Here is the completely updated `question.php`.
I added the missing `$breadcrumbs` array and defined `$category_name` and `$topic_name` right before the header is included. This ensures that `header.php` generates the correct Breadcrumb Schema, page title, and meta description for single question pages.
Replace your entire `question.php` with this:
```php
TOP Microbiology MCQS Questions
Q.
Bacterial spores are destroyed by_______________?
Autoclave
Disinfection by hypochlorite solution
Boiling at 100
Pasteurisation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The interaction of antigens with antibodies on the surface of a mast cel leads to degranulation and anaphylaxis. The mast cell granules produce anaphylaxis because they contain________________?
Vasoactive mediators
Lysosomes
Lymphotoxins
Proteolytic enzymes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vasoactive mediators
Q.
Bacteria with potent exotoxin is_______________?
Shigella
Klebsiella
Clostridium tetani
Pseudomonas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani
Q.
True about prions________________?
Viruses which are genetically deficient
Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Q.
The best skin disinfectant is________________?
Alcohol
None of the above
Savlon
Chlorhexdine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chlorhexdine
Q.
Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates_____________?
Simple carriers
Late convalescence
Carrier status
High infectivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: High infectivity
Q.
The facultative anaerobic bacteria are those who are_______________?
Able to grow in the presence of carbon dioxide
Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Unable to grow in the presence of oxygen
Unable to grow in the absence of oxygen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Q.
A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?
Plasmodium malaria
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Erysipelas is caused by________________?
Group B staphylococci
Group A steptococci
Pneumococci
Gonococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B staphylococci
Q.
True about immune response of hepatitis B is__________________?
Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Antibody to HBC is not protective
CMI disappears soon after recover
Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Q.
Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria______________?
Lowenstein Jensen Medium
Saborauds agar
Loefflers serum slope
Mc Conkey
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Loefflers serum slope
Q.
A full course of immunization agianst. Telanus with 3 doses to Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how many years ?
15
10
20
5
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 10
Q.
Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?
ELISA followed by western blot technique
Polymers chain reaction
Western blot followed by ELISA
Virus isolation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA followed by western blot technique
Q.
Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-5m in size, multi-septate, chestnut, brown color is characteristic of________________?
Histoplasmosis
Rhinosporodiosis
Phaeohypomycosis
Chromoblastomycosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chromoblastomycosis
Q.
The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell
Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Haemagglutination inhibition test
Haemagglutination test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Q.
An oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod which produces a bluish-green pigment has been grown in culture from a swab obtained from an infected burn wound. This organism is susceptible to gentamicin, ticarcillin and tobramicin, but resistant to all the other antibiotics which of the following organisms is it likely to be ?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Proteus miribilis
Klebsiella pnemoniae
Escherichia coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q.
Exaltation is________________?
None
No change
Increased Virulence
Decreased virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increased Virulence
Q.
Which of the following is not true of boiling water_____________?
Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
It can kill hepatitis B virus
Can kill vegetative bacterial cells
Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Q.
The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is_______________?
IgD
IgM
IgG
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Germ tubes are formed mainly by_______________?
Candida stellatoidea
Candida tropicalis
Candida pseudotropicalls
Candida albicans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
The best method of sterilization of dressing powder is_____________?
Autoclaving
Hot air oven
Inspissation
Tyndallization
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with______________?
Lysozyme
IgM antibodies
IgA antibodies
Mast cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA antibodies
Q.
Loss of capsule in bacteria is generally associated with______________?
Inability to spread through tissue
Loss of infectivity
increase in invasiveness
Decease in virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Decease in virulence
Q.
Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify______________?
Rickettsiae
Mycoplasma
Spirochaetes
Chlamydiae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochaetes
Q.
Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_____________?
Aspergilosis
Candidiasis
Tuberculosis
Cryptococcosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candidiasis
Q.
Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans_________________?
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Hot air oven is used for sterilization of all EXCEPT__________________?
Glassware
Liquid paraffin
Rubber tubes
Sharp instrument
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubber tubes
Q.
Which worm is longest________________?
Hook worm
A. Lumbricoides
T. Saginata
T. Solium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T. Saginata
Q.
Malignant pustule is referred to_________________?
Facio-cervical actinomycosis
Cutaneous anthrax
Infected squamous cell carcinoma
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cutaneous anthrax
Q.
In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started________________?
Rabies
Poliomyelitis
Herpes
Influenza
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabies
Q.
True about VDRL test________________?
All of the above
Best followed for drug therapy
Non
Slide flocculation test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is_____________?
Hepatitis A virus
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
Lancefields classification of B hemolytic streptococcus is based on______________?
Type of lipid in cell membrane
M Protein
Polysaccharide C antigen
Physiological properties
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Polysaccharide C antigen
Q.
Virulence of Gonococcus is due to___________________?
Cytolytic enzymes
Cell Membrane
Pili
Its intracellular location
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
Which of the following fulfil all the criterias of kich
Mycobacterium leprae
None of the above
N. gonorrhoeae
Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: None of the above
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria grow_______________?
in the presence of oxygen
differential media
in the presence of nitrogen
in the absence of oxygen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in the absence of oxygen
Q.
Which of the following is an acid-fast bacillus_____________?
Treponema pallidum
All of the above
Mycobacterium bacilli
Neisseria gonorrhea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium bacilli
Q.
Which of the following is obligate aerobe ?
diphtheria
Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Proteus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Q.
Malaria pigment is________________?
Haemoglobin
Bilurubin
Iron
Haematin-globin pigment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haematin-globin pigment
Q.
The key cell types involved in the acquired immunity include all EXCEPT________________?
Erythrocytes
T lymphocytes
B lymphocytes
Antigen presenting cells (APC
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythrocytes
Q.
Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor_____________?
M protein
Pyrogenic exotoxin
Carbohydrate cell wall
Streptolysin 0
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pyrogenic exotoxin
Q.
The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as_____________?
Epitope
Clone
Paratope
Idiotope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epitope
Q.
Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose_______________?
Anaphylaxis
Serum sickness
Arthus reaction
Contact dermatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Immunoglobulin consists of________________?
1 heavy, 2 light chains
2 light, 2 heavy chains
3 light, 1 heavy chain
1 light, 1 heavy chain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2 light, 2 heavy chains
Q.
Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in________________?
Chick embryos
Rabbit testis only
Artificial media
Tissue culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabbit testis only
Q.
Which of the following characteristics of bacteria is not true?
Cell wall containing muramic acid
Free living
Unicellular
Having either DNA or RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Having either DNA or RNA
Q.
A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT________________?
Linezolid
Teichoplanin
Vancomycin
Imipenem
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Imipenem
Q.
The overall effect of HIV is to gradually impair the immune system by interference with______________?
Macrophages
Plasma cells
Natural killer cells
Helper T lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes
Q.
Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?
Core antibody
Core antigen
Surface antigen
Surface antibody
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Surface antigen
Q.
Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies_____________?
Rabies
Chicken pox
Measles
Small pox
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles
Q.
Prozone phenomenon is due to______________?
Excess antigen
Disproportionate antigen antibody levels
Hyper immune reaction
Excess antibody
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Excess antibody
Q.
Actinomycosis is a_________________?
Aerobic bacterial disease
Anaerobic fungal disease
Anaerobic bacterial disease
Aerobic fungal disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic bacterial disease
Q.
HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except________________?
Blood transmission
Sexual intercourse
Needle prick injury
Saliva
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saliva
Q.
Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_______________?
Complex multiplication
Presence of either DNA or RNA
All of the above
Simple structure
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
False +ve for VDRL is seen in______________?
Yaws
All of the above
Malaria
Lepromatous Leprosy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Most fungi of medical importance belongs to__________________?
