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TOP Microbiology MCQS Questions
Q.
Bacterial spores are destroyed by_______________?
Disinfection by hypochlorite solution
Autoclave
Pasteurisation
Boiling at 100
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The interaction of antigens with antibodies on the surface of a mast cel leads to degranulation and anaphylaxis. The mast cell granules produce anaphylaxis because they contain________________?
Vasoactive mediators
Lymphotoxins
Proteolytic enzymes
Lysosomes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vasoactive mediators
Q.
Bacteria with potent exotoxin is_______________?
Pseudomonas
Klebsiella
Clostridium tetani
Shigella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani
Q.
True about prions________________?
Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective
Viruses which are genetically deficient
Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Q.
The best skin disinfectant is________________?
Savlon
Alcohol
None of the above
Chlorhexdine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chlorhexdine
Q.
Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates_____________?
Carrier status
Simple carriers
High infectivity
Late convalescence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: High infectivity
Q.
The facultative anaerobic bacteria are those who are_______________?
Unable to grow in the presence of oxygen
Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Unable to grow in the absence of oxygen
Able to grow in the presence of carbon dioxide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Q.
A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium malaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Erysipelas is caused by________________?
Group B staphylococci
Gonococci
Group A steptococci
Pneumococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B staphylococci
Q.
True about immune response of hepatitis B is__________________?
Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Antibody to HBC is not protective
CMI disappears soon after recover
Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Q.
Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria______________?
Saborauds agar
Loefflers serum slope
Lowenstein Jensen Medium
Mc Conkey
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Loefflers serum slope
Q.
A full course of immunization agianst. Telanus with 3 doses to Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how many years ?
15
5
10
20
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 10
Q.
Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?
Virus isolation
Western blot followed by ELISA
ELISA followed by western blot technique
Polymers chain reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA followed by western blot technique
Q.
Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-5m in size, multi-septate, chestnut, brown color is characteristic of________________?
Chromoblastomycosis
Rhinosporodiosis
Phaeohypomycosis
Histoplasmosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chromoblastomycosis
Q.
The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell
Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Haemagglutination inhibition test
Haemagglutination test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Q.
An oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod which produces a bluish-green pigment has been grown in culture from a swab obtained from an infected burn wound. This organism is susceptible to gentamicin, ticarcillin and tobramicin, but resistant to all the other antibiotics which of the following organisms is it likely to be ?
Klebsiella pnemoniae
Proteus miribilis
Escherichia coli
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q.
Exaltation is________________?
Decreased virulence
No change
Increased Virulence
None
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increased Virulence
Q.
Which of the following is not true of boiling water_____________?
Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis
Can kill vegetative bacterial cells
It can kill hepatitis B virus
Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Q.
The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is_______________?
IgA
IgG
IgM
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Germ tubes are formed mainly by_______________?
Candida stellatoidea
Candida tropicalis
Candida pseudotropicalls
Candida albicans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
The best method of sterilization of dressing powder is_____________?
Hot air oven
Autoclaving
Tyndallization
Inspissation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with______________?
IgA antibodies
Lysozyme
IgM antibodies
Mast cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA antibodies
Q.
Loss of capsule in bacteria is generally associated with______________?
Inability to spread through tissue
Loss of infectivity
increase in invasiveness
Decease in virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Decease in virulence
Q.
Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify______________?
Chlamydiae
Rickettsiae
Spirochaetes
Mycoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochaetes
Q.
Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_____________?
Cryptococcosis
Tuberculosis
Aspergilosis
Candidiasis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candidiasis
Q.
Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans_________________?
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Hot air oven is used for sterilization of all EXCEPT__________________?
Sharp instrument
Rubber tubes
Glassware
Liquid paraffin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubber tubes
Q.
Which worm is longest________________?
T. Saginata
Hook worm
T. Solium
A. Lumbricoides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T. Saginata
Q.
Malignant pustule is referred to_________________?
Facio-cervical actinomycosis
Infected squamous cell carcinoma
None of the above
Cutaneous anthrax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cutaneous anthrax
Q.
In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started________________?
Herpes
Rabies
Poliomyelitis
Influenza
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabies
Q.
True about VDRL test________________?
All of the above
Slide flocculation test
Best followed for drug therapy
Non
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is_____________?
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis A virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
Lancefields classification of B hemolytic streptococcus is based on______________?
Physiological properties
Polysaccharide C antigen
M Protein
Type of lipid in cell membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Polysaccharide C antigen
Q.
Virulence of Gonococcus is due to___________________?
Cytolytic enzymes
Its intracellular location
Pili
Cell Membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
Which of the following fulfil all the criterias of kich
N. gonorrhoeae
None of the above
Mycobacterium leprae
Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: None of the above
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria grow_______________?
in the absence of oxygen
differential media
in the presence of nitrogen
in the presence of oxygen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in the absence of oxygen
Q.
Which of the following is an acid-fast bacillus_____________?
Treponema pallidum
Neisseria gonorrhea
Mycobacterium bacilli
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium bacilli
Q.
Which of the following is obligate aerobe ?
diphtheria
Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Proteus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Q.
Malaria pigment is________________?
Bilurubin
Iron
Haemoglobin
Haematin-globin pigment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haematin-globin pigment
Q.
The key cell types involved in the acquired immunity include all EXCEPT________________?
Erythrocytes
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
Antigen presenting cells (APC
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythrocytes
Q.
Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor_____________?
M protein
Streptolysin 0
Carbohydrate cell wall
Pyrogenic exotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pyrogenic exotoxin
Q.
The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as_____________?
Idiotope
Clone
Epitope
Paratope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epitope
Q.
Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose_______________?
Anaphylaxis
Arthus reaction
Contact dermatitis
Serum sickness
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Immunoglobulin consists of________________?
1 heavy, 2 light chains
3 light, 1 heavy chain
2 light, 2 heavy chains
1 light, 1 heavy chain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2 light, 2 heavy chains
Q.
Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in________________?
Artificial media
Rabbit testis only
Tissue culture
Chick embryos
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabbit testis only
Q.
Which of the following characteristics of bacteria is not true?
Unicellular
Cell wall containing muramic acid
Free living
Having either DNA or RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Having either DNA or RNA
Q.
A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT________________?
Teichoplanin
Vancomycin
Imipenem
Linezolid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Imipenem
Q.
The overall effect of HIV is to gradually impair the immune system by interference with______________?
Natural killer cells
Macrophages
Plasma cells
Helper T lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes
Q.
Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?
Core antigen
Surface antibody
Core antibody
Surface antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Surface antigen
Q.
Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies_____________?
Small pox
Rabies
Chicken pox
Measles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles
Q.
Prozone phenomenon is due to______________?
Excess antibody
Disproportionate antigen antibody levels
Hyper immune reaction
Excess antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Excess antibody
Q.
Actinomycosis is a_________________?
Anaerobic fungal disease
Aerobic bacterial disease
Anaerobic bacterial disease
Aerobic fungal disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic bacterial disease
Q.
HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except________________?
Saliva
Blood transmission
Needle prick injury
Sexual intercourse
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saliva
Q.
Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_______________?
Complex multiplication
Presence of either DNA or RNA
All of the above
Simple structure
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
False +ve for VDRL is seen in______________?
All of the above
Yaws
Malaria
Lepromatous Leprosy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Most fungi of medical importance belongs to__________________?
Basidiomycetes
Deuteromycetes
Zygomycetes
Ascomycetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deuteromycetes
Q.
Most of the drug resistances occurs due to_____________?
conjugation
Transduction
Mutation
Transformation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: conjugation
Q.
The bacterial cell wall has all of the following properties except______________?
