferi and lactobacillus
Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Borrelia recurrents and bateroides
Leptospira and Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Q.
Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______________?
Atopic allergy
Contact dermatitis
Transfusion reaction
Serum sickness
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is________________?
Indirect hemagglutination
ELISA
Microscopy
Counter immune electroporesis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA
Q.
Test for differentiating virulent form non-virulent tubercular bacilli_____________?
Niacin test
Catalase peroxidase test
Neutral red test
Aryl sulphatase test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neutral red test
Q.
Rickettsiae__________________?
Respond to tetracycline therapy
All of the above
Transmitted by arthropod vectors
Multiply within living cell
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Virus is cultured in_______________?
Nonembryonated egg
Saubourd
Embryonated egg
Rogosa medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Embryonated egg
Q.
Disinfection frees the surface from______________?
Vegetative forms
Both of the above
None of the above
Spore forms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vegetative forms
Q.
Human immunoglobulins are divided based on_____________?
Structural differences
Complemented fixation
Functional differences
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Structural differences
Q.
Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to__________________?
Endotoxin
Capsule
Exotoxin
Invasion
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Exotoxin
Q.
Chemotactic cytokine is_________________?
IL-1
TNF
IL-6
IL-8
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IL-8
Q.
The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in vivo from one bacterium to another by_____________?
Transduction
Conjugation
Transformation
Rarefaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
The culture media for fungus is__________________?
NNN medium
Sabourauds medium
Chocolate agar medium
Tellurite medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabourauds medium
Q.
Immunoglobin, Which is produced first by the fetus in response to infection_______________?
IgM
IgD
IgA
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Which of the following is an enrichment medium________________?
Selenite F Broth
Nutrient Broth
Blood agar
Mac Conkey agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Selenite F Broth
Q.
What is the transport medium for cholera___________________?
B & C
Cary Blair Medium
Tellurite Medium
Venkatraman
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: B & C
Q.
A type of immediately occuring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called_____________?
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type I hypersensitivity
Q.
Same or closely related antigens present in different biological species are known as________________?
Heterophile antigens
Suquestrated antigens
Haptens
Isoantigens
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Heterophile antigens
Q.
One of the following is an agglutination test in the diagnosis of typhoid___________?
Widal test
Wasserman test
Mantoux test
Eleks test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
Sterilization is a process in which_________________?
Kill all pathogenic micro-organisms
Kill all non-pathogenic micro-organisms in the environment
Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Deactivate all pathogens not spores
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Q.
Human immune deficiency virus is ________________ virus?
Flavi
Retro
Rheo
Rhabdo
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Retro
Q.
A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned in to an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis______________?
Trichrome Methylene blue
Calcoflour White
Acid Fast Stain
Carbol Fuschin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trichrome Methylene blue
Q.
Half-life of free HIV in plasma is________________?
12 hours
6 hours
3 months
24 hours
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 6 hours
Q.
Among The infectious diseases transmitted by food, one is___________________?
Viral stomatitis
Typhoid fever
Tuberculosis
Diptheria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid fever
Q.
Moist heat kills all of the following EXCEPT_______________?
Mycobacterium
Salmonella
Brucella
Coxiella burnetti
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coxiella burnetti
Q.
The Ig found in exocrine secretions is_____________?
IgA
IgD
IgM
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Operation theatres are sterilized by_____________?
ETO gas
Formaldehyde fumigation
Washing with soap and water
Carbolic acid spraying
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Formaldehyde fumigation
Q.
Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci________________?
Staphylococcus
Micrococcus
Aerococcus
Sarcina
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sarcina
Q.
About Bacteroids True are all Except_______________?
Most common species is B fragilis
Present mainly in mixed infections
Susceptible to many antibiotics
Bile resistant anerobes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Susceptible to many antibiotics
Q.
Encapsulation in bacteria helps in__________________?
Prevent their phagocytosis
Oxygen effect
Spore formation
Decreased virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prevent their phagocytosis
Q.
In initial stages of tyhoid, salmonella can be detected in________________?
Blood
Feacus
All of the above
Urine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood
Q.
All of the following are true of streptococcus except_____________?
Most common is animals
Most common in humans
Shows adherence to dental enamel
It
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It
Q.
Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phase of the bacterial growth curve______________?
Decline
Lag
Exponential growth
Stationary phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
Viruses can be cultured in all except_______________?
Chick embryo
Blood agar
Cell culture
Guinea pigs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood agar
Q.
Kolmer test is a screening test done for_________________?
Tuberculosis
Lymphoma
Gonorrhea
Syphilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Function of T-lymphocyte is/are________________?