Zygomycetes
Deuteromycetes
Ascomycetes
Basidiomycetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deuteromycetes
Q.
Most of the drug resistances occurs due to_____________?
Transformation
Transduction
conjugation
Mutation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: conjugation
Q.
The bacterial cell wall has all of the following properties except______________?
It contains D-isomers of amino acids
It is the structure principally responsible for the reaction of gram staining
It is a unique flexible plastic structure
It consists of a mixed polymer called peptidoglycon
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It is a unique flexible plastic structure
Q.
The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is_____________?
Tuberculosis
Apthous stomatitis
Herpetic gingivostomatitis
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Q.
Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in which of the following viruses_____________?
HIV
Pox virus
Measles virus
Hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is______________?
Donovania granulomatis
Chlamydia trachomatis
Bartonella henselae
Hemophilia ducreya
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bartonella henselae
Q.
Which of the following is not a feature of anaphylaxis ?
None of the above
Delayed reaction
passive transfer by serum
Immediate reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Delayed reaction
Q.
DNA covering material in a virus is called as________________?
Capsomere
Nucleocapsid
Capsid
Envelope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Capsid
Q.
ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______________?
Less sensitive, more specific
More sensitive, more specific
Less sensitive less specific
More sensitive, less specific
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: More sensitive, less specific
Q.
Who first introduced solid media_______________?
Ogston
Louis pasteur
Hensen
Robert koch
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robert koch
Q.
cAMP reaction is shown by which streptococci ?
Group B
Group D
Group C
Group A
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B
Q.
Widal test is specific for____________?
Pemhigoid
Typhoid
Leprosy
Plague
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid
Q.
Which of the following is not a koch
Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the experimental animals
The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue
When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Pure cultures can be obtained
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Q.
All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_________________?
gingivalis
histolytica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: gingivalis
Q.
When horse serum is injected intravenoulsy in to a rabbit and again in to the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs as the site of the second injection________________?
Anaphylaxis
Arthus phenomenon
Atopy
Serum sickness
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus phenomenon
Q.
Fimbriae are demonstrated by ___________________?
Biochemical reaction
Gram stain
Culture
Haemagglutination test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haemagglutination test
Q.
The following is not true of Candida albicans______________?
Forms Chlamydospores
Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them
Blastomeres seen in isolates
Yeast like fungus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blastomeres seen in isolates
Q.
The temperature required for cultivating mycobacterium________________?
27 degrees
2 degree
0 degree
37 degrees
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 37 degrees
Q.
All are true about bordetella pertussis except______________?
Most common cause is B. Petrussis
It may occur in children and young adult after vaccination
Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Bacteria culture from nasopharyngeal swab is the definitive diagnosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Q.
Causative organism of Kalahazar is_______________?
Leishman donovani
Entamoeba histolytica
Plasmodium ovaie
Toxoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leishman donovani
Q.
Interferon interferes with replication of virus at the time of_____________?
When virus enters the cell
Protein synthesis
Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule
DNA/RNA replication
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein synthesis
Q.
Rideal Walker test is used to determine the efficiency of the_____________?
Antibiotics
Moist heat sterilisation
Dry heat sterilization
Disinfectant
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Disinfectant
Q.
The difference between sterilization and disinfection is that_______________?
Disinfection kills all spores but sterilization does not
Sterilization involves chemicals and disinfection involves physical methods
Sterilization is easier to achieve
Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Q.
The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is_______________?
Lysogeny
Transformation
Conjugation
Translation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysogeny
Q.
For uniform staining reaction, morphology and biochemical activity it is advisable to study bacterial cultures during the_____________?
Logarithmic phase
Stationary phase
Lag phase
Death phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Logarithmic phase
Q.
The structure in involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface is_______________?
Flagella
Fimbria
None of the above
Capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fimbria
Q.
Vibrio cholera was discovered by_________________?
John snow
Virchow
Medintoff
Koch
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Koch
Q.
Noguchi
Borrelia
None of the above
Brucella
Bordetella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia
Q.
Donovanosis, true is___________________?
Penicillin is drug of choice
Characterized by painful genital ulcers
Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic
Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Q.
Which of the following statement about P24 antigen of HIV is Not True ?
It can be detected during the window period
Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:
Virus load parallel P24 titre
It remains during asymptomatic phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It remains during asymptomatic phase
Q.
A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?
Isograft
Allograft
Autograft
Xenograft
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Isograft
Q.
In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_______________?
Hypnozoite
Gametocyte
Sporozoite
Merozoite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sporozoite
Q.
Virus infected cell is killed by________________?
Autolysis
Interferons
Macrophages
Neutrophils
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Interferons
Q.
In small intestine, cholera toxin acts by______________?
Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
ADP
Activation of GTPase
Active absorption of NaCI
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ADP
Q.
Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by_____________?
Nisseria
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus viridans
Haemolytic streptococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus viridans
Q.
Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by______________?
Hot air oven
Autoclaving
Inspissation
UV-Radiation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Candida is most often implicated in causation___________________?
Desert rheumatism
Thrush
Conjunctivitis
Tenea capitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thrush
Q.
Diphtheria is pathogenic only when infected with______________?
Lambda K12
Beta phage
Alfa phage
Delta Phage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Beta phage
Q.
The antigen used in Weil Felix test is obtained from________________?
coli
Staphylococcus
Proteus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to______________?
B
CD8 T-cells
CD4 T-cells
NK
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4 T-cells
Q.
Actinomycosis is caused by______________?
Retrovirus
Acid fast, non-motile bacillus
Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Fungus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Q.
The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route________________?
Hepatitis D virus
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis E virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______________?
Both are
PCR is
ELISA IS
Western Blot is
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both are
Q.
Lepromin test is useful for________________?
Prognosis
Epidemiology
Treatment plan
Diagnosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prognosis
Q.
Staphylococci typically occur in_________________?
Irregular clusters
Tetrads
Pairs
Chains
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Irregular clusters
Q.
The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the________________?
CH2 domian
CH1 domian
CL domian
VL domian
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CH2 domian
Q.
Multiple drug resistance of bacteria depends on which of the following_______________?
Fertility factor (F+)
All of the above
Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Colicigenic factor (Col)
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Q.
Immunity that is conferred to the foetus by transfer of IgG and IgA antibodies is called as______________?
Passive natural immunity
Natural active immunity
Active acquired immunity
Passive acquired immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Passive natural immunity
Q.
Viron is defined as______________?
None of the above
A smallest particle similar to virus
Extracellular infectious virus particle
Smallest virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Extracellular infectious virus particle
Q.
Cough plate method is used to identify________________?
Mycoplasma
Pertussis
M-Tuberculosis
Y. pestis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pertussis
Q.
Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functional of the cell______________?
membrane
wall
Capsule
nucleus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: membrane
Q.
A dentist suffred from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is_____________?
Healthy carrier
Convalscent carrier
Inactive carrier
Paradoxical carrier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Convalscent carrier
Q.
Sunlight acts as sterilizing agent because_________________?
short wave lenght
Heat
Ozone
Long wavelength
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: short wave lenght
Q.
Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in______________?
9 weeks
12 weeks
2 weeks
4 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4 weeks
Q.
What is the sequence which a retro virus follows on entering a host cell ?
DNA-RNA-DNA
RNA-DNA
RNA -DNA-RNA
DNA-RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: RNA -DNA-RNA
Q.
Nagglers reaction detects________________?
Coagulase
None of the above
Hyaluronidase
Lecithinase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Man is the only reservoir for_______________?
Y. enterocolitica
Camphylobacter jejuni
histolytica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: histolytica
Q.
Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_________________?
Desmolase
Theta toxin
Lecithinase
Cytokinin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except___________________?