It is a unique flexible plastic structure
It contains D-isomers of amino acids
It consists of a mixed polymer called peptidoglycon
It is the structure principally responsible for the reaction of gram staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It is a unique flexible plastic structure
Q.
The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is_____________?
Apthous stomatitis
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Herpetic gingivostomatitis
Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Q.
Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in which of the following viruses_____________?
HIV
Pox virus
Measles virus
Hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is______________?
Bartonella henselae
Hemophilia ducreya
Donovania granulomatis
Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bartonella henselae
Q.
Which of the following is not a feature of anaphylaxis ?
None of the above
passive transfer by serum
Immediate reaction
Delayed reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Delayed reaction
Q.
DNA covering material in a virus is called as________________?
Nucleocapsid
Capsomere
Envelope
Capsid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Capsid
Q.
ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______________?
Less sensitive, more specific
More sensitive, less specific
Less sensitive less specific
More sensitive, more specific
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: More sensitive, less specific
Q.
Who first introduced solid media_______________?
Ogston
Hensen
Louis pasteur
Robert koch
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robert koch
Q.
cAMP reaction is shown by which streptococci ?
Group A
Group D
Group B
Group C
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B
Q.
Widal test is specific for____________?
Plague
Typhoid
Leprosy
Pemhigoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid
Q.
Which of the following is not a koch
Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the experimental animals
Pure cultures can be obtained
When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Q.
All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_________________?
gingivalis
histolytica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: gingivalis
Q.
When horse serum is injected intravenoulsy in to a rabbit and again in to the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs as the site of the second injection________________?
Serum sickness
Atopy
Anaphylaxis
Arthus phenomenon
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus phenomenon
Q.
Fimbriae are demonstrated by ___________________?
Gram stain
Biochemical reaction
Haemagglutination test
Culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haemagglutination test
Q.
The following is not true of Candida albicans______________?
Yeast like fungus
Blastomeres seen in isolates
Forms Chlamydospores
Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blastomeres seen in isolates
Q.
The temperature required for cultivating mycobacterium________________?
2 degree
27 degrees
37 degrees
0 degree
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 37 degrees
Q.
All are true about bordetella pertussis except______________?
Most common cause is B. Petrussis
Bacteria culture from nasopharyngeal swab is the definitive diagnosis
It may occur in children and young adult after vaccination
Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Q.
Causative organism of Kalahazar is_______________?
Leishman donovani
Toxoplasma
Plasmodium ovaie
Entamoeba histolytica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leishman donovani
Q.
Interferon interferes with replication of virus at the time of_____________?
Protein synthesis
Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule
When virus enters the cell
DNA/RNA replication
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein synthesis
Q.
Rideal Walker test is used to determine the efficiency of the_____________?
Dry heat sterilization
Antibiotics
Moist heat sterilisation
Disinfectant
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Disinfectant
Q.
The difference between sterilization and disinfection is that_______________?
Sterilization is easier to achieve
Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Sterilization involves chemicals and disinfection involves physical methods
Disinfection kills all spores but sterilization does not
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Q.
The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is_______________?
Transformation
Lysogeny
Conjugation
Translation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysogeny
Q.
For uniform staining reaction, morphology and biochemical activity it is advisable to study bacterial cultures during the_____________?
Stationary phase
Death phase
Logarithmic phase
Lag phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Logarithmic phase
Q.
The structure in involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface is_______________?
Flagella
None of the above
Fimbria
Capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fimbria
Q.
Vibrio cholera was discovered by_________________?
Medintoff
Virchow
John snow
Koch
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Koch
Q.
Noguchi
Borrelia
Bordetella
None of the above
Brucella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia
Q.
Donovanosis, true is___________________?
Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic
Penicillin is drug of choice
Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Characterized by painful genital ulcers
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Q.
Which of the following statement about P24 antigen of HIV is Not True ?
Virus load parallel P24 titre
It remains during asymptomatic phase
Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:
It can be detected during the window period
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It remains during asymptomatic phase
Q.
A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?
Isograft
Allograft
Xenograft
Autograft
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Isograft
Q.
In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_______________?
Merozoite
Hypnozoite
Sporozoite
Gametocyte
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sporozoite
Q.
Virus infected cell is killed by________________?
Interferons
Neutrophils
Autolysis
Macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Interferons
Q.
In small intestine, cholera toxin acts by______________?
Activation of GTPase
Active absorption of NaCI
ADP
Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ADP
Q.
Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by_____________?
Haemolytic streptococci
Streptococcus viridans
Nisseria
Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus viridans
Q.
Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by______________?
Inspissation
Hot air oven
UV-Radiation
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Candida is most often implicated in causation___________________?
Thrush
Desert rheumatism
Conjunctivitis
Tenea capitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thrush
Q.
Diphtheria is pathogenic only when infected with______________?
Alfa phage
Lambda K12
Delta Phage
Beta phage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Beta phage
Q.
The antigen used in Weil Felix test is obtained from________________?
Staphylococcus
coli
Proteus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to______________?
B
CD8 T-cells
NK
CD4 T-cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4 T-cells
Q.
Actinomycosis is caused by______________?
Fungus
Retrovirus
Acid fast, non-motile bacillus
Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Q.
The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route________________?
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis D virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______________?
ELISA IS
Both are
PCR is
Western Blot is
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both are
Q.
Lepromin test is useful for________________?
Treatment plan
Epidemiology
Prognosis
Diagnosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prognosis
Q.
Staphylococci typically occur in_________________?
Irregular clusters
Pairs
Chains
Tetrads
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Irregular clusters
Q.
The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the________________?
VL domian
CL domian
CH1 domian
CH2 domian
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CH2 domian
Q.
Multiple drug resistance of bacteria depends on which of the following_______________?
Fertility factor (F+)
Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
All of the above
Colicigenic factor (Col)
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Q.
Immunity that is conferred to the foetus by transfer of IgG and IgA antibodies is called as______________?
Active acquired immunity
Natural active immunity
Passive acquired immunity
Passive natural immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Passive natural immunity
Q.
Viron is defined as______________?
Smallest virus
Extracellular infectious virus particle
A smallest particle similar to virus
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Extracellular infectious virus particle
Q.
Cough plate method is used to identify________________?
Y. pestis
Mycoplasma
Pertussis
M-Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pertussis
Q.
Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functional of the cell______________?
wall
nucleus
Capsule
membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: membrane
Q.
A dentist suffred from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is_____________?
Healthy carrier
Inactive carrier
Convalscent carrier
Paradoxical carrier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Convalscent carrier
Q.
Sunlight acts as sterilizing agent because_________________?
Long wavelength
Ozone
short wave lenght
Heat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: short wave lenght
Q.
Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in______________?
9 weeks
12 weeks
4 weeks
2 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4 weeks
Q.
What is the sequence which a retro virus follows on entering a host cell ?
RNA-DNA
DNA-RNA-DNA
RNA -DNA-RNA
DNA-RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: RNA -DNA-RNA
Q.
Nagglers reaction detects________________?
Coagulase
Lecithinase
None of the above
Hyaluronidase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Man is the only reservoir for_______________?
histolytica
Camphylobacter jejuni
Y. enterocolitica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: histolytica
Q.
Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_________________?
Theta toxin
Desmolase
Cytokinin
Lecithinase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except___________________?
through conjugation
Through bacteriophages
Incorporating part of host DNA
Though plasmids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is__________________?
Immune blood transfusion
Hepatitis vaccination
Gamma globulin injection
Placental transfer of antibodies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Placental transfer of antibodies
Q.
All are true about legionella pneumophilia except______________?