Production of interferon
Rosette formation
Lymphokine production
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The following are applicable to bacterial genoms except________________?
Its DNA has both introns and extrons
It doe not contain histones
It is circular
It is composed of DNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Q.
EBV causes all except_________________?
Infectious mononucleosis
Carcinoma of nasopharynx
Burkitt
Papilloma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma
Q.
Which of the following is not used as disinfectant________________?
1-2% cetrimide
5% chloroxylene
2% Lysol
100% alcohol
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 100% alcohol
Q.
Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by_______________?
M. chelonae
M. Kansasii
M. ulcerans
M. smegmatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. chelonae
Q.
All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except____________?
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis E
HIV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Which of the following correctly indicates the infectivity of hepatitis virus in human ?
HBCAg
HBeAg
Anti-HBS
Anti-HBC
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBeAg
Q.
In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except__________________?
Malabsorption
Hemolysis
Bone marrow depression
Spleen sequestration
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Malabsorption
Q.
Which of the following is not a pox virus ?
chicken pox
Molluscum contagiosum
Cowpox
Small pox
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: chicken pox
Q.
A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is______________?
India ink preparation
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Methanamine silver stain
Pyte-ferraco stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
Staphylococcal food poisoning includes the following features_______________?
Requires immediate antibiotics
Incubation period of 24 hours
Common with dairy products
Heat labile enterotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Common with dairy products
Q.
Causative organism for gas gangrene_______________?
Coli
Clostridium welchii
Strep. Faecalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Streptococcus is classified based on__________________?
Cell wall carbohydrate
Bile Solubility
Cultural characteristics
M Protein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall carbohydrate
Q.
compared with autoclave, use of a dry heat over for sterilization has the following disadvantages______________?
Time-consuming
Causes instruments to rust
Less effective
Causes sharp instruments to dull
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Time-consuming
Q.
Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces?
Flagella
Mesosomes
Capsule
Pili
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except_____________?
Salmonella typhi
Neisseria meningitides
Streptococcus pyogenes
Legionella pneumophila
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus pyogenes
Q.
The best sterilization method for a hand-piece is________________?
All of the above
chemical vapour
Ethylene oxide gas
dry heat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ethylene oxide gas
Q.
Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is____________?
Histidine rich proteins
Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Secretory IgA
Sialoperoxidase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Q.
Sleeping sickness is caused by_______________?
Reduvid bug
Tick
House fly
Sand fly
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reduvid bug
Q.
The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_____________?
Pilomatrixoma
Kerison
Tenia incognito
Alopecia areata
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kerison
Q.
Steam under pressure in used in ________ sterilization?
hot air oven
Pasteurization
Autoclave
Kochs sterilizer
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The small nonparticulate protein leading to enhanced replication of HBV as well as HIV is______________?
HBx Ag
HBs Ag
HBc Ag
Hbe Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBx Ag
Q.
T cells multiplication is stimulated by_______________?
Macrolin
Phytohaemagglutinin
Bovine serum
Heat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Phytohaemagglutinin
Q.
Bacteria reproduce mainly by______________?
Budding
Binary fission
Sporing
Bacterial components produced by host cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Binary fission
Q.
The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine doses not play a major role is______________?
Anaphylaxis
Asthma
Arthus reaction
Urticaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus reaction
Q.
Robertsons cooked meat medium is best suited for cultivation of_______________?
S. epidermidis
Clostridia
Mycobacterium
Choleria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridia
Q.
A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates________________?
Convalescence
Acute infection
Carrier state
Prodromal phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acute infection
Q.
Which of the following organisms does NOT react with gram
Candida albicans
Streptococcus mutan
Actinomyces israelii
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q.
Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins ?
IgG
IgM
IgA
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Disinfection of the rooms can be done by using_______________?
High efficiency particle arrestors
20% phenol
Chlorine gas
40% formaldehyde vapour
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 40% formaldehyde vapour
Q.
Negative staining is used to demonstrate________________?
Bacterial spore
Bacterial capsule
Bacterial fimbriae
Bacterial Flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacterial fimbriae
Q.
Which is not true about vibrio cholera_________________?
Grows on simple media
It is non-halophilic
Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Man is the only natural host
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Q.
Group A carbohydrate of Str. pyogenes cross reacts with human_________________?
Myocardium
Vascular intima
Synovial fluid
Cardiac valves
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiac valves
Q.
Pneumococus can be differentiated from streptococcus by________________?
Gram staining
Type of hemolysis
Growth characteristics
Bile solubility
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bile solubility
Q.
Phage conversion is required for________________?
Diptheria
All o f the above
Tularemia
Gonorrhoea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Diptheria
Q.
parasitic inflammation would show predominantly____________________?