Through bacteriophages
through conjugation
Though plasmids
Incorporating part of host DNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is__________________?
Gamma globulin injection
Hepatitis vaccination
Immune blood transfusion
Placental transfer of antibodies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Placental transfer of antibodies
Q.
All are true about legionella pneumophilia except______________?
Person to person transmission
Aquatic bodies are main habitat
It can replicate in amoeba
Urine test is a reliable method
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Person to person transmission
Q.
Smith noguchi
Spirochetes
Bacillus
Klebsiella
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
Tyndallisation is carried out for________________?
60 minutes
One day
Two successive days
Three successive days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Three successive days
Q.
Prions true is____________?
Contains DNA/ RNA
Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Sensitive to most chemical sterilization
Evokes strong immunogenic reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Q.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which of the following________________?
Active T cells
Plasma cells
B-cells
NK cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active T cells
Q.
All are oncogenic except________________?
Mansoni
Culex
Aedes
Anopheles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aedes
Q.
Which of the following viruses appears to be involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi
Human Herpes Virus 3
Human Herpes Virus 8
Human Herpes Virus 4
Human Herpes Virus 1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Human Herpes Virus 4
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Vincent
Caused due to malnutrition
Caused by leptospira interrogans
Ulcerative gingivostomatitis
A symbiotic infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by leptospira interrogans
Q.
Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores can be achieved with_______________?
Hematoxylin and Eosin
Grocott Gomori Methenamine silver
KOH wet mount
Peri-iodic Acid Schiff
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: KOH wet mount
Q.
The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum ?
IgG4
IgG3
IgG1
IgG2
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG1
Q.
Cytopathic effect is shown by_____________?
Spirochete
Virus
Bacteria
Anaerobe
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
Methods for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infection________________?
KOH staining
Microscopic examination of skin scrapings
All of the above
Wood light examination
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Culture medium used for Bordatella pertussis is_________________?
Bordet Gengou medium
Bile broth
Robertson cooked meat medium
Wilson Blair medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bordet Gengou medium
Q.
Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_____________________?
only after one year
antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis
in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
no antibodies are present in primary HSV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
Q.
Graft versus host reaction is caused by_________________?
T-lymphocytes
Leukocytes
Monocytes
B-Lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T-lymphocytes
Q.
Black pigmented anaerobes include all of the following except______________?
Tannerella
Porphyromonas
Buccae
Prevotella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Buccae
Q.
A protoplast is best characterized as a bacterial cell______________?
Free of a cell wall and a capsule
with a cell wall but free of a capsule
Uniquely sensitive to penicillin
containing a cell wall and a capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Q.
Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes______________?
Cytotoxic T cells
B cells
Memory B cells
NK Cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NK Cells
Q.
Grape bunch shaped colonies are seen in______________?
Gonococci
E.coli
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staphylococcus
Q.
The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is_______________?
Adeno
EB virus
Parvo virus
Hepatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parvo virus
Q.
Most antibodies are produced in the________________?
Spleen and the lymph nodes
Thymus and the appendix
Heart and the liver
Brain and the meninges
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spleen and the lymph nodes
Q.
Post streptococcal acute glomerulo nephritis is an example of________________?
Type I hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type III hypersensitivity
Q.
Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups ?
Picorna viruses
Flavi viruses
Hepadana viruses
Herpes viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi viruses
Q.
Phase contrast microscopy is based on principle of__________________?
Light scattering
Light attenuation
Different refractive indices of object
Different reflective indices of object
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Different refractive indices of object
Q.
The medium of choice for culturing yeast from of dimorphic fungi is_________________?
Any medium incubated at 35-37
Sabouraud
Sabouraud
Brain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
The diagnosis of gonorrhea is established by_____________?
Haemagglutination tests
Compliment fixation tests
All of the above tests
Pili agglutination tests
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above tests
Q.
Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to______________?
Guinea worm
Hook worm
Thread worm
Ascaris
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hook worm
Q.
Candida albicans causes all of the following except______________?
Meningitis
Mycetoma
Oral thrush
Endocarditis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycetoma
Q.
CD4 count in normal healthy adult is_______________?
500
200
1000
300
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1000
Q.
A darkfield microscope would be useful in examining blood for_______________?
Treponema
Actinomyces
Streptococcus
Mycobacterium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema
Q.
Immunoglobulins ar secreted by______________?
Neutrophils
Macrophages
Plasma cells
T-cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasma cells
Q.
Haptane is_______________?
Carrier required for specific antibody production
High molecular protein
None of the above
Same as epitopes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Carrier required for specific antibody production
Q.
Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by______________?
IgM antibodies in serum
Culture from blood
Isolation from bile
Isolation form stool
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM antibodies in serum
Q.
VDRL is a________________?
Slide flocculation test
Tube flocculation test
Tube agglutination test
Latex agglutination test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Slide flocculation test
Q.
One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is____________?
Permutation
Mutation
Viral interference
Supervision
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Viral interference
Q.
The difference between gram positive and negative bacteria lies in their_______________?
cell membrane
Mesosomes
cell wall
Nuclear material
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cell wall
Q.
The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are______________?
Gram positive organisms
Virus infections
Mycoplasma
Gram negative organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram negative organisms
Q.
Endotoxins differ from exotoxins in that endotoxins______________?
activate complement by the alternate pathway
are highly antigenic
are proteins
are heat labile
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: activate complement by the alternate pathway
Q.
The Dane particle is the______________?
Delta Virus
HBC Ag
HBV
IgG anti HAV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBV
Q.
Tuberculin test screens for_____________?
Cell mediated immunity
Hemoral immunity
Complement function
Phagocyte dysfunction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell mediated immunity
Q.
Endoscopes are sterilized by using_______________?
Cidex
Gamma radiation
Autoclaving
Boiling
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Boiling
Q.
One of the following statement about statements about sterilization is not true_______________?
Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Glass syringes ? Boiling at 169
Flash pasteurization of milk ? 72
Liquid paraffin ? Dry heat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Q.
Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?
Polysaccharides
Proteins
Adjuvant
Lipids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteins
Q.
IgG antibodies have a half-life of approximately_______________?
1 Month
1 week
1 hour
1 day
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 Month
Q.
Exotoxins are____________________?
Lipoprotein
Lipid-polysaccharide complex
Protein compound
None
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein compound
Q.
Following is a retrovirus_____________?
Immunodeficiency virus
Influenza
Polio virus
Hepatitis virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immunodeficiency virus
Q.
The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement_________________?
IgE
IgG
IgA
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
The reaginic antibody is________________?
IgD
IgA
IgE
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Kaposi
Between 1000-2000
Below 200
Above 600
Above 2000
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Below 200
Q.
All are not true for cultivation of anaerobic organisms except_______________?
anaerobic jar
Refrigerator
Centrifuge
Incubator
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: anaerobic jar
Q.
Each of the following can cause food poisoning except________________?
Cl. difficile
Cl. botulinum
Cl. welchii
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. difficile
Q.
Which of the following does not go into chronic hepatitis stage ?
HDV
HBV
HEV
HCV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HEV
Q.
Physical sterilization was discovered by__________________?
Alexander flemings
Robert Koch
John Hunter
Joeph Lister
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Joeph Lister
Q.
Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito______________?
Sporozoite
Gametocyte
Merozoite
Zygote
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gametocyte
Q.
Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with_______________?
Kin Young stain
Giemsa stain
Ziel Nelson
Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Q.
Which of the following are correctly matched ?
Injection of antibodies (Hepatitis) is artificially acquired passive immunity
Antigenic stimulus given by vaccine (polio) is artificial active immunity
Transfer of antibody from mother to child is through colostrum and acquired passive immunity naturally
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which is type II hypersensitivity ?
Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Immune complex mediated
Delayed hypersensitivity
Anaphylaxis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Q.
By using phase contrast microscope_______________?
Internal structures are differentiated in dead cells
Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Internal metabolic activities can be observed
External capsule formation can be observed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Q.
One of the following is a treponemal test for diagnosis of syphilis_____________?
FTAB
Wasserman test
Kahn test
Widal test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: FTAB
Q.
Which of the following have the capability to produce extra cellular polysaccharides______________?
Strep. pyogenes
Peptostreptococcus
Strep. Mutans
Enterococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strep. Mutans
Q.
Opportunistic infection is caused by___________________?
Penicillium
Mucor
All of the above
Aspergillus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The minimum time required for the sterilization of surgical instruments by moist heat at 134
3 minutes
15 minutes
60 minutes
30 minutes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3 minutes
Q.
Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti_________________?
Terminal nuclei absent
Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Causes filariasis
Body is slender and long
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Q.
Granules in the corynebacterium diphtheria are called by following names, except______________?
Metachromatic granules
Voluntin granules
Babes Ernst granules
Refractile granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile granules
Q.
Neurotoxin of tetanus acts on______________?
Muscle
Brain
Spinal card
Synapse
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spinal card
Q.
Sporulation occurs in__________________?
Stationary phase
Log phase
Lag phase
Decline phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
True about HIV are all except______________?
Decrease CD4 count in late stages
DNA virus
Macrophages are the reservoir
Attacks CD4 cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: DNA virus
Q.
IgG has subclasses_______________?
1
4
2
3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4
Q.
Anti HBsAB indicates______________?
Resistance to hepatitis B
Good prognosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Acute infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Good prognosis
Q.
Causative agents of Vincent
Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Leptospira and Treponema pallidum
Borrelia burgoloferi and lactobacillus
Borrelia recurrents and bateroides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Q.
Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______________?
Transfusion reaction
Contact dermatitis
Atopic allergy
Serum sickness
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is________________?
ELISA
Microscopy
Counter immune electroporesis
Indirect hemagglutination
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA
Q.
Test for differentiating virulent form non-virulent tubercular bacilli_____________?
Aryl sulphatase test
Neutral red test
Catalase peroxidase test
Niacin test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neutral red test
Q.
Rickettsiae__________________?
Multiply within living cell
All of the above
Transmitted by arthropod vectors
Respond to tetracycline therapy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Virus is cultured in_______________?
Saubourd
Embryonated egg
Nonembryonated egg
Rogosa medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Embryonated egg
Q.
Disinfection frees the surface from______________?
None of the above
Both of the above
Vegetative forms
Spore forms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vegetative forms
Q.
Human immunoglobulins are divided based on_____________?
Structural differences
Functional differences
Complemented fixation
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Structural differences
Q.
Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to__________________?
Capsule
Exotoxin
Invasion
Endotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Exotoxin
Q.
Chemotactic cytokine is_________________?
IL-8
IL-6
TNF
IL-1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IL-8
Q.
The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in vivo from one bacterium to another by_____________?
Conjugation
Transduction
Rarefaction
Transformation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
The culture media for fungus is__________________?
Sabourauds medium
NNN medium
Chocolate agar medium
Tellurite medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabourauds medium
Q.
Immunoglobin, Which is produced first by the fetus in response to infection_______________?
IgG
IgA
IgM
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Which of the following is an enrichment medium________________?
Mac Conkey agar
Blood agar
Selenite F Broth
Nutrient Broth
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Selenite F Broth
Q.
What is the transport medium for cholera___________________?
Tellurite Medium
Venkatraman
Cary Blair Medium
B & C
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: B & C
Q.
A type of immediately occuring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called_____________?
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type I hypersensitivity
Q.
Same or closely related antigens present in different biological species are known as________________?
Heterophile antigens
Suquestrated antigens
Isoantigens
Haptens
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Heterophile antigens
Q.
One of the following is an agglutination test in the diagnosis of typhoid___________?
Mantoux test
Wasserman test
Widal test
Eleks test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
Sterilization is a process in which_________________?
Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Deactivate all pathogens not spores
Kill all non-pathogenic micro-organisms in the environment
Kill all pathogenic micro-organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Q.
Human immune deficiency virus is ________________ virus?
Rhabdo
Retro
Rheo
Flavi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Retro
Q.
A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned in to an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis______________?
Trichrome Methylene blue
Calcoflour White
Acid Fast Stain
Carbol Fuschin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trichrome Methylene blue
Q.
Half-life of free HIV in plasma is________________?
3 months
12 hours
6 hours
24 hours
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 6 hours
Q.
Among The infectious diseases transmitted by food, one is___________________?
Diptheria
Viral stomatitis
Typhoid fever
Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid fever
Q.
Moist heat kills all of the following EXCEPT_______________?
Salmonella
Mycobacterium
Coxiella burnetti
Brucella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coxiella burnetti
Q.
The Ig found in exocrine secretions is_____________?
IgG
IgA
IgM
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Operation theatres are sterilized by_____________?
ETO gas
Washing with soap and water
Formaldehyde fumigation
Carbolic acid spraying
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Formaldehyde fumigation
Q.
Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci________________?
Aerococcus
Sarcina
Micrococcus
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sarcina
Q.
About Bacteroids True are all Except_______________?
Present mainly in mixed infections
Most common species is B fragilis
Susceptible to many antibiotics
Bile resistant anerobes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Susceptible to many antibiotics
Q.
Encapsulation in bacteria helps in__________________?
Prevent their phagocytosis
Oxygen effect
Spore formation
Decreased virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prevent their phagocytosis
Q.
In initial stages of tyhoid, salmonella can be detected in________________?
Urine
Feacus
All of the above
Blood
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood
Q.
All of the following are true of streptococcus except_____________?
Most common in humans
It
Most common is animals
Shows adherence to dental enamel
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It
Q.
Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phase of the bacterial growth curve______________?
Exponential growth
Decline
Lag
Stationary phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
Viruses can be cultured in all except_______________?
Chick embryo
Guinea pigs
Cell culture
Blood agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood agar
Q.
Kolmer test is a screening test done for_________________?
Tuberculosis
Gonorrhea
Syphilis
Lymphoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Function of T-lymphocyte is/are________________?
Production of interferon
All of the above
Lymphokine production
Rosette formation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The following are applicable to bacterial genoms except________________?
Its DNA has both introns and extrons
It is composed of DNA
It doe not contain histones
It is circular
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Q.
EBV causes all except_________________?
Infectious mononucleosis
Papilloma
Burkitt
Carcinoma of nasopharynx
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma
Q.
Which of the following is not used as disinfectant________________?
5% chloroxylene
100% alcohol
2% Lysol
1-2% cetrimide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 100% alcohol
Q.
Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by_______________?
M. ulcerans
M. smegmatis
M. Kansasii
M. chelonae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. chelonae
Q.
All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except____________?
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis E
Hepatitis B
HIV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Which of the following correctly indicates the infectivity of hepatitis virus in human ?
HBCAg
Anti-HBC
HBeAg
Anti-HBS
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBeAg
Q.
In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except__________________?
Malabsorption
Spleen sequestration
Bone marrow depression
Hemolysis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Malabsorption
Q.
Which of the following is not a pox virus ?
chicken pox
Cowpox
Small pox
Molluscum contagiosum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: chicken pox
Q.
A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is______________?
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Pyte-ferraco stain
Methanamine silver stain
India ink preparation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
Staphylococcal food poisoning includes the following features_______________?
Common with dairy products
Heat labile enterotoxin
Incubation period of 24 hours
Requires immediate antibiotics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Common with dairy products
Q.