Aquatic bodies are main habitat
Urine test is a reliable method
It can replicate in amoeba
Person to person transmission
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Person to person transmission
Q.
Smith noguchi
Bacillus
Klebsiella
Salmonella
Spirochetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
Tyndallisation is carried out for________________?
Two successive days
One day
60 minutes
Three successive days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Three successive days
Q.
Prions true is____________?
Contains DNA/ RNA
Evokes strong immunogenic reaction
Sensitive to most chemical sterilization
Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Q.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which of the following________________?
B-cells
Plasma cells
Active T cells
NK cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active T cells
Q.
All are oncogenic except________________?
Anopheles
Culex
Mansoni
Aedes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aedes
Q.
Which of the following viruses appears to be involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi
Human Herpes Virus 4
Human Herpes Virus 3
Human Herpes Virus 1
Human Herpes Virus 8
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Human Herpes Virus 4
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Vincent
A symbiotic infection
Caused due to malnutrition
Ulcerative gingivostomatitis
Caused by leptospira interrogans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by leptospira interrogans
Q.
Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores can be achieved with_______________?
Grocott Gomori Methenamine silver
Peri-iodic Acid Schiff
KOH wet mount
Hematoxylin and Eosin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: KOH wet mount
Q.
The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum ?
IgG2
IgG3
IgG4
IgG1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG1
Q.
Cytopathic effect is shown by_____________?
Anaerobe
Spirochete
Virus
Bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
Methods for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infection________________?
Wood light examination
All of the above
Microscopic examination of skin scrapings
KOH staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Culture medium used for Bordatella pertussis is_________________?
Bile broth
Bordet Gengou medium
Wilson Blair medium
Robertson cooked meat medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bordet Gengou medium
Q.
Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_____________________?
only after one year
antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis
no antibodies are present in primary HSV
in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
Q.
Graft versus host reaction is caused by_________________?
Monocytes
B-Lymphocytes
T-lymphocytes
Leukocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T-lymphocytes
Q.
Black pigmented anaerobes include all of the following except______________?
Porphyromonas
Prevotella
Tannerella
Buccae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Buccae
Q.
A protoplast is best characterized as a bacterial cell______________?
with a cell wall but free of a capsule
Free of a cell wall and a capsule
containing a cell wall and a capsule
Uniquely sensitive to penicillin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Q.
Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes______________?
Memory B cells
Cytotoxic T cells
B cells
NK Cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NK Cells
Q.
Grape bunch shaped colonies are seen in______________?
E.coli
Streptococcus
Gonococci
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staphylococcus
Q.
The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is_______________?
EB virus
Hepatitis
Adeno
Parvo virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parvo virus
Q.
Most antibodies are produced in the________________?
Heart and the liver
Thymus and the appendix
Brain and the meninges
Spleen and the lymph nodes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spleen and the lymph nodes
Q.
Post streptococcal acute glomerulo nephritis is an example of________________?
Type I hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type III hypersensitivity
Q.
Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups ?
Hepadana viruses
Herpes viruses
Flavi viruses
Picorna viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi viruses
Q.
Phase contrast microscopy is based on principle of__________________?
Different refractive indices of object
Light scattering
Different reflective indices of object
Light attenuation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Different refractive indices of object
Q.
The medium of choice for culturing yeast from of dimorphic fungi is_________________?
Any medium incubated at 35-37
Sabouraud
Sabouraud
Brain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
The diagnosis of gonorrhea is established by_____________?
Compliment fixation tests
Haemagglutination tests
All of the above tests
Pili agglutination tests
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above tests
Q.
Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to______________?
Ascaris
Guinea worm
Hook worm
Thread worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hook worm
Q.
Candida albicans causes all of the following except______________?
Meningitis
Endocarditis
Oral thrush
Mycetoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycetoma
Q.
CD4 count in normal healthy adult is_______________?
1000
300
200
500
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1000
Q.
A darkfield microscope would be useful in examining blood for_______________?
Mycobacterium
Treponema
Actinomyces
Streptococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema
Q.
Immunoglobulins ar secreted by______________?
Neutrophils
Plasma cells
T-cells
Macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasma cells
Q.
Haptane is_______________?
High molecular protein
Carrier required for specific antibody production
None of the above
Same as epitopes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Carrier required for specific antibody production
Q.
Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by______________?
Isolation form stool
Culture from blood
Isolation from bile
IgM antibodies in serum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM antibodies in serum
Q.
VDRL is a________________?
Slide flocculation test
Latex agglutination test
Tube agglutination test
Tube flocculation test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Slide flocculation test
Q.
One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is____________?
Mutation
Supervision
Viral interference
Permutation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Viral interference
Q.
The difference between gram positive and negative bacteria lies in their_______________?
Mesosomes
Nuclear material
cell wall
cell membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cell wall
Q.
The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are______________?
Mycoplasma
Virus infections
Gram negative organisms
Gram positive organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram negative organisms
Q.
Endotoxins differ from exotoxins in that endotoxins______________?
are heat labile
are proteins
activate complement by the alternate pathway
are highly antigenic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: activate complement by the alternate pathway
Q.
The Dane particle is the______________?
Delta Virus
IgG anti HAV
HBV
HBC Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBV
Q.
Tuberculin test screens for_____________?
Hemoral immunity
Phagocyte dysfunction
Cell mediated immunity
Complement function
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell mediated immunity
Q.
Endoscopes are sterilized by using_______________?
Autoclaving
Gamma radiation
Boiling
Cidex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Boiling
Q.
One of the following statement about statements about sterilization is not true_______________?
Liquid paraffin ? Dry heat
Glass syringes ? Boiling at 169
Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Flash pasteurization of milk ? 72
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Q.
Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?
Adjuvant
Polysaccharides
Proteins
Lipids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteins
Q.
IgG antibodies have a half-life of approximately_______________?
1 week
1 Month
1 hour
1 day
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 Month
Q.
Exotoxins are____________________?
None
Lipid-polysaccharide complex
Lipoprotein
Protein compound
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein compound
Q.
Following is a retrovirus_____________?
Influenza
Immunodeficiency virus
Polio virus
Hepatitis virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immunodeficiency virus
Q.
The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement_________________?
IgG
IgA
IgM
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
The reaginic antibody is________________?
IgG
IgE
IgA
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Kaposi
Above 600
Below 200
Above 2000
Between 1000-2000
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Below 200
Q.
All are not true for cultivation of anaerobic organisms except_______________?
Refrigerator
Incubator
anaerobic jar
Centrifuge
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: anaerobic jar
Q.
Each of the following can cause food poisoning except________________?
Cl. difficile
Cl. botulinum
Cl. welchii
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. difficile
Q.
Which of the following does not go into chronic hepatitis stage ?
HDV
HEV
HCV
HBV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HEV
Q.
Physical sterilization was discovered by__________________?
John Hunter
Joeph Lister
Robert Koch
Alexander flemings
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Joeph Lister
Q.
Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito______________?
Sporozoite
Zygote
Merozoite
Gametocyte
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gametocyte
Q.
Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with_______________?
Giemsa stain
Ziel Nelson
Kin Young stain
Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Q.
Which of the following are correctly matched ?
Transfer of antibody from mother to child is through colostrum and acquired passive immunity naturally
Injection of antibodies (Hepatitis) is artificially acquired passive immunity
Antigenic stimulus given by vaccine (polio) is artificial active immunity
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which is type II hypersensitivity ?
Anaphylaxis
Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Delayed hypersensitivity
Immune complex mediated
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Q.
By using phase contrast microscope_______________?
External capsule formation can be observed
Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Internal structures are differentiated in dead cells
Internal metabolic activities can be observed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Q.