Lymphocytes
Neutrophilis
Eosinophils
Basophils
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Eosinophils
Q.
Pseudohphae are seen in____________?
Aspergillus
Candida albicans
Alternaria
Osporium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?
Relapsing fever
Q fever
Trench fever
Epidemic typhus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Q fever
Q.
The causative organism of syphilis is___________?
Leptospira interrogans
Borrelia burgolorferi
Treponema pallidum
Chalamydia trachomatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema pallidum
Q.
Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except______________?
Ascaris lumbriocoides
Giardia lambia
Entamoeba
Strongyloides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strongyloides
Q.
Toxoids are_________________?
antigenic and non-toxic
antigenic and toxic
non-antigenic and non-toxic
non-antigenic and toxic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: antigenic and non-toxic
Q.
Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000_________________?
J piece
L chain
Secretory piece
H chain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: H chain
Q.
IL-1 is produced by_________________?
Macrophages
Helper B cells
Helper T cells
Monocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Macrophages
Q.
In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by_____________?
Urine culture
Blood culture
Widal test
Stool culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except__________________?
Found exclusively in human beings.
Most common cause of urethritis is male
All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Q.
Pigs are important source of_____________?
Yellow fever
Kuru
Japanese encephalitis
Rabies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Japanese encephalitis
Q.
A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains and haemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism ?
Bile solubility
Optochin sensitivity
Bacitracin sensitivity
Cataslase positive
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacitracin sensitivity
Q.
Organ of locomotion in bacteria is________________?
Fimbria
Flagella
Capsule
Cell wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flagella
Q.
All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except______________?
Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide
Colony morphology on saliva agar
Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital
Gram staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram staining
Q.
Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in______________?
Ascariasis
Ascariasis and tapeworm
Hood worm
Tapeworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ascariasis
Q.
Bacteria with tuft of flagella at one end are called_______________?
Bipolar
Monotrichate
Peritrichate
Lophotrichate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lophotrichate
Q.
Certain viruses have been isolated in crytalline form and have been found to be_____________?
Scleroproteins
Nucleotides
Nucleoproteins
Phospholipids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleoproteins
Q.
Fungal infection of human beings is called as_____________?
Fungosis
Mycosis
Mucorsis
Micromia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycosis
Q.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa_________________?
Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.
Produces heat stable enterotoxin
Causes Shangai fever
Does not produce any pigment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Causes Shangai fever
Q.
The world german measles is applied for_____________?
Rubeola
Herpes simplex
Herpetic ginglvostomatitis
Rubella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Which of the following provides best gurantee for sterlization in the heat sterilizer ?
Determining the ability of a sterilizer to kill the hepatitis B virus
Using chemical indicator strip or pouch
Using a bacterial spore test
Recording a temperature/ pressure readings from sterilizer guage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Using a bacterial spore test
Q.
Active artificial immunization is induced by the administration of all of the following EXCEPT______________?
Antitoxins
Bacterial products
Toxoids
Vaccines
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antitoxins
Q.
Plaque test is used routinely in virology lab
To prepare vaccines
Identification of viral disease
To separate specific clone of virus
To maintain certain viral culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Identification of viral disease
Q.
The commonest method of detection of diptheria carriers is_______________?
Schick test
Charles
Casoni
Dick test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Schick test
Q.
Most common tumor associated with AIDS is______________?
Kaposi
Carcinoma
Melanoma
Ewing
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kaposi
Q.
Which of the following is a RNA virus ?
Measles virus
Herpes Virus
Papavo virus
Adeno virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
A 6 year old boy comes with abdominal pain, vomiting after consuming mild products within 6 hours. The most likely organism responsible is______________?
Salmonella
B.Cereus
Clostridium botulinum
Staph. aureus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staph. aureus
Q.
The medium of choice for growing most fungi is_______________?
Sabouraud
Tissue culture
Blood agar
Thioglycollate medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
Hydatid cyst is__________________?
Parasitic in nature
Fungal
Viral
Congenital
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parasitic in nature
Q.
Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called______________?
Chemotaxis
De coding
Opsonisation
CFT
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Opsonisation
Q.
The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is___________________?
5%
15%
10%
2%
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2%
Q.
Selective media for MYCOBACTERIUM _____________?
Lowenstein Jensen medium
Sabourauds medium
Agar
Loefflers serum slope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lowenstein Jensen medium
Q.
A sporangium contains_______________?
Oidia
Spherules
porangiospores
Chlamydospores
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: porangiospores
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria can be cultured in__________________?
Robertson cooked meat medium
Loefflers medium
L-J medium
Sabourauds agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robertson cooked meat medium
Q.