Causative organism for gas gangrene_______________?
Strep. Faecalis
Clostridium welchii
Coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Streptococcus is classified based on__________________?
M Protein
Bile Solubility
Cultural characteristics
Cell wall carbohydrate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall carbohydrate
Q.
compared with autoclave, use of a dry heat over for sterilization has the following disadvantages______________?
Causes instruments to rust
Causes sharp instruments to dull
Less effective
Time-consuming
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Time-consuming
Q.
Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces?
Pili
Flagella
Capsule
Mesosomes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except_____________?
Streptococcus pyogenes
Neisseria meningitides
Legionella pneumophila
Salmonella typhi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus pyogenes
Q.
The best sterilization method for a hand-piece is________________?
dry heat
chemical vapour
All of the above
Ethylene oxide gas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ethylene oxide gas
Q.
Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is____________?
Histidine rich proteins
Secretory IgA
Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Sialoperoxidase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Q.
Sleeping sickness is caused by_______________?
Tick
Reduvid bug
Sand fly
House fly
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reduvid bug
Q.
The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_____________?
Alopecia areata
Kerison
Pilomatrixoma
Tenia incognito
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kerison
Q.
Steam under pressure in used in ________ sterilization?
Pasteurization
Autoclave
Kochs sterilizer
hot air oven
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The small nonparticulate protein leading to enhanced replication of HBV as well as HIV is______________?
Hbe Ag
HBs Ag
HBx Ag
HBc Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBx Ag
Q.
T cells multiplication is stimulated by_______________?
Phytohaemagglutinin
Heat
Macrolin
Bovine serum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Phytohaemagglutinin
Q.
Bacteria reproduce mainly by______________?
Bacterial components produced by host cells
Budding
Binary fission
Sporing
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Binary fission
Q.
The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine doses not play a major role is______________?
Anaphylaxis
Asthma
Arthus reaction
Urticaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus reaction
Q.
Robertsons cooked meat medium is best suited for cultivation of_______________?
Choleria
Clostridia
S. epidermidis
Mycobacterium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridia
Q.
A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates________________?
Prodromal phase
Carrier state
Acute infection
Convalescence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acute infection
Q.
Which of the following organisms does NOT react with gram
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Actinomyces israelii
Candida albicans
Streptococcus mutan
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q.
Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins ?
IgA
IgE
IgM
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Disinfection of the rooms can be done by using_______________?
High efficiency particle arrestors
Chlorine gas
20% phenol
40% formaldehyde vapour
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 40% formaldehyde vapour
Q.
Negative staining is used to demonstrate________________?
Bacterial fimbriae
Bacterial Flagella
Bacterial spore
Bacterial capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacterial fimbriae
Q.
Which is not true about vibrio cholera_________________?
Man is the only natural host
Grows on simple media
Cannot survive in extracellular environment
It is non-halophilic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Q.
Group A carbohydrate of Str. pyogenes cross reacts with human_________________?
Vascular intima
Myocardium
Cardiac valves
Synovial fluid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiac valves
Q.
Pneumococus can be differentiated from streptococcus by________________?
Growth characteristics
Bile solubility
Gram staining
Type of hemolysis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bile solubility
Q.
Phage conversion is required for________________?
Diptheria
Gonorrhoea
All o f the above
Tularemia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Diptheria
Q.
parasitic inflammation would show predominantly____________________?
Eosinophils
Basophils
Lymphocytes
Neutrophilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Eosinophils
Q.
Pseudohphae are seen in____________?
Candida albicans
Aspergillus
Osporium
Alternaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?
Q fever
Epidemic typhus
Trench fever
Relapsing fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Q fever
Q.
The causative organism of syphilis is___________?
Borrelia burgolorferi
Treponema pallidum
Leptospira interrogans
Chalamydia trachomatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema pallidum
Q.
Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except______________?
Entamoeba
Ascaris lumbriocoides
Giardia lambia
Strongyloides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strongyloides
Q.
Toxoids are_________________?
non-antigenic and toxic
antigenic and non-toxic
antigenic and toxic
non-antigenic and non-toxic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: antigenic and non-toxic
Q.
Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000_________________?
H chain
J piece
L chain
Secretory piece
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: H chain
Q.
IL-1 is produced by_________________?
Helper B cells
Monocytes
Helper T cells
Macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Macrophages
Q.
In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by_____________?
Stool culture
Widal test
Urine culture
Blood culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except__________________?
All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection
Found exclusively in human beings.
Most common cause of urethritis is male
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Q.
Pigs are important source of_____________?
Yellow fever
Kuru
Rabies
Japanese encephalitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Japanese encephalitis
Q.
A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains and haemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism ?
Cataslase positive
Bile solubility
Bacitracin sensitivity
Optochin sensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacitracin sensitivity
Q.
Organ of locomotion in bacteria is________________?
Capsule
Fimbria
Cell wall
Flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flagella
Q.
All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except______________?
Colony morphology on saliva agar
Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital
Gram staining
Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram staining
Q.
Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in______________?
Hood worm
Ascariasis and tapeworm
Ascariasis
Tapeworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ascariasis
Q.
Bacteria with tuft of flagella at one end are called_______________?
Lophotrichate
Monotrichate
Bipolar
Peritrichate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lophotrichate
Q.
Certain viruses have been isolated in crytalline form and have been found to be_____________?
Nucleotides
Scleroproteins
Nucleoproteins
Phospholipids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleoproteins
Q.
Fungal infection of human beings is called as_____________?
Mucorsis
Micromia
Fungosis
Mycosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycosis
Q.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa_________________?
Does not produce any pigment
Causes Shangai fever
Produces heat stable enterotoxin
Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Causes Shangai fever
Q.
The world german measles is applied for_____________?
Herpetic ginglvostomatitis
Herpes simplex
Rubeola
Rubella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Which of the following provides best gurantee for sterlization in the heat sterilizer ?
Using chemical indicator strip or pouch
Recording a temperature/ pressure readings from sterilizer guage
Using a bacterial spore test
Determining the ability of a sterilizer to kill the hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Using a bacterial spore test
Q.
Active artificial immunization is induced by the administration of all of the following EXCEPT______________?
Antitoxins
Toxoids
Bacterial products
Vaccines
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antitoxins
Q.
Plaque test is used routinely in virology lab
Identification of viral disease
To separate specific clone of virus
To maintain certain viral culture
To prepare vaccines
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Identification of viral disease
Q.
The commonest method of detection of diptheria carriers is_______________?
Casoni
Charles
Dick test
Schick test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Schick test
Q.
Most common tumor associated with AIDS is______________?
Melanoma
Kaposi
Carcinoma
Ewing
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kaposi
Q.
Which of the following is a RNA virus ?
Herpes Virus
Papavo virus
Measles virus
Adeno virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
A 6 year old boy comes with abdominal pain, vomiting after consuming mild products within 6 hours. The most likely organism responsible is______________?
Staph. aureus
Salmonella
B.Cereus
Clostridium botulinum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staph. aureus
Q.
The medium of choice for growing most fungi is_______________?
Tissue culture
Sabouraud
Thioglycollate medium
Blood agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
Hydatid cyst is__________________?
Fungal
Congenital
Viral
Parasitic in nature
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parasitic in nature
Q.
Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called______________?
De coding
Opsonisation
CFT
Chemotaxis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Opsonisation
Q.
The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is___________________?
10%
2%
15%
5%
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2%
Q.
Selective media for MYCOBACTERIUM _____________?
Sabourauds medium
Lowenstein Jensen medium
Agar
Loefflers serum slope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lowenstein Jensen medium
Q.
A sporangium contains_______________?
porangiospores
Spherules
Chlamydospores
Oidia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: porangiospores
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria can be cultured in__________________?