One of the following is a treponemal test for diagnosis of syphilis_____________?
Wasserman test
FTAB
Kahn test
Widal test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: FTAB
Q.
Which of the following have the capability to produce extra cellular polysaccharides______________?
Strep. Mutans
Peptostreptococcus
Enterococcus
Strep. pyogenes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strep. Mutans
Q.
Opportunistic infection is caused by___________________?
Aspergillus
Penicillium
All of the above
Mucor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The minimum time required for the sterilization of surgical instruments by moist heat at 134
15 minutes
60 minutes
3 minutes
30 minutes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3 minutes
Q.
Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti_________________?
Causes filariasis
Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Body is slender and long
Terminal nuclei absent
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Q.
Granules in the corynebacterium diphtheria are called by following names, except______________?
Babes Ernst granules
Refractile granules
Metachromatic granules
Voluntin granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile granules
Q.
Neurotoxin of tetanus acts on______________?
Brain
Synapse
Muscle
Spinal card
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spinal card
Q.
Sporulation occurs in__________________?
Stationary phase
Log phase
Decline phase
Lag phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
True about HIV are all except______________?
Attacks CD4 cells
DNA virus
Macrophages are the reservoir
Decrease CD4 count in late stages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: DNA virus
Q.
IgG has subclasses_______________?
2
4
1
3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4
Q.
Anti HBsAB indicates______________?
Resistance to hepatitis B
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Good prognosis
Acute infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Good prognosis
Q.
Causative agents of Vincent
Leptospira and Treponema pallidum
Borrelia recurrents and bateroides
Borrelia burgoloferi and lactobacillus
Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Q.
Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______________?
Serum sickness
Transfusion reaction
Contact dermatitis
Atopic allergy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is________________?
Microscopy
Indirect hemagglutination
Counter immune electroporesis
ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA
Q.
Test for differentiating virulent form non-virulent tubercular bacilli_____________?
Catalase peroxidase test
Aryl sulphatase test
Neutral red test
Niacin test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neutral red test
Q.
Rickettsiae__________________?
All of the above
Multiply within living cell
Respond to tetracycline therapy
Transmitted by arthropod vectors
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Virus is cultured in_______________?
Rogosa medium
Nonembryonated egg
Embryonated egg
Saubourd
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Embryonated egg
Q.
Disinfection frees the surface from______________?
Both of the above
None of the above
Spore forms
Vegetative forms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vegetative forms
Q.
Human immunoglobulins are divided based on_____________?
Functional differences
Structural differences
Complemented fixation
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Structural differences
Q.
Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to__________________?
Invasion
Endotoxin
Exotoxin
Capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Exotoxin
Q.
Chemotactic cytokine is_________________?
TNF
IL-6
IL-8
IL-1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IL-8
Q.
The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in vivo from one bacterium to another by_____________?
Conjugation
Rarefaction
Transformation
Transduction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
The culture media for fungus is__________________?
Chocolate agar medium
NNN medium
Tellurite medium
Sabourauds medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabourauds medium
Q.
Immunoglobin, Which is produced first by the fetus in response to infection_______________?
IgM
IgD
IgG
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Which of the following is an enrichment medium________________?
Selenite F Broth
Blood agar
Mac Conkey agar
Nutrient Broth
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Selenite F Broth
Q.
What is the transport medium for cholera___________________?
Cary Blair Medium
B & C
Tellurite Medium
Venkatraman
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: B & C
Q.
A type of immediately occuring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called_____________?
Type III hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type I hypersensitivity
Q.
Same or closely related antigens present in different biological species are known as________________?
Suquestrated antigens
Isoantigens
Heterophile antigens
Haptens
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Heterophile antigens
Q.
One of the following is an agglutination test in the diagnosis of typhoid___________?
Wasserman test
Eleks test
Widal test
Mantoux test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
Sterilization is a process in which_________________?
Kill all pathogenic micro-organisms
Kill all non-pathogenic micro-organisms in the environment
Deactivate all pathogens not spores
Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Q.
Human immune deficiency virus is ________________ virus?
Retro
Flavi
Rheo
Rhabdo
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Retro
Q.
A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned in to an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis______________?
Calcoflour White
Acid Fast Stain
Trichrome Methylene blue
Carbol Fuschin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trichrome Methylene blue
Q.
Half-life of free HIV in plasma is________________?
3 months
24 hours
6 hours
12 hours
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 6 hours
Q.
Among The infectious diseases transmitted by food, one is___________________?
Viral stomatitis
Diptheria
Tuberculosis
Typhoid fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid fever
Q.
Moist heat kills all of the following EXCEPT_______________?
Mycobacterium
Brucella
Coxiella burnetti
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coxiella burnetti
Q.
The Ig found in exocrine secretions is_____________?
IgD
IgG
IgM
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Operation theatres are sterilized by_____________?
ETO gas
Washing with soap and water
Carbolic acid spraying
Formaldehyde fumigation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Formaldehyde fumigation
Q.
Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci________________?
Sarcina
Micrococcus
Aerococcus
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sarcina
Q.
About Bacteroids True are all Except_______________?
Bile resistant anerobes
Present mainly in mixed infections
Susceptible to many antibiotics
Most common species is B fragilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Susceptible to many antibiotics
Q.
Encapsulation in bacteria helps in__________________?
Oxygen effect
Decreased virulence
Spore formation
Prevent their phagocytosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prevent their phagocytosis
Q.
In initial stages of tyhoid, salmonella can be detected in________________?
Urine
All of the above
Blood
Feacus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood
Q.
All of the following are true of streptococcus except_____________?
Most common is animals
It
Most common in humans
Shows adherence to dental enamel
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It
Q.
Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phase of the bacterial growth curve______________?
Stationary phase
Exponential growth
Lag
Decline
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
Viruses can be cultured in all except_______________?
Guinea pigs
Cell culture
Blood agar
Chick embryo
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood agar
Q.
Kolmer test is a screening test done for_________________?
Lymphoma
Syphilis
Tuberculosis
Gonorrhea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Function of T-lymphocyte is/are________________?
Production of interferon
Rosette formation
All of the above
Lymphokine production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The following are applicable to bacterial genoms except________________?
It doe not contain histones
It is circular
It is composed of DNA
Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Q.
EBV causes all except_________________?
Burkitt
Infectious mononucleosis
Papilloma
Carcinoma of nasopharynx
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma
Q.
Which of the following is not used as disinfectant________________?
1-2% cetrimide
5% chloroxylene
100% alcohol
2% Lysol
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 100% alcohol
Q.
Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by_______________?
M. smegmatis
M. chelonae
M. Kansasii
M. ulcerans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. chelonae
Q.
All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except____________?
HIV
Hepatitis E
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Which of the following correctly indicates the infectivity of hepatitis virus in human ?
HBCAg
Anti-HBS
HBeAg
Anti-HBC
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBeAg
Q.
In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except__________________?
Hemolysis
Malabsorption
Bone marrow depression
Spleen sequestration
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Malabsorption
Q.
Which of the following is not a pox virus ?
Molluscum contagiosum
Cowpox
Small pox
chicken pox
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: chicken pox
Q.
A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is______________?
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
India ink preparation
Methanamine silver stain
Pyte-ferraco stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
Staphylococcal food poisoning includes the following features_______________?
Requires immediate antibiotics
Incubation period of 24 hours
Heat labile enterotoxin
Common with dairy products
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Common with dairy products
Q.
Causative organism for gas gangrene_______________?
Clostridium welchii
Strep. Faecalis
Coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Streptococcus is classified based on__________________?