All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except________________?
The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides
Cysts are 8 nucleated
Cysts are 4 nucleated
Trophozoites colonise in the colon
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cysts are 8 nucleated
Q.
Gram -ve bacteria stain during gram staining____________?
Red color
Colorless
Green
Blue color
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Red color
Q.
The optimal time and temperature required for sterilization in an autoclave is___________________?
121
121
140
121
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 121
Q.
Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus ?
Focal epithelial hyperplasia
Verruca vulgaris
Keratoacanthoma
Condyloma acuminatum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Keratoacanthoma
Q.
IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by______________?
Activated macrophages
Plasma cells
Platelet
Lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Activated macrophages
Q.
The major intestinal pathogens which are non-lactose fermenters are_________________?
Klebsiella
Escherichia
Paracolons
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salmonella
Q.
Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by________________?
ELISA
Culture
DNA probe
Direct microscopy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Culture
Q.
Which component of the cell wall is responsible________________?
Region II
Region I
Boivin antigen
Region III
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Region III
Q.
In patients with asthma due to an allergic cause the serum levels of which immunoglobulin increase____________________?
IgD
IgE
IgM
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Which regards to temperature requirement, most pathogenic bacteria are_____________?
Mesophiles
Cryophiles
Psychrophiles
Thermophiles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mesophiles
Q.
Negative phase is seen in ________ immunity?
Herd
Active
Passive
Local
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active
Q.
Bacterial cell does not possess___________________?
dna
Cell wall
Ribosome
Mitochondria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mitochondria
Q.
Australian antigen is_______________?
HB Ag
None of the above
HBs AG
HBV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBs AG
Q.
Which does not have a viral etiology______________?
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Hepatoma
Carcinoma Cervix
Lymphoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Endotoxins are produced by________________?
Gram +ve bacteria
Gram -ve bacteria
Fungi
Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram -ve bacteria
Q.
EBV is responsible for all except______________?
Infectious mononucleosis
Burkitt
Hepatoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Complement factor through which common pathway begins___________________?
C5
C3
C2
Protein B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C3
Q.
Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is___________________?
Lungs
Brain
Liver
Spleen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Liver
Q.
The time gap between appearance of Koplik
10 days
3-4 days
2 weeks
24 Hrs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3-4 days
Q.
CD4 cells recognize the antigens in association with_____________?
MHC I
MHC II
MHC III
B-cell receptor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: MHC II
Q.
Each of the following viruses possesses an outer lipoprotein envelope except_____________?
Varicella Zoster Virus
Influenza Virus
Papilloma Virus
Human immunodeficiency virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma Virus
Q.
Mark true in following ?
Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
None of the above
Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Q.
First released immunoglobulin after primary immunization_______________?
IgG
IgD
IgE
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is_________________?
Neisseria gonorrhea
Escherichia coli
T-strain mycoplasma
Streptococcus fecalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Escherichia coli
Q.
Black water fever is caused by______________?
Plasmodium falciparum
Microfilaria
Leishmania donovani
Plasmodium vivax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______________?
Sickle
Dot
Comma
Banana
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sickle
Q.
Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____________?
1 week
6 months
3 months
6 week
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 week
Q.
About Psedomonas. All are true except________________?
Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Strick aerobes
Most common organism is burn patient
Can grow in disinfectants in hospital
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except_______________?
Through plasmids
Through conjugation
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through bacteriophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____________?
6,8,11
3,10,19
Type 6,12,18
16,18,31
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 16,18,31
Q.
Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except_______________?
Chemically defined media
Embryonated eggs
Animals
Tissue culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chemically defined media
Q.
Type of receptor present on T-cells are__________________?
Ig G
CD4
Ig A
Prostaglandins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4
Q.
All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_____________?
Refractile nucleus
Glycogen mass
Chromatid bars
Eccentric nucleus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile nucleus
Q.
Leprosy bacilli can be grown in_________________?
Tail of guinea pig
Testes of albino rats
Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Testes of guinea pig
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Q.
Group A B-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the pharynx may be followed in some by_____________?
Diphtheria
Typhoid fever
Syphilis
Rheumatic fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatic fever
Q.
Secretory Ig is_______________?
IgD
IgA
IgE
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Which of the following viruses does not infect salivary glands ?
Hepatitis C
Echo virus
Orthomyxovirus
HIV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxovirus
Q.
Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following________________?
All of the above
Salk vaccine
Sabin
Tetanus toxoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salk vaccine
Q.
True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by_______________?
Cow
Rats
Dogs
cats
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cats
Q.
Candidal hyphae can be stained using_______________?
Masson Trichrome stain
Periodic acid schiff stain
Van Gieson
Toluidine blue stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Periodic acid schiff stain
Q.