Sabourauds agar
Robertson cooked meat medium
L-J medium
Loefflers medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robertson cooked meat medium
Q.
All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except________________?
The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides
Cysts are 4 nucleated
Cysts are 8 nucleated
Trophozoites colonise in the colon
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cysts are 8 nucleated
Q.
Gram -ve bacteria stain during gram staining____________?
Green
Blue color
Colorless
Red color
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Red color
Q.
The optimal time and temperature required for sterilization in an autoclave is___________________?
121
140
121
121
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 121
Q.
Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus ?
Condyloma acuminatum
Focal epithelial hyperplasia
Keratoacanthoma
Verruca vulgaris
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Keratoacanthoma
Q.
IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by______________?
Platelet
Lymphocytes
Activated macrophages
Plasma cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Activated macrophages
Q.
The major intestinal pathogens which are non-lactose fermenters are_________________?
Salmonella
Paracolons
Klebsiella
Escherichia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salmonella
Q.
Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by________________?
Culture
ELISA
Direct microscopy
DNA probe
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Culture
Q.
Which component of the cell wall is responsible________________?
Region I
Region III
Boivin antigen
Region II
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Region III
Q.
In patients with asthma due to an allergic cause the serum levels of which immunoglobulin increase____________________?
IgA
IgM
IgE
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Which regards to temperature requirement, most pathogenic bacteria are_____________?
Psychrophiles
Cryophiles
Mesophiles
Thermophiles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mesophiles
Q.
Negative phase is seen in ________ immunity?
Herd
Local
Passive
Active
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active
Q.
Bacterial cell does not possess___________________?
Mitochondria
dna
Cell wall
Ribosome
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mitochondria
Q.
Australian antigen is_______________?
HBs AG
HB Ag
None of the above
HBV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBs AG
Q.
Which does not have a viral etiology______________?
Carcinoma Cervix
Hepatoma
Lymphoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Endotoxins are produced by________________?
Gram +ve bacteria
Fungi
Virus
Gram -ve bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram -ve bacteria
Q.
EBV is responsible for all except______________?
Hepatoma
Burkitt
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Complement factor through which common pathway begins___________________?
C2
Protein B
C5
C3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C3
Q.
Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is___________________?
Lungs
Spleen
Liver
Brain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Liver
Q.
The time gap between appearance of Koplik
10 days
24 Hrs
2 weeks
3-4 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3-4 days
Q.
CD4 cells recognize the antigens in association with_____________?
MHC III
MHC I
MHC II
B-cell receptor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: MHC II
Q.
Each of the following viruses possesses an outer lipoprotein envelope except_____________?
Papilloma Virus
Varicella Zoster Virus
Human immunodeficiency virus
Influenza Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma Virus
Q.
Mark true in following ?
Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
None of the above
Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Q.
First released immunoglobulin after primary immunization_______________?
IgM
IgD
IgG
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is_________________?
T-strain mycoplasma
Neisseria gonorrhea
Escherichia coli
Streptococcus fecalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Escherichia coli
Q.
Black water fever is caused by______________?
Plasmodium vivax
Leishmania donovani
Plasmodium falciparum
Microfilaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______________?
Comma
Banana
Dot
Sickle
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sickle
Q.
Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____________?
6 week
3 months
1 week
6 months
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 week
Q.
About Psedomonas. All are true except________________?
Most common organism is burn patient
Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Strick aerobes
Can grow in disinfectants in hospital
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except_______________?
Through plasmids
Through conjugation
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through bacteriophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____________?
3,10,19
6,8,11
Type 6,12,18
16,18,31
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 16,18,31
Q.
Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except_______________?
Tissue culture
Embryonated eggs
Chemically defined media
Animals
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chemically defined media
Q.
Type of receptor present on T-cells are__________________?
CD4
Ig G
Prostaglandins
Ig A
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4
Q.
All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_____________?
Refractile nucleus
Chromatid bars
Glycogen mass
Eccentric nucleus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile nucleus
Q.
Leprosy bacilli can be grown in_________________?
Testes of albino rats
Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Testes of guinea pig
Tail of guinea pig
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Q.
Group A B-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the pharynx may be followed in some by_____________?
Diphtheria
Syphilis
Rheumatic fever
Typhoid fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatic fever
Q.
Secretory Ig is_______________?
IgM
IgD
IgA
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Which of the following viruses does not infect salivary glands ?
HIV
Echo virus
Hepatitis C
Orthomyxovirus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxovirus
Q.
Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following________________?
Sabin
All of the above
Salk vaccine
Tetanus toxoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salk vaccine
Q.
True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by_______________?
cats
Cow
Dogs
Rats
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cats
Q.
Candidal hyphae can be stained using_______________?
Toluidine blue stain
Van Gieson
Periodic acid schiff stain
Masson Trichrome stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Periodic acid schiff stain
Q.
The prototype of Type II hypersensitivity reaction is__________________?
Contact dermatitis
SLE
Arthus reaction
Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Q.
The earliest identifiable cells of T-Cell lineage during maturation are_______________?
CD8+ Pro-T-Cells
CD8+ Pre-T-Cells
CD5+ Pre-T-Cells
CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
Q.
Dengue virus belongs to______________?
Reoviridae
Rhabdoviridae
Flavi virus
Togaviridae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi virus
Q.
T cell matures in______________?
Busra of Fabricius
Lymph node
Payers patch
Thymus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thymus
Q.
The presence of Which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility ?
Polysaccharide
Enzymes
Lipids
Protein coat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein coat
Q.
Wasserman test test is diagnostic of__________________?
Syphilis
TB
Tyhoid
Gonorrhea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Glasswares are sterilised by______________?
Incineration
Autoclaving
Hot air oven
Formaldehyde
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by which of the following_____________?
Cidex
All of the above
Ethanol
Boiling
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affets_______________?
Fibroblasts
Mast cells
Red blood cells
Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Q.
Which of the following enzyme is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot pathogenic staphylococci_____________?
Fibrinolysin
Coagulase
Lysozyme
S protein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coagulase
Q.
Secondary response is mediated by_______________?
IgM
IgE
IgG
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Bacterial species which is protective or beneficial to the host is_______________?
Streptococcus sanguis
Treponema denticola
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Spirochetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus sanguis
Q.
Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve________________?
Duodenum
Jejunum and Ileum
Caecum and large intestine
Stomach
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caecum and large intestine
Q.
A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents________________?
Xeno
Allo
ISO
Auto
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Allo
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical mycobacteria by______________?
AFB staining
Pas staining
None of the above
Niacin test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Niacin test
Q.
The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by____________?
Conjugation
Cell fusion
Transduction
Translation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
Sterilisation control for moist heat is
Using non-pathogenic strain of clostridium tetani
Using chemical indicator
Using methylene blue
using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Q.
Complement binding immunoglobin via the classical pathway is_______________?
IgG & IgA
IgG & igM
IgG & IgD
IgD & IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG & igM
Q.
Commonest mycobacterial infection in tropical countries_______________?
M. leprae
Kansasi
M. avium intracellulare
M. tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. tuberculosis
Q.
Sterilisation is______________?
Non-pathogenic killed
Pathogens killed but spores are not affected
Only pathogenic micro-organisms killed
All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Q.
Killer and Helper cells are part of_______________?
T cells
Monocytes
B cells
Macrophage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T cells
Q.
Bacteriophage was discovered by_________________?
Metchinkoff
Twort and d
Robert koch
Menkin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Twort and d
Q.
Growth factor needed for Salmonella_________________?
Niacin
Tryptophan
B-12
Citrate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Tryptophan
Q.
Louis Pasteur is not associated with_______________?