M Protein
Bile Solubility
Cell wall carbohydrate
Cultural characteristics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall carbohydrate
Q.
compared with autoclave, use of a dry heat over for sterilization has the following disadvantages______________?
Causes sharp instruments to dull
Less effective
Causes instruments to rust
Time-consuming
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Time-consuming
Q.
Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces?
Mesosomes
Pili
Capsule
Flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except_____________?
Salmonella typhi
Neisseria meningitides
Streptococcus pyogenes
Legionella pneumophila
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus pyogenes
Q.
The best sterilization method for a hand-piece is________________?
All of the above
dry heat
chemical vapour
Ethylene oxide gas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ethylene oxide gas
Q.
Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is____________?
Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Secretory IgA
Sialoperoxidase
Histidine rich proteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Q.
Sleeping sickness is caused by_______________?
House fly
Sand fly
Tick
Reduvid bug
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reduvid bug
Q.
The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_____________?
Alopecia areata
Pilomatrixoma
Tenia incognito
Kerison
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kerison
Q.
Steam under pressure in used in ________ sterilization?
Kochs sterilizer
hot air oven
Pasteurization
Autoclave
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The small nonparticulate protein leading to enhanced replication of HBV as well as HIV is______________?
Hbe Ag
HBc Ag
HBs Ag
HBx Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBx Ag
Q.
T cells multiplication is stimulated by_______________?
Bovine serum
Heat
Macrolin
Phytohaemagglutinin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Phytohaemagglutinin
Q.
Bacteria reproduce mainly by______________?
Binary fission
Sporing
Bacterial components produced by host cells
Budding
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Binary fission
Q.
The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine doses not play a major role is______________?
Asthma
Arthus reaction
Anaphylaxis
Urticaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus reaction
Q.
Robertsons cooked meat medium is best suited for cultivation of_______________?
Choleria
S. epidermidis
Mycobacterium
Clostridia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridia
Q.
A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates________________?
Prodromal phase
Carrier state
Convalescence
Acute infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acute infection
Q.
Which of the following organisms does NOT react with gram
Actinomyces israelii
Streptococcus mutan
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Candida albicans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q.
Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins ?
IgE
IgM
IgA
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Disinfection of the rooms can be done by using_______________?
40% formaldehyde vapour
Chlorine gas
20% phenol
High efficiency particle arrestors
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 40% formaldehyde vapour
Q.
Negative staining is used to demonstrate________________?
Bacterial fimbriae
Bacterial Flagella
Bacterial spore
Bacterial capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacterial fimbriae
Q.
Which is not true about vibrio cholera_________________?
It is non-halophilic
Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Grows on simple media
Man is the only natural host
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Q.
Group A carbohydrate of Str. pyogenes cross reacts with human_________________?
Vascular intima
Cardiac valves
Myocardium
Synovial fluid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiac valves
Q.
Pneumococus can be differentiated from streptococcus by________________?
Bile solubility
Type of hemolysis
Growth characteristics
Gram staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bile solubility
Q.
Phage conversion is required for________________?
Tularemia
Gonorrhoea
Diptheria
All o f the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Diptheria
Q.
parasitic inflammation would show predominantly____________________?
Lymphocytes
Eosinophils
Neutrophilis
Basophils
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Eosinophils
Q.
Pseudohphae are seen in____________?
Osporium
Candida albicans
Aspergillus
Alternaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?
Q fever
Relapsing fever
Epidemic typhus
Trench fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Q fever
Q.
The causative organism of syphilis is___________?
Borrelia burgolorferi
Treponema pallidum
Leptospira interrogans
Chalamydia trachomatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema pallidum
Q.
Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except______________?
Strongyloides
Ascaris lumbriocoides
Giardia lambia
Entamoeba
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strongyloides
Q.
Toxoids are_________________?
non-antigenic and toxic
antigenic and toxic
non-antigenic and non-toxic
antigenic and non-toxic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: antigenic and non-toxic
Q.
Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000_________________?
Secretory piece
L chain
J piece
H chain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: H chain
Q.
IL-1 is produced by_________________?
Monocytes
Helper B cells
Helper T cells
Macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Macrophages
Q.
In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by_____________?
Blood culture
Urine culture
Widal test
Stool culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except__________________?
Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection
All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Found exclusively in human beings.
Most common cause of urethritis is male
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Q.
Pigs are important source of_____________?
Yellow fever
Japanese encephalitis
Rabies
Kuru
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Japanese encephalitis
Q.
A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains and haemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism ?
Bile solubility
Bacitracin sensitivity
Cataslase positive
Optochin sensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacitracin sensitivity
Q.
Organ of locomotion in bacteria is________________?
Fimbria
Capsule
Cell wall
Flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flagella
Q.
All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except______________?
Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide
Colony morphology on saliva agar
Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital
Gram staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram staining
Q.
Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in______________?
Hood worm
Ascariasis
Ascariasis and tapeworm
Tapeworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ascariasis
Q.
Bacteria with tuft of flagella at one end are called_______________?
Monotrichate
Lophotrichate
Bipolar
Peritrichate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lophotrichate
Q.
Certain viruses have been isolated in crytalline form and have been found to be_____________?
Nucleoproteins
Scleroproteins
Nucleotides
Phospholipids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleoproteins
Q.
Fungal infection of human beings is called as_____________?
Micromia
Mucorsis
Fungosis
Mycosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycosis
Q.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa_________________?
Causes Shangai fever
Does not produce any pigment
Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.
Produces heat stable enterotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Causes Shangai fever
Q.
The world german measles is applied for_____________?
Herpes simplex
Rubella
Herpetic ginglvostomatitis
Rubeola
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Which of the following provides best gurantee for sterlization in the heat sterilizer ?
Using a bacterial spore test
Recording a temperature/ pressure readings from sterilizer guage
Determining the ability of a sterilizer to kill the hepatitis B virus
Using chemical indicator strip or pouch
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Using a bacterial spore test
Q.
Active artificial immunization is induced by the administration of all of the following EXCEPT______________?
Vaccines
Bacterial products
Toxoids
Antitoxins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antitoxins
Q.
Plaque test is used routinely in virology lab
To prepare vaccines
Identification of viral disease
To maintain certain viral culture
To separate specific clone of virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Identification of viral disease
Q.
The commonest method of detection of diptheria carriers is_______________?
Schick test
Charles
Casoni
Dick test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Schick test
Q.
Most common tumor associated with AIDS is______________?
Carcinoma
Melanoma
Kaposi
Ewing
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kaposi
Q.
Which of the following is a RNA virus ?
Measles virus
Papavo virus
Herpes Virus
Adeno virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
A 6 year old boy comes with abdominal pain, vomiting after consuming mild products within 6 hours. The most likely organism responsible is______________?
Clostridium botulinum
Salmonella
B.Cereus
Staph. aureus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staph. aureus
Q.
The medium of choice for growing most fungi is_______________?
Sabouraud
Tissue culture
Thioglycollate medium
Blood agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
Hydatid cyst is__________________?
Parasitic in nature
Fungal
Congenital
Viral
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parasitic in nature
Q.
Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called______________?
CFT
De coding
Chemotaxis
Opsonisation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Opsonisation
Q.
The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is___________________?
5%
2%
15%
10%
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2%
Q.
Selective media for MYCOBACTERIUM _____________?
Sabourauds medium
Agar
Loefflers serum slope
Lowenstein Jensen medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lowenstein Jensen medium
Q.
A sporangium contains_______________?
Spherules
Chlamydospores
porangiospores
Oidia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: porangiospores
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria can be cultured in__________________?
Robertson cooked meat medium
Loefflers medium
Sabourauds agar
L-J medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robertson cooked meat medium
Q.