The prototype of Type II hypersensitivity reaction is__________________?
Arthus reaction
Auto immune hemolytic anemia
SLE
Contact dermatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Q.
The earliest identifiable cells of T-Cell lineage during maturation are_______________?
CD5+ Pre-T-Cells
CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
CD8+ Pro-T-Cells
CD8+ Pre-T-Cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
Q.
Dengue virus belongs to______________?
Togaviridae
Reoviridae
Flavi virus
Rhabdoviridae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi virus
Q.
T cell matures in______________?
Thymus
Payers patch
Lymph node
Busra of Fabricius
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thymus
Q.
The presence of Which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility ?
Lipids
Enzymes
Protein coat
Polysaccharide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein coat
Q.
Wasserman test test is diagnostic of__________________?
Syphilis
TB
Gonorrhea
Tyhoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Glasswares are sterilised by______________?
Hot air oven
Autoclaving
Incineration
Formaldehyde
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by which of the following_____________?
All of the above
Ethanol
Boiling
Cidex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affets_______________?
Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Red blood cells
Mast cells
Fibroblasts
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Q.
Which of the following enzyme is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot pathogenic staphylococci_____________?
Lysozyme
Coagulase
S protein
Fibrinolysin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coagulase
Q.
Secondary response is mediated by_______________?
IgE
IgG
IgM
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Bacterial species which is protective or beneficial to the host is_______________?
Spirochetes
Treponema denticola
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Streptococcus sanguis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus sanguis
Q.
Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve________________?
Jejunum and Ileum
Duodenum
Stomach
Caecum and large intestine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caecum and large intestine
Q.
A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents________________?
Auto
Xeno
Allo
ISO
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Allo
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical mycobacteria by______________?
AFB staining
Pas staining
Niacin test
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Niacin test
Q.
The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by____________?
Conjugation
Cell fusion
Transduction
Translation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
Sterilisation control for moist heat is
Using chemical indicator
using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Using non-pathogenic strain of clostridium tetani
Using methylene blue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Q.
Complement binding immunoglobin via the classical pathway is_______________?
IgD & IgE
IgG & igM
IgG & IgA
IgG & IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG & igM
Q.
Commonest mycobacterial infection in tropical countries_______________?
M. leprae
M. avium intracellulare
M. tuberculosis
Kansasi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. tuberculosis
Q.
Sterilisation is______________?
Only pathogenic micro-organisms killed
All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Pathogens killed but spores are not affected
Non-pathogenic killed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Q.
Killer and Helper cells are part of_______________?
B cells
Macrophage
T cells
Monocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T cells
Q.
Bacteriophage was discovered by_________________?
Menkin
Robert koch
Metchinkoff
Twort and d
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Twort and d
Q.
Growth factor needed for Salmonella_________________?
B-12
Citrate
Tryptophan
Niacin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Tryptophan
Q.
Louis Pasteur is not associated with_______________?
Discovery of Rabies Vaccine
Disproved spontaneous regression theory
Introduction of complex media
Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Q.
Synthesis of antibodies in plasma cells occurs in_________________?
Golgi body
Endoplasmic reticulum
Nucleus
Mitochondria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.
Leishmania is cultured in ________________ media?
Sabourauds
Tellurite
Chocolate agar
NNN
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NNN
Q.
Purpose of Sterilization is to eliminate________________?
Viruses
Bacteria
Spore formers
Fungus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spore formers
Q.
The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to_____________?
Dehydrate microbial cells
Inhibit microbial growth
Kill mircobes
Remove microbes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Remove microbes
Q.
The only virus, which has double stranded RNA, is______________?
Rhabdo virus
Calci virus
Reo virus
Bunya virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reo virus
Q.
Culture media of candida is_________________?
All of the above
Pingolevin
Saboraud
Methylene blue dextrose agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saboraud
Q.
L.D bodies are seen in_______________?
Toxoplasmosis
Kalahazar
Sleeping sickness
Malaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kalahazar
Q.
Schuffner
Plasmodium malariae
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium vivax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium vivax
Q.
Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus infection during window period ?
HBs Ag
None of the above
IgM anti
Anti HBs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM anti
Q.
Delhi boil refer to_______________?
L. Tropica sore
Malignant pustule
Solar Keratosis
Venereal ulcer
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: L. Tropica sore
Q.
Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except________________?
Failure to thrive
Have infections
50% chances to have AIDS
All are true
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 50% chances to have AIDS
Q.
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to_______________?
Histiocytes
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
Monocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T lymphocytes
Q.
The cell wall deficient bacteria_______________?