Disproved spontaneous regression theory
Introduction of complex media
Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Discovery of Rabies Vaccine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Q.
Synthesis of antibodies in plasma cells occurs in_________________?
Nucleus
Mitochondria
Endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi body
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.
Leishmania is cultured in ________________ media?
Tellurite
NNN
Sabourauds
Chocolate agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NNN
Q.
Purpose of Sterilization is to eliminate________________?
Viruses
Bacteria
Fungus
Spore formers
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spore formers
Q.
The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to_____________?
Kill mircobes
Remove microbes
Inhibit microbial growth
Dehydrate microbial cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Remove microbes
Q.
The only virus, which has double stranded RNA, is______________?
Bunya virus
Calci virus
Rhabdo virus
Reo virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reo virus
Q.
Culture media of candida is_________________?
Saboraud
Methylene blue dextrose agar
All of the above
Pingolevin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saboraud
Q.
L.D bodies are seen in_______________?
Kalahazar
Sleeping sickness
Malaria
Toxoplasmosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kalahazar
Q.
Schuffner
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium malariae
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium vivax
Q.
Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus infection during window period ?
HBs Ag
None of the above
Anti HBs
IgM anti
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM anti
Q.
Delhi boil refer to_______________?
L. Tropica sore
Malignant pustule
Venereal ulcer
Solar Keratosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: L. Tropica sore
Q.
Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except________________?
50% chances to have AIDS
Have infections
Failure to thrive
All are true
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 50% chances to have AIDS
Q.
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to_______________?
T lymphocytes
Monocytes
Histiocytes
B lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T lymphocytes
Q.
The cell wall deficient bacteria_______________?
Ehrlichiae
Chlamydiae
Mycoplasma
Rickettsiae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycoplasma
Q.
Pasteur developed the vaccine for_______________?
Rabies
Cholera
Anthrax
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Borrelia vincenti is always associated with______________?
Treponema vincenti
Spirochaetes
None of the above
Fusiform bacilli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fusiform bacilli
Q.
The Manufacturing unit of surgical needle & sutures are sterilized by ________________?
X-Rays
Gamma-Rays
Boiling
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma-Rays
Q.
Glutaraldehyde is preferred more than formaldehyde because______________?
It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
It has got more bactericidal activity
Its application is easier
It has got more bacteriostatic activity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Q.
The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is_____________?
Sabourad
Chocolate agar
Robertoson
Chorio allantoic membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chorio allantoic membrane
Q.
Rh incompatibility is which type of hyper sensitivity reaction ?
Type II
Type I
Type III
Type IV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Silver impregnation method of staining is useful to demonstrate_____________?
Bacterial flagella
Both of the above
None of the above
Spirochetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both of the above
Q.
Which of the following would you consider to be general properties of viruses______________?
Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses
Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids
Contain DNA but no RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Q.
Dematophytes are fungi infecting________________?
Subcutaneous tissue
Systemic organs
Superficial skin and deep tissue
Nails, hair and skin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nails, hair and skin
Q.
Chlamydia causes all of the following except________________?
Parotitis
Trachoma
Pneumonia
Non-gonococcal urethritis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parotitis
Q.
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (SSS syndrome) is due to______________?
Enterotoxin D
Enterotoxin F
Enterotoxin A
Enterotoxin B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterotoxin F
Q.
Leprosy bacilli are transmitted from person to person by all except______________?
From open sore
Through intact skin
Dischange from nasal mucosa
Through breast milk
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Through breast milk
Q.
ASO (Antistreptolysin 0) test is uesd for the diagnosis of________________?
Typhoid fever
Rickettsial fever
Rheumatoid arthritis
Rheumatie fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatie fever
Q.
Actinomycetes is______________?
A yeast like form
Fungus
Gram negative bacteria
Gram positive bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is_____________?
Blue stain
Eosin stain
Ninhydrin stain
Haemotoxin stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ninhydrin stain
Q.
Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by_____________?
Bacteria superadded on virus
Bacteria
Parasite
Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
The term animalcules to oral microorganisms is given by__________________?
Robertson
Socranci
Leumenhoek
Wd miller
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leumenhoek
Q.
Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly_______________?
Gastrointestinal tract
Nasal mucosa
Lung
Skin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gastrointestinal tract
Q.
Phospholipid used to investigate syphilis by the reagin test is________________?
Cardiolipin
Palmityl lecithin
Plasminogen
Serine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiolipin
Q.
Cleavage of IgG molecule by Papin gives rise to:One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments_______________?
One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
One Fc fragment and four Fab fragments
Two Fc fragments and two Fab fragments
Two Fc fragment and one Fab fragment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Q.
Following reaction are produced by heterophil antigens except_____________?
Forssman antigen antibody reaction
Weil-Felix reaction
Widal reaction
Paul bunnel reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal reaction
Q.
The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______________?
IgE
IgA
IgG
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV irradiation_______________?
Nucleic acids
Inorganic salts
Lipids
Carbohydrates
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleic acids
Q.
Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by________________?
Dextran
Bacteria
Sucrose
Epithelial cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dextran
Q.
The anaphylaxis should be treated first with_____________?
Epinephrine
Anti histamines
Steroids
Antibiotics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epinephrine
Q.
Dorset
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Mycobacterium
Gonococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best demonstrated by_________________?
PAS stain
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Gram
H & E stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Q.
The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is______________?
Treponjema pertenue
Borrelia burgdorferi
Treponema pallidum
Borrelia vincenti
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti
Q.
Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is ________________?
Aspergillus
Mucor
Penicillium
Rhizopus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus
Q.
Best method of sterilizing disposable syringes_______________?
U.V. rays
Hot air oven
Boiling
Gamma rays
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma rays
Q.
Anaphylaxis refers to the________________?
Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens
Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions
State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________________?
Melanin production related to virulence
Basidiomycetes yeast
Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Causes meningitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Q.
The Process of attenuation can be achieved by all except___________________?
Growing bacteria in unconventional host
Growing bacteria in adverse environment
Serial passage in an experimental host
Repeated cultures in artificial media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serial passage in an experimental host
Q.
Probiotic organism used_________________?
Staphylococcus
Bifido bacteria
E coli
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bifido bacteria
Q.
Staphylococcus does not causes_______________?
Abscess
Osteomyelitis
Scarlet fever
Pneumonia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Scarlet fever
Q.
Oil and Grease are sterilized by________________?
Auto claving
Hot air oven
Irradiation
Ethylene dioxide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Most sensitive test for antigen detection is_______________?
Radioimmuno Assay
ELISA
Passive hemaglutination
Immunoflourescence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Radioimmuno Assay
Q.
Antigen combining site of the antibody is____________________?
Paratope
Hapten
Epitope
Idiotope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Paratope
Q.
The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______________?
Induration
Vasculitis
Necrosis
Erythema
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythema
Q.
The most common site where organisms are present in a typhoid carrier is______________?
Gall Bladder
Liver
Spleen
Salivary gland
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gall Bladder
Q.
Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause foetal defect ?
Rubella
Mumps
Papilloma
Herpes Simplex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Babu, a 28 year old male comes with compaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by____________?
P24 antigen
ELISA
Western blot
Lymph node biopsy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: P24 antigen
Q.
The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is ________________?
exotoxin production
lecithinase production
hypersensitivity
Coagulase production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: hypersensitivity
Q.
In T.B cell mediated immunity is by_______________?
CD 8*
B
CD 4*
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD 4*
Q.
Australia antigen is associated with________________?
Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Basal cell carcinoma
AIDS
Chronic leukemia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Q.
Incubation pariod of herpes zoster is________________?
1 months
1-2 years
3-6 months
7-14 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 7-14 days
Q.