All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except________________?
Cysts are 4 nucleated
Trophozoites colonise in the colon
Cysts are 8 nucleated
The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cysts are 8 nucleated
Q.
Gram -ve bacteria stain during gram staining____________?
Red color
Green
Colorless
Blue color
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Red color
Q.
The optimal time and temperature required for sterilization in an autoclave is___________________?
140
121
121
121
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 121
Q.
Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus ?
Condyloma acuminatum
Focal epithelial hyperplasia
Verruca vulgaris
Keratoacanthoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Keratoacanthoma
Q.
IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by______________?
Activated macrophages
Plasma cells
Lymphocytes
Platelet
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Activated macrophages
Q.
The major intestinal pathogens which are non-lactose fermenters are_________________?
Paracolons
Escherichia
Klebsiella
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salmonella
Q.
Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by________________?
ELISA
Culture
Direct microscopy
DNA probe
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Culture
Q.
Which component of the cell wall is responsible________________?
Boivin antigen
Region II
Region III
Region I
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Region III
Q.
In patients with asthma due to an allergic cause the serum levels of which immunoglobulin increase____________________?
IgM
IgE
IgA
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Which regards to temperature requirement, most pathogenic bacteria are_____________?
Thermophiles
Cryophiles
Mesophiles
Psychrophiles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mesophiles
Q.
Negative phase is seen in ________ immunity?
Active
Passive
Herd
Local
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active
Q.
Bacterial cell does not possess___________________?
Mitochondria
dna
Ribosome
Cell wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mitochondria
Q.
Australian antigen is_______________?
HBV
HBs AG
None of the above
HB Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBs AG
Q.
Which does not have a viral etiology______________?
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Hepatoma
Carcinoma Cervix
Lymphoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Endotoxins are produced by________________?
Fungi
Gram +ve bacteria
Gram -ve bacteria
Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram -ve bacteria
Q.
EBV is responsible for all except______________?
Hepatoma
Burkitt
Infectious mononucleosis
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Complement factor through which common pathway begins___________________?
Protein B
C2
C5
C3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C3
Q.
Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is___________________?
Lungs
Brain
Liver
Spleen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Liver
Q.
The time gap between appearance of Koplik
2 weeks
3-4 days
24 Hrs
10 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3-4 days
Q.
CD4 cells recognize the antigens in association with_____________?
MHC II
MHC I
MHC III
B-cell receptor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: MHC II
Q.
Each of the following viruses possesses an outer lipoprotein envelope except_____________?
Varicella Zoster Virus
Human immunodeficiency virus
Influenza Virus
Papilloma Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma Virus
Q.
Mark true in following ?
Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Q.
First released immunoglobulin after primary immunization_______________?
IgG
IgM
IgD
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is_________________?
T-strain mycoplasma
Neisseria gonorrhea
Escherichia coli
Streptococcus fecalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Escherichia coli
Q.
Black water fever is caused by______________?
Microfilaria
Leishmania donovani
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______________?
Dot
Banana
Comma
Sickle
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sickle
Q.
Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____________?
1 week
6 week
6 months
3 months
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 week
Q.
About Psedomonas. All are true except________________?
Strick aerobes
Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Can grow in disinfectants in hospital
Most common organism is burn patient
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except_______________?
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through plasmids
Through conjugation
Through bacteriophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____________?
3,10,19
6,8,11
Type 6,12,18
16,18,31
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 16,18,31
Q.
Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except_______________?
Embryonated eggs
Tissue culture
Chemically defined media
Animals
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chemically defined media
Q.
Type of receptor present on T-cells are__________________?
Prostaglandins
CD4
Ig A
Ig G
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4
Q.
All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_____________?
Chromatid bars
Refractile nucleus
Glycogen mass
Eccentric nucleus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile nucleus
Q.
Leprosy bacilli can be grown in_________________?
Testes of albino rats
Tail of guinea pig
Testes of guinea pig
Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Q.
Group A B-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the pharynx may be followed in some by_____________?
Diphtheria
Syphilis
Rheumatic fever
Typhoid fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatic fever
Q.
Secretory Ig is_______________?
IgA
IgD
IgE
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Which of the following viruses does not infect salivary glands ?
Echo virus
Orthomyxovirus
Hepatitis C
HIV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxovirus
Q.
Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following________________?
Sabin
Tetanus toxoid
Salk vaccine
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salk vaccine
Q.
True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by_______________?
Cow
cats
Rats
Dogs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cats
Q.
Candidal hyphae can be stained using_______________?
Van Gieson
Toluidine blue stain
Masson Trichrome stain
Periodic acid schiff stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Periodic acid schiff stain
Q.
The prototype of Type II hypersensitivity reaction is__________________?
SLE
Contact dermatitis
Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Arthus reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Q.
The earliest identifiable cells of T-Cell lineage during maturation are_______________?
CD8+ Pre-T-Cells
CD5+ Pre-T-Cells
CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
CD8+ Pro-T-Cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
Q.
Dengue virus belongs to______________?
Rhabdoviridae
Flavi virus
Reoviridae
Togaviridae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi virus
Q.
T cell matures in______________?
Lymph node
Busra of Fabricius
Thymus
Payers patch
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thymus
Q.
The presence of Which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility ?
Lipids
Protein coat
Polysaccharide
Enzymes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein coat
Q.
Wasserman test test is diagnostic of__________________?
Gonorrhea
Tyhoid
Syphilis
TB
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Glasswares are sterilised by______________?
Autoclaving
Hot air oven
Formaldehyde
Incineration
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by which of the following_____________?
All of the above
Boiling
Ethanol
Cidex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affets_______________?
Fibroblasts
Mast cells
Red blood cells
Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Q.
Which of the following enzyme is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot pathogenic staphylococci_____________?
Lysozyme
Fibrinolysin
Coagulase
S protein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coagulase
Q.
Secondary response is mediated by_______________?
IgA
IgM
IgE
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Bacterial species which is protective or beneficial to the host is_______________?
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Streptococcus sanguis
Spirochetes
Treponema denticola
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus sanguis
Q.
Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve________________?
Duodenum
Stomach
Caecum and large intestine
Jejunum and Ileum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caecum and large intestine
Q.
A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents________________?
Allo
Xeno
Auto
ISO
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Allo
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical mycobacteria by______________?
Pas staining
AFB staining
None of the above
Niacin test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Niacin test
Q.
The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by____________?
Transduction
Translation
Conjugation
Cell fusion
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
Sterilisation control for moist heat is
Using non-pathogenic strain of clostridium tetani
Using chemical indicator
using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Using methylene blue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Q.
Complement binding immunoglobin via the classical pathway is_______________?
IgD & IgE
IgG & IgA
IgG & IgD
IgG & igM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG & igM
Q.
Commonest mycobacterial infection in tropical countries_______________?
M. tuberculosis
Kansasi
M. leprae
M. avium intracellulare
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. tuberculosis
Q.
Sterilisation is______________?
Only pathogenic micro-organisms killed
Pathogens killed but spores are not affected
Non-pathogenic killed
All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Q.
Killer and Helper cells are part of_______________?
B cells
Macrophage
Monocytes
T cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T cells
Q.
Bacteriophage was discovered by_________________?
Menkin
Robert koch
Metchinkoff
Twort and d
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Twort and d
Q.
Growth factor needed for Salmonella_________________?
B-12
Niacin
Citrate
Tryptophan
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Tryptophan
Q.
Louis Pasteur is not associated with_______________?
Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Introduction of complex media
Discovery of Rabies Vaccine
Disproved spontaneous regression theory
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Q.
Synthesis of antibodies in plasma cells occurs in_________________?