Mycoplasma
Chlamydiae
Rickettsiae
Ehrlichiae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycoplasma
Q.
Pasteur developed the vaccine for_______________?
All of the above
Rabies
Anthrax
Cholera
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Borrelia vincenti is always associated with______________?
None of the above
Treponema vincenti
Spirochaetes
Fusiform bacilli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fusiform bacilli
Q.
The Manufacturing unit of surgical needle & sutures are sterilized by ________________?
Gamma-Rays
Autoclaving
Boiling
X-Rays
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma-Rays
Q.
Glutaraldehyde is preferred more than formaldehyde because______________?
Its application is easier
It has got more bactericidal activity
It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
It has got more bacteriostatic activity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Q.
The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is_____________?
Sabourad
Chocolate agar
Robertoson
Chorio allantoic membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chorio allantoic membrane
Q.
Rh incompatibility is which type of hyper sensitivity reaction ?
Type III
Type II
Type IV
Type I
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Silver impregnation method of staining is useful to demonstrate_____________?
Both of the above
Spirochetes
None of the above
Bacterial flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both of the above
Q.
Which of the following would you consider to be general properties of viruses______________?
New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses
Contain DNA but no RNA
Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids
Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Q.
Dematophytes are fungi infecting________________?
Superficial skin and deep tissue
Nails, hair and skin
Subcutaneous tissue
Systemic organs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nails, hair and skin
Q.
Chlamydia causes all of the following except________________?
Parotitis
Non-gonococcal urethritis
Trachoma
Pneumonia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parotitis
Q.
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (SSS syndrome) is due to______________?
Enterotoxin D
Enterotoxin F
Enterotoxin B
Enterotoxin A
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterotoxin F
Q.
Leprosy bacilli are transmitted from person to person by all except______________?
Through breast milk
Dischange from nasal mucosa
From open sore
Through intact skin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Through breast milk
Q.
ASO (Antistreptolysin 0) test is uesd for the diagnosis of________________?
Typhoid fever
Rheumatie fever
Rheumatoid arthritis
Rickettsial fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatie fever
Q.
Actinomycetes is______________?
Gram positive bacteria
Fungus
Gram negative bacteria
A yeast like form
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is_____________?
Eosin stain
Blue stain
Haemotoxin stain
Ninhydrin stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ninhydrin stain
Q.
Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by_____________?
Virus
Parasite
Bacteria superadded on virus
Bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
The term animalcules to oral microorganisms is given by__________________?
Robertson
Wd miller
Socranci
Leumenhoek
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leumenhoek
Q.
Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly_______________?
Skin
Lung
Nasal mucosa
Gastrointestinal tract
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gastrointestinal tract
Q.
Phospholipid used to investigate syphilis by the reagin test is________________?
Palmityl lecithin
Plasminogen
Cardiolipin
Serine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiolipin
Q.
Cleavage of IgG molecule by Papin gives rise to:One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments_______________?
One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Two Fc fragments and two Fab fragments
Two Fc fragment and one Fab fragment
One Fc fragment and four Fab fragments
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Q.
Following reaction are produced by heterophil antigens except_____________?
Widal reaction
Paul bunnel reaction
Weil-Felix reaction
Forssman antigen antibody reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal reaction
Q.
The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______________?
IgG
IgD
IgE
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV irradiation_______________?
Inorganic salts
Lipids
Carbohydrates
Nucleic acids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleic acids
Q.
Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by________________?
Dextran
Epithelial cells
Bacteria
Sucrose
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dextran
Q.
The anaphylaxis should be treated first with_____________?
Epinephrine
Anti histamines
Antibiotics
Steroids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epinephrine
Q.
Dorset
Staphylococcus
Gonococcus
Mycobacterium
Streptococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best demonstrated by_________________?
PAS stain
H & E stain
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Gram
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Q.
The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is______________?
Borrelia vincenti
Treponema pallidum
Treponjema pertenue
Borrelia burgdorferi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti
Q.
Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is ________________?
Penicillium
Mucor
Aspergillus
Rhizopus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus
Q.
Best method of sterilizing disposable syringes_______________?
Boiling
Gamma rays
U.V. rays
Hot air oven
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma rays
Q.
Anaphylaxis refers to the________________?
Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens
Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________________?
Basidiomycetes yeast
Melanin production related to virulence
Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Causes meningitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Q.
The Process of attenuation can be achieved by all except___________________?
Growing bacteria in unconventional host
Growing bacteria in adverse environment
Repeated cultures in artificial media
Serial passage in an experimental host
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serial passage in an experimental host
Q.
Probiotic organism used_________________?
Salmonella
E coli
Bifido bacteria
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bifido bacteria
Q.