Salmonella typhi can be isolated at different times from______________?
Feaces
All of the above
Blood
Urine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which of the following antibacterial substance is present in eggs and saliva ?
Lysozyme
Secretozyme
Isozyme
Albumin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysozyme
Q.
Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection_________________?
Balantidium coli
Isopora belli
Giardia lambella
Taenia solium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Taenia solium
Q.
Electron microscopic examination of the bacterial flora of necrotising ulcerative gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are______________?
Filamentous rods
Bacteriophages
Spirochetes
Cocci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
The most frequently encountered clostridial species in gas gangrene is______________?
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium welchii
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium difficile
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Q fever is caused by________________?
C. burnetti
R. quintana
R. prowozekii
Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C. burnetti
Q.
Mesophilic organisms are those that grow best at temperature of______________?
25
-20
55
-7
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 25
Q.
An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry cough, sputum culture showed growth on charcoal yeast Extract Medium, theorganism is______________?
H. influenza
Burkholderia cepacia
Moraxella catarrhalis
Legionella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Legionella
Q.
Techoic acid is present in_____________?
Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Cell wall of Gram negative organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram negative organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram positive organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Q.
Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?
The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission
Causes positive Nagler reaction
The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously
Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Q.
Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by_________________?
Hookworm
Fish tapeworm
Threadworm
Dog tapeworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fish tapeworm
Q.
Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?
Prions
Spore
Mycobacteria
Coccidia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prions
Q.
Blood agar is________________?
Simple media
Enriched media
Transport media
Differential media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enriched media
Q.
Signs of tyhoid fever is/are_____________________?
Osteomyelitis
perforation
Haemorrhage
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by ___________________?
Cryptococcus
Aspergillus
Candida albicans
Mucor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction______________?
E.coli
Staphylococcus
Proteus
Haemophilus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?
Immediately wash wound with soap and water
Give ARV
Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity
Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Q.
One of the following is a zoonotic disease_____________?
Cholera
Anthrax
Typhoid
Bacillary dysentery
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anthrax
Q.
Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of______________?
Malaria
Gas gangrene
Wool sorters disease
Whooping cough
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gas gangrene
Q.
Which of the following is a live vaccine_____________?
Hepatitis
HDCV
17 D
Salk
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HDCV
Q.
The function of IgD is______________?
Antigen recognition by B cells
Localization protection in external secretion
Compliment activation
Reagin activity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antigen recognition by B cells
Q.
The following statement is true regarding fungal infection__________________?
albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals
Candida infection is usually endogenous
Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man
Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida infection is usually endogenous
Q.
One of the following staining methods is an example of negative staining_______________?
Zheil-Neilson
Fontana
India ink preparation
Gram
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
All are true about widel test except________________________?
O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative
Base lines differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
H antigen cannot differentiate between subtypes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Q.
The virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhea include all of the following except____________?
Outer membrane proteins
Pili
IgA Protease
M-Proteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M-Proteins
Q.
Characteristic feature of retrovirus is_____________?
Reverse transcriptase
DNA polymerase
Ribonuclease
Restriction endonuclease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reverse transcriptase
Q.
Serum sickness syndrome is an example of________________?
Anaphylactic
Systemic arthus reaction
Angioneurotic edema
Cell-mediated immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Systemic arthus reaction
Q.
The Window period in HIV infection means______________?
The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS
The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab
None of the above
The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
Q.
Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to________________?
reduce the toxigenicity
Reduce the antigenicity
Increase antigenicity
Increase toxigenicity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increase antigenicity
Q.
Which of the following is true about amoebic liver disease ?
Left lobe of liver is commonly involved
Non-suppurative form is the serious form of extra intestinal amoebiasis
Portal system is the main filtration system
Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Q.
Teichoic acid is present in cell walls of_________________?
Yeast
Gram positive bacteria
Gram negative bacteria
Protozoa
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Grave
Type III
Type I
Type II
Type IV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Madura mycosis produces______________?
Red granules
Brown to black granules
White to yellow granules
No granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: White to yellow granules
Q.
A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?
Pasturella spp
Francisella spp
Bartonella spp
Brucella spp
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Brucella spp
Q.
Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a_______________?
Western Blot
Immunodot
ELISA
RIPA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Western Blot
Q.
Rabies virus________________?
Cytotropic
Chromophilic
Neurotropic
Dermatotropic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neurotropic
Q.
Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is_______________?
IgA
IgM
IgE
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
B.C.G untrue is_____________?
live vaccine
All of the above
T.B vaccine
Orally administered
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orally administered
Q.
In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a_______________?
Toxin
Carrier
Hapten
Super antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hapten
Q.
Thread worm is______________?
Ascaris
Enterobius
Necator
Ancylostoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterobius
Q.
Endotoxin have all but one of the properties given below_______________?
Produced by gram negative bacteria
Not secreted outside the cell
Cannot be toxoided
Produced by gram positive bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Produced by gram positive bacteria
Q.
The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is___________?
The catalase test
Detection of coagulase
Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes
Mannitol fermentation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Detection of coagulase
Q.
Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus is due to ________________________?
Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Penicillin analogue production
Lack of nucleic acid in the cell wall
Pleomorphism
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Q.
Influenza is caused by_____________?
Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Q.
Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is_________________?
1:2
1:3
3:1
2:1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2:1
Q.
On a stained slide, clostridium tetani has the appearance of a__________________?
Drum stick
Chain of beads
Bunch of a
Safely pin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Drum stick
Q.
Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine ?
Typhoid
Cholera
Tuberculosis (BCG)
Varicella Zoster virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cholera
Q.
which of the following is anaerobic_______________?
Pseudomonas
E.coli
Klebsiella
Bacteroides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacteroides
Q.
Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstratig________________?
Trophozoites in the pus
Trophozoites in the feces
Cysts in the sterile pus
Cysts in the intestine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites in the pus
Q.
The urine sample of a patient has been sent to the laboratory to look for Leptospira. The specimen is to be screened by use of the__________________?
Electron microscope
Dark ground microscope
Inverted microscope
Scanning microscope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dark ground microscope
Q.
Function of Ig A is________________?
Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Circulating antibody
Activates macrophages
Kills virus infected cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Q.
Aflatoxins are produced by________________?
Aspergillus fumigatus
All of the above
Aspergillus flavus
Aspergillus niger
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus flavus
Q.
The chemotactic factor is______________?
C5a
C2a
C3b
C4a
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C5a
Q.
Characters of exotoxin include all, except_______________?
Protein polysaccharide complex
Highly potent
Has specific tissue affinity
Heat labile
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein polysaccharide complex
Q.
Leptospirosis, all are true except______________?
Onset of IgM in 2 days
It is sensitive to penicillin
Incubation period is 10 days
Faeces & urine of rodents is the cause
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Onset of IgM in 2 days
Q.
Which of the following belongs to cell fraction derived vaccine______________?
Hepatitis B
Rubella
Mumps
Measles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B
Q.
The killer cells are associated with immunologic response___________________?
Type II
Type IV
Type I
Type III
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
The term epitope refers to________________?
Smallest antigenic determinant
complete antigen molecule
Hapten
Immunogen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Smallest antigenic determinant
Q.
Drumstick appearance is seen in______________?
Cl. tetanomorphum
Cl. tetani
All of the above
Cl. sphenoids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. tetani
Q.
The commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercie bacilli________________?
Auramine and Rhodamine
Congo red
Acridine orange
Thioglavin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine and Rhodamine
Q.
Common name for Trichuris trichura________________?
Round worm
Tape worm
Seat woman
Whip worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Whip worm
Q.
Herpes virus_____________?
Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
None of the above
Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane
Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Q.
The specific test for Treponema pallidum is___________?