Nucleus
Endoplasmic reticulum
Mitochondria
Golgi body
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.
Leishmania is cultured in ________________ media?
Chocolate agar
Sabourauds
NNN
Tellurite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NNN
Q.
Purpose of Sterilization is to eliminate________________?
Fungus
Viruses
Bacteria
Spore formers
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spore formers
Q.
The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to_____________?
Dehydrate microbial cells
Inhibit microbial growth
Remove microbes
Kill mircobes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Remove microbes
Q.
The only virus, which has double stranded RNA, is______________?
Bunya virus
Calci virus
Rhabdo virus
Reo virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reo virus
Q.
Culture media of candida is_________________?
All of the above
Methylene blue dextrose agar
Pingolevin
Saboraud
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saboraud
Q.
L.D bodies are seen in_______________?
Sleeping sickness
Kalahazar
Malaria
Toxoplasmosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kalahazar
Q.
Schuffner
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium malariae
Plasmodium ovale
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium vivax
Q.
Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus infection during window period ?
None of the above
Anti HBs
HBs Ag
IgM anti
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM anti
Q.
Delhi boil refer to_______________?
Malignant pustule
Venereal ulcer
Solar Keratosis
L. Tropica sore
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: L. Tropica sore
Q.
Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except________________?
50% chances to have AIDS
Have infections
Failure to thrive
All are true
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 50% chances to have AIDS
Q.
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to_______________?
Histiocytes
T lymphocytes
B lymphocytes
Monocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T lymphocytes
Q.
The cell wall deficient bacteria_______________?
Chlamydiae
Ehrlichiae
Mycoplasma
Rickettsiae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycoplasma
Q.
Pasteur developed the vaccine for_______________?
Cholera
Anthrax
Rabies
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Borrelia vincenti is always associated with______________?
Fusiform bacilli
Spirochaetes
Treponema vincenti
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fusiform bacilli
Q.
The Manufacturing unit of surgical needle & sutures are sterilized by ________________?
X-Rays
Boiling
Autoclaving
Gamma-Rays
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma-Rays
Q.
Glutaraldehyde is preferred more than formaldehyde because______________?
It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Its application is easier
It has got more bactericidal activity
It has got more bacteriostatic activity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Q.
The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is_____________?
Sabourad
Chorio allantoic membrane
Robertoson
Chocolate agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chorio allantoic membrane
Q.
Rh incompatibility is which type of hyper sensitivity reaction ?
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Type I
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Silver impregnation method of staining is useful to demonstrate_____________?
Both of the above
None of the above
Spirochetes
Bacterial flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both of the above
Q.
Which of the following would you consider to be general properties of viruses______________?
Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Contain DNA but no RNA
New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses
Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Q.
Dematophytes are fungi infecting________________?
Subcutaneous tissue
Systemic organs
Superficial skin and deep tissue
Nails, hair and skin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nails, hair and skin
Q.
Chlamydia causes all of the following except________________?
Trachoma
Parotitis
Pneumonia
Non-gonococcal urethritis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parotitis
Q.
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (SSS syndrome) is due to______________?
Enterotoxin F
Enterotoxin B
Enterotoxin A
Enterotoxin D
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterotoxin F
Q.
Leprosy bacilli are transmitted from person to person by all except______________?
Through intact skin
From open sore
Through breast milk
Dischange from nasal mucosa
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Through breast milk
Q.
ASO (Antistreptolysin 0) test is uesd for the diagnosis of________________?
Rheumatie fever
Rheumatoid arthritis
Rickettsial fever
Typhoid fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatie fever
Q.
Actinomycetes is______________?
Gram negative bacteria
Gram positive bacteria
Fungus
A yeast like form
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is_____________?
Ninhydrin stain
Eosin stain
Blue stain
Haemotoxin stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ninhydrin stain
Q.
Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by_____________?
Bacteria
Bacteria superadded on virus
Virus
Parasite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
The term animalcules to oral microorganisms is given by__________________?
Robertson
Socranci
Leumenhoek
Wd miller
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leumenhoek
Q.
Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly_______________?
Nasal mucosa
Lung
Gastrointestinal tract
Skin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gastrointestinal tract
Q.
Phospholipid used to investigate syphilis by the reagin test is________________?
Plasminogen
Cardiolipin
Serine
Palmityl lecithin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiolipin
Q.
Cleavage of IgG molecule by Papin gives rise to:One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments_______________?
Two Fc fragments and two Fab fragments
One Fc fragment and four Fab fragments
One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Two Fc fragment and one Fab fragment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Q.
Following reaction are produced by heterophil antigens except_____________?
Weil-Felix reaction
Widal reaction
Forssman antigen antibody reaction
Paul bunnel reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal reaction
Q.
The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______________?
IgA
IgD
IgE
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV irradiation_______________?
Lipids
Inorganic salts
Carbohydrates
Nucleic acids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleic acids
Q.
Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by________________?
Sucrose
Dextran
Epithelial cells
Bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dextran
Q.
The anaphylaxis should be treated first with_____________?
Anti histamines
Antibiotics
Steroids
Epinephrine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epinephrine
Q.
Dorset
Mycobacterium
Gonococcus
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best demonstrated by_________________?
H & E stain
Gram
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
PAS stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Q.
The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is______________?
Borrelia vincenti
Borrelia burgdorferi
Treponjema pertenue
Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti
Q.
Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is ________________?
Rhizopus
Mucor
Penicillium
Aspergillus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus
Q.
Best method of sterilizing disposable syringes_______________?
Hot air oven
Boiling
Gamma rays
U.V. rays
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma rays
Q.
Anaphylaxis refers to the________________?
Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions
Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens
State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________________?
Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Causes meningitis
Melanin production related to virulence
Basidiomycetes yeast
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Q.
The Process of attenuation can be achieved by all except___________________?
Growing bacteria in unconventional host
Serial passage in an experimental host
Repeated cultures in artificial media
Growing bacteria in adverse environment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serial passage in an experimental host
Q.
Probiotic organism used_________________?
Bifido bacteria
E coli
Staphylococcus
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bifido bacteria
Q.
Staphylococcus does not causes_______________?
Abscess
Pneumonia
Osteomyelitis
Scarlet fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Scarlet fever
Q.
Oil and Grease are sterilized by________________?
Irradiation
Hot air oven
Ethylene dioxide
Auto claving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Most sensitive test for antigen detection is_______________?
Passive hemaglutination
Immunoflourescence
Radioimmuno Assay
ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Radioimmuno Assay
Q.
Antigen combining site of the antibody is____________________?
Epitope
Idiotope
Hapten
Paratope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Paratope
Q.
The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______________?
Induration
Vasculitis
Erythema
Necrosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythema
Q.
The most common site where organisms are present in a typhoid carrier is______________?
Gall Bladder
Spleen
Salivary gland
Liver
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gall Bladder
Q.
Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause foetal defect ?
Mumps
Herpes Simplex
Papilloma
Rubella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Babu, a 28 year old male comes with compaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by____________?
P24 antigen
Western blot
ELISA
Lymph node biopsy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: P24 antigen
Q.
The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is ________________?
hypersensitivity
Coagulase production
lecithinase production
exotoxin production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: hypersensitivity
Q.
In T.B cell mediated immunity is by_______________?
None of the above
CD 8*
B
CD 4*
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD 4*
Q.
Australia antigen is associated with________________?
Basal cell carcinoma
Chronic leukemia
AIDS
Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Q.
Incubation pariod of herpes zoster is________________?
1-2 years
1 months
7-14 days
3-6 months
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 7-14 days
Q.
Salmonella typhi can be isolated at different times from______________?