Staphylococcus does not causes_______________?
Abscess
Osteomyelitis
Pneumonia
Scarlet fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Scarlet fever
Q.
Oil and Grease are sterilized by________________?
Hot air oven
Irradiation
Ethylene dioxide
Auto claving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Most sensitive test for antigen detection is_______________?
ELISA
Radioimmuno Assay
Immunoflourescence
Passive hemaglutination
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Radioimmuno Assay
Q.
Antigen combining site of the antibody is____________________?
Paratope
Hapten
Idiotope
Epitope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Paratope
Q.
The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______________?
Induration
Necrosis
Erythema
Vasculitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythema
Q.
The most common site where organisms are present in a typhoid carrier is______________?
Spleen
Liver
Salivary gland
Gall Bladder
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gall Bladder
Q.
Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause foetal defect ?
Mumps
Papilloma
Rubella
Herpes Simplex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Babu, a 28 year old male comes with compaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by____________?
ELISA
Lymph node biopsy
P24 antigen
Western blot
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: P24 antigen
Q.
The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is ________________?
lecithinase production
Coagulase production
hypersensitivity
exotoxin production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: hypersensitivity
Q.
In T.B cell mediated immunity is by_______________?
B
CD 8*
CD 4*
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD 4*
Q.
Australia antigen is associated with________________?
Basal cell carcinoma
Chronic leukemia
AIDS
Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Q.
Incubation pariod of herpes zoster is________________?
1-2 years
1 months
7-14 days
3-6 months
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 7-14 days
Q.
Salmonella typhi can be isolated at different times from______________?
Blood
All of the above
Urine
Feaces
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which of the following antibacterial substance is present in eggs and saliva ?
Lysozyme
Isozyme
Albumin
Secretozyme
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysozyme
Q.
Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection_________________?
Isopora belli
Balantidium coli
Giardia lambella
Taenia solium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Taenia solium
Q.
Electron microscopic examination of the bacterial flora of necrotising ulcerative gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are______________?
Cocci
Bacteriophages
Spirochetes
Filamentous rods
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
The most frequently encountered clostridial species in gas gangrene is______________?
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium welchii
Clostridium tetani
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Q fever is caused by________________?
R. prowozekii
C. burnetti
Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
R. quintana
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C. burnetti
Q.
Mesophilic organisms are those that grow best at temperature of______________?
55
-7
-20
25
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 25
Q.
An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry cough, sputum culture showed growth on charcoal yeast Extract Medium, theorganism is______________?
Burkholderia cepacia
H. influenza
Legionella
Moraxella catarrhalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Legionella
Q.
Techoic acid is present in_____________?
Cytoplasm of Gram negative organisms
Cell wall of Gram negative organisms
Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram positive organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Q.
Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?
Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously
The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission
Causes positive Nagler reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Q.
Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by_________________?
Hookworm
Dog tapeworm
Fish tapeworm
Threadworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fish tapeworm
Q.
Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?
Prions
Mycobacteria
Spore
Coccidia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prions
Q.
Blood agar is________________?
Differential media
Transport media
Simple media
Enriched media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enriched media
Q.
Signs of tyhoid fever is/are_____________________?
Haemorrhage
perforation
Osteomyelitis
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by ___________________?
Cryptococcus
Candida albicans
Aspergillus
Mucor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction______________?
Proteus
Staphylococcus
Haemophilus
E.coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?
Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Immediately wash wound with soap and water
Give ARV
Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Q.
One of the following is a zoonotic disease_____________?
Cholera
Anthrax
Bacillary dysentery
Typhoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anthrax
Q.
Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of______________?
Whooping cough
Malaria
Wool sorters disease
Gas gangrene
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gas gangrene
Q.
Which of the following is a live vaccine_____________?
Hepatitis
17 D
HDCV
Salk
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HDCV
Q.
The function of IgD is______________?
Localization protection in external secretion
Antigen recognition by B cells
Reagin activity
Compliment activation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antigen recognition by B cells
Q.
The following statement is true regarding fungal infection__________________?
Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man
albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals
Candida infection is usually endogenous
Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida infection is usually endogenous
Q.
One of the following staining methods is an example of negative staining_______________?
Zheil-Neilson
Fontana
Gram
India ink preparation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
All are true about widel test except________________________?
O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Base lines differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative
H antigen cannot differentiate between subtypes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Q.
The virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhea include all of the following except____________?
IgA Protease
Outer membrane proteins
M-Proteins
Pili
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M-Proteins
Q.
Characteristic feature of retrovirus is_____________?
Reverse transcriptase
Ribonuclease
Restriction endonuclease
DNA polymerase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reverse transcriptase
Q.