Feaces
Blood
Urine
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which of the following antibacterial substance is present in eggs and saliva ?
Lysozyme
Isozyme
Secretozyme
Albumin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysozyme
Q.
Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection_________________?
Giardia lambella
Taenia solium
Isopora belli
Balantidium coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Taenia solium
Q.
Electron microscopic examination of the bacterial flora of necrotising ulcerative gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are______________?
Spirochetes
Filamentous rods
Cocci
Bacteriophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
The most frequently encountered clostridial species in gas gangrene is______________?
Clostridium welchii
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium botulinum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Q fever is caused by________________?
R. quintana
C. burnetti
R. prowozekii
Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C. burnetti
Q.
Mesophilic organisms are those that grow best at temperature of______________?
25
55
-7
-20
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 25
Q.
An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry cough, sputum culture showed growth on charcoal yeast Extract Medium, theorganism is______________?
Burkholderia cepacia
Moraxella catarrhalis
H. influenza
Legionella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Legionella
Q.
Techoic acid is present in_____________?
Cytoplasm of Gram positive organisms
Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram negative organisms
Cell wall of Gram negative organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Q.
Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?
The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission
The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously
Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Causes positive Nagler reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Q.
Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by_________________?
Fish tapeworm
Hookworm
Threadworm
Dog tapeworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fish tapeworm
Q.
Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?
Prions
Mycobacteria
Spore
Coccidia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prions
Q.
Blood agar is________________?
Transport media
Simple media
Enriched media
Differential media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enriched media
Q.
Signs of tyhoid fever is/are_____________________?
perforation
Haemorrhage
Osteomyelitis
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by ___________________?
Cryptococcus
Mucor
Aspergillus
Candida albicans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction______________?
Proteus
Haemophilus
E.coli
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?
Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Immediately wash wound with soap and water
Give ARV
Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Q.
One of the following is a zoonotic disease_____________?
Cholera
Bacillary dysentery
Anthrax
Typhoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anthrax
Q.
Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of______________?
Gas gangrene
Wool sorters disease
Malaria
Whooping cough
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gas gangrene
Q.
Which of the following is a live vaccine_____________?
Salk
17 D
Hepatitis
HDCV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HDCV
Q.
The function of IgD is______________?
Antigen recognition by B cells
Compliment activation
Reagin activity
Localization protection in external secretion
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antigen recognition by B cells
Q.
The following statement is true regarding fungal infection__________________?
Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal
Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man
Candida infection is usually endogenous
albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida infection is usually endogenous
Q.
One of the following staining methods is an example of negative staining_______________?
Zheil-Neilson
Gram
India ink preparation
Fontana
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
All are true about widel test except________________________?
High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative
O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
H antigen cannot differentiate between subtypes
Base lines differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Q.
The virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhea include all of the following except____________?
M-Proteins
Outer membrane proteins
IgA Protease
Pili
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M-Proteins
Q.
Characteristic feature of retrovirus is_____________?
Reverse transcriptase
DNA polymerase
Ribonuclease
Restriction endonuclease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reverse transcriptase
Q.
Serum sickness syndrome is an example of________________?
Systemic arthus reaction
Angioneurotic edema
Anaphylactic
Cell-mediated immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Systemic arthus reaction
Q.
The Window period in HIV infection means______________?
The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
None of the above
The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS
The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
Q.
Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to________________?
Reduce the antigenicity
reduce the toxigenicity
Increase toxigenicity
Increase antigenicity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increase antigenicity
Q.
Which of the following is true about amoebic liver disease ?
Non-suppurative form is the serious form of extra intestinal amoebiasis
Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Portal system is the main filtration system
Left lobe of liver is commonly involved
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Q.
Teichoic acid is present in cell walls of_________________?
Protozoa
Yeast
Gram negative bacteria
Gram positive bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Grave
Type III
Type IV
Type I
Type II
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Madura mycosis produces______________?
Red granules
White to yellow granules
Brown to black granules
No granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: White to yellow granules
Q.
A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?
Bartonella spp
Pasturella spp
Francisella spp
Brucella spp
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Brucella spp
Q.
Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a_______________?
Western Blot
ELISA
RIPA
Immunodot
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Western Blot
Q.
Rabies virus________________?
Neurotropic
Chromophilic
Dermatotropic
Cytotropic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neurotropic
Q.
Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is_______________?
IgG
IgM
IgA
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
B.C.G untrue is_____________?
Orally administered
live vaccine
T.B vaccine
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orally administered
Q.
In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a_______________?
Toxin
Super antigen
Carrier
Hapten
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hapten
Q.
Thread worm is______________?
Enterobius
Ancylostoma
Ascaris
Necator
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterobius
Q.
Endotoxin have all but one of the properties given below_______________?
Not secreted outside the cell
Cannot be toxoided
Produced by gram negative bacteria
Produced by gram positive bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Produced by gram positive bacteria
Q.
The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is___________?
The catalase test
Mannitol fermentation
Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes
Detection of coagulase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Detection of coagulase
Q.
Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus is due to ________________________?
Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Pleomorphism
Lack of nucleic acid in the cell wall
Penicillin analogue production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Q.
Influenza is caused by_____________?
Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Q.
Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is_________________?
2:1
1:2
3:1
1:3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2:1
Q.
On a stained slide, clostridium tetani has the appearance of a__________________?
Safely pin
Drum stick
Chain of beads
Bunch of a
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Drum stick
Q.
Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine ?
Typhoid
Tuberculosis (BCG)
Cholera
Varicella Zoster virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cholera
Q.
which of the following is anaerobic_______________?
E.coli
Bacteroides
Pseudomonas
Klebsiella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacteroides
Q.
Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstratig________________?
Cysts in the sterile pus
Cysts in the intestine
Trophozoites in the pus
Trophozoites in the feces
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites in the pus
Q.
The urine sample of a patient has been sent to the laboratory to look for Leptospira. The specimen is to be screened by use of the__________________?
Dark ground microscope
Inverted microscope
Scanning microscope
Electron microscope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dark ground microscope
Q.
Function of Ig A is________________?
Activates macrophages
Kills virus infected cells
Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Circulating antibody
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Q.
Aflatoxins are produced by________________?
Aspergillus niger
All of the above
Aspergillus flavus
Aspergillus fumigatus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus flavus
Q.
The chemotactic factor is______________?
C5a
C4a
C3b
C2a
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C5a
Q.
Characters of exotoxin include all, except_______________?
Highly potent
Heat labile
Protein polysaccharide complex
Has specific tissue affinity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein polysaccharide complex
Q.
Leptospirosis, all are true except______________?
Incubation period is 10 days
Faeces & urine of rodents is the cause
Onset of IgM in 2 days
It is sensitive to penicillin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Onset of IgM in 2 days
Q.
Which of the following belongs to cell fraction derived vaccine______________?
Hepatitis B
Rubella
Measles
Mumps
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B
Q.
The killer cells are associated with immunologic response___________________?
Type II
Type I
Type IV
Type III
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
The term epitope refers to________________?
Smallest antigenic determinant
complete antigen molecule
Immunogen
Hapten
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Smallest antigenic determinant
Q.
Drumstick appearance is seen in______________?
Cl. tetani
All of the above
Cl. sphenoids
Cl. tetanomorphum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. tetani
Q.
The commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercie bacilli________________?
Thioglavin
Acridine orange
Auramine and Rhodamine
Congo red
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine and Rhodamine
Q.
Common name for Trichuris trichura________________?
Round worm
Tape worm
Whip worm
Seat woman
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Whip worm
Q.
Herpes virus_____________?
Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane
Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Q.
The specific test for Treponema pallidum is___________?