Serum sickness syndrome is an example of________________?
Cell-mediated immunity
Angioneurotic edema
Anaphylactic
Systemic arthus reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Systemic arthus reaction
Q.
The Window period in HIV infection means______________?
None of the above
The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab
The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
Q.
Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to________________?
Increase antigenicity
Increase toxigenicity
reduce the toxigenicity
Reduce the antigenicity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increase antigenicity
Q.
Which of the following is true about amoebic liver disease ?
Non-suppurative form is the serious form of extra intestinal amoebiasis
Portal system is the main filtration system
Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Left lobe of liver is commonly involved
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Q.
Teichoic acid is present in cell walls of_________________?
Protozoa
Yeast
Gram negative bacteria
Gram positive bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Grave
Type IV
Type III
Type I
Type II
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Madura mycosis produces______________?
Red granules
White to yellow granules
No granules
Brown to black granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: White to yellow granules
Q.
A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?
Bartonella spp
Pasturella spp
Francisella spp
Brucella spp
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Brucella spp
Q.
Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a_______________?
Western Blot
RIPA
Immunodot
ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Western Blot
Q.
Rabies virus________________?
Neurotropic
Chromophilic
Cytotropic
Dermatotropic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neurotropic
Q.
Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is_______________?
IgE
IgG
IgM
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
B.C.G untrue is_____________?
All of the above
Orally administered
T.B vaccine
live vaccine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orally administered
Q.
In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a_______________?
Hapten
Super antigen
Carrier
Toxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hapten
Q.
Thread worm is______________?
Enterobius
Ancylostoma
Ascaris
Necator
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterobius
Q.
Endotoxin have all but one of the properties given below_______________?
Produced by gram positive bacteria
Produced by gram negative bacteria
Cannot be toxoided
Not secreted outside the cell
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Produced by gram positive bacteria
Q.
The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is___________?
Detection of coagulase
Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes
The catalase test
Mannitol fermentation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Detection of coagulase
Q.
Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus is due to ________________________?
Lack of nucleic acid in the cell wall
Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Pleomorphism
Penicillin analogue production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Q.
Influenza is caused by_____________?
Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Q.
Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is_________________?
2:1
1:2
1:3
3:1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2:1
Q.
On a stained slide, clostridium tetani has the appearance of a__________________?
Chain of beads
Drum stick
Bunch of a
Safely pin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Drum stick
Q.
Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine ?
Tuberculosis (BCG)
Varicella Zoster virus
Cholera
Typhoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cholera
Q.
which of the following is anaerobic_______________?
Bacteroides
Pseudomonas
Klebsiella
E.coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacteroides
Q.
Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstratig________________?
Cysts in the intestine
Trophozoites in the feces
Trophozoites in the pus
Cysts in the sterile pus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites in the pus
Q.
The urine sample of a patient has been sent to the laboratory to look for Leptospira. The specimen is to be screened by use of the__________________?
Scanning microscope
Dark ground microscope
Inverted microscope
Electron microscope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dark ground microscope
Q.
Function of Ig A is________________?
Kills virus infected cells
Activates macrophages
Circulating antibody
Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Q.
Aflatoxins are produced by________________?
Aspergillus flavus
All of the above
Aspergillus niger
Aspergillus fumigatus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus flavus
Q.
The chemotactic factor is______________?
C5a
C3b
C2a
C4a
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C5a
Q.
Characters of exotoxin include all, except_______________?
Has specific tissue affinity
Highly potent
Heat labile
Protein polysaccharide complex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein polysaccharide complex
Q.
Leptospirosis, all are true except______________?
Incubation period is 10 days
Onset of IgM in 2 days
It is sensitive to penicillin
Faeces & urine of rodents is the cause
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Onset of IgM in 2 days
Q.
Which of the following belongs to cell fraction derived vaccine______________?
Mumps
Hepatitis B
Rubella
Measles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B
Q.
The killer cells are associated with immunologic response___________________?
Type III
Type I
Type II
Type IV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
The term epitope refers to________________?
Smallest antigenic determinant
Hapten
complete antigen molecule
Immunogen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Smallest antigenic determinant
Q.
Drumstick appearance is seen in______________?
Cl. tetani
Cl. sphenoids
Cl. tetanomorphum
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. tetani
Q.
The commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercie bacilli________________?
Congo red
Auramine and Rhodamine
Thioglavin
Acridine orange
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine and Rhodamine
Q.
Common name for Trichuris trichura________________?
Whip worm
Tape worm
Round worm
Seat woman
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Whip worm
Q.
Herpes virus_____________?
Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane
Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane
Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Q.
The specific test for Treponema pallidum is___________?