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TOP Microbiology MCQS Questions
Q.
Bacterial spores are destroyed by_______________?
Autoclave
Boiling at 100
Disinfection by hypochlorite solution
Pasteurisation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The interaction of antigens with antibodies on the surface of a mast cel leads to degranulation and anaphylaxis. The mast cell granules produce anaphylaxis because they contain________________?
Lysosomes
Lymphotoxins
Vasoactive mediators
Proteolytic enzymes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vasoactive mediators
Q.
Bacteria with potent exotoxin is_______________?
Clostridium tetani
Klebsiella
Pseudomonas
Shigella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani
Q.
True about prions________________?
Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective
Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Viruses which are genetically deficient
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Q.
The best skin disinfectant is________________?
Alcohol
Savlon
Chlorhexdine
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chlorhexdine
Q.
Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates_____________?
High infectivity
Late convalescence
Carrier status
Simple carriers
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: High infectivity
Q.
The facultative anaerobic bacteria are those who are_______________?
Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Able to grow in the presence of carbon dioxide
Unable to grow in the presence of oxygen
Unable to grow in the absence of oxygen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Q.
A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium malaria
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium ovale
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Erysipelas is caused by________________?
Pneumococci
Group A steptococci
Group B staphylococci
Gonococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B staphylococci
Q.
True about immune response of hepatitis B is__________________?
Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
CMI disappears soon after recover
Antibody to HBC is not protective
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Q.
Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria______________?
Saborauds agar
Mc Conkey
Lowenstein Jensen Medium
Loefflers serum slope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Loefflers serum slope
Q.
A full course of immunization agianst. Telanus with 3 doses to Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how many years ?
5
10
15
20
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 10
Q.
Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?
Virus isolation
Polymers chain reaction
Western blot followed by ELISA
ELISA followed by western blot technique
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA followed by western blot technique
Q.
Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-5m in size, multi-septate, chestnut, brown color is characteristic of________________?
Histoplasmosis
Rhinosporodiosis
Phaeohypomycosis
Chromoblastomycosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chromoblastomycosis
Q.
The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell
Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Haemagglutination test
Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
Haemagglutination inhibition test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Q.
An oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod which produces a bluish-green pigment has been grown in culture from a swab obtained from an infected burn wound. This organism is susceptible to gentamicin, ticarcillin and tobramicin, but resistant to all the other antibiotics which of the following organisms is it likely to be ?
Klebsiella pnemoniae
Proteus miribilis
Escherichia coli
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q.
Exaltation is________________?
Increased Virulence
Decreased virulence
No change
None
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increased Virulence
Q.
Which of the following is not true of boiling water_____________?
Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis
Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Can kill vegetative bacterial cells
It can kill hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Q.
The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is_______________?
IgG
IgD
IgM
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Germ tubes are formed mainly by_______________?
Candida tropicalis
Candida pseudotropicalls
Candida albicans
Candida stellatoidea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
The best method of sterilization of dressing powder is_____________?
Hot air oven
Tyndallization
Inspissation
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with______________?
Lysozyme
IgA antibodies
Mast cells
IgM antibodies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA antibodies
Q.
Loss of capsule in bacteria is generally associated with______________?
Decease in virulence
Loss of infectivity
increase in invasiveness
Inability to spread through tissue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Decease in virulence
Q.
Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify______________?
Spirochaetes
Rickettsiae
Mycoplasma
Chlamydiae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochaetes
Q.
Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_____________?
Tuberculosis
Candidiasis
Cryptococcosis
Aspergilosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candidiasis
Q.
Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans_________________?
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Hot air oven is used for sterilization of all EXCEPT__________________?
Glassware
Liquid paraffin
Rubber tubes
Sharp instrument
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubber tubes
Q.
Which worm is longest________________?
Hook worm
A. Lumbricoides
T. Saginata
T. Solium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T. Saginata
Q.
Malignant pustule is referred to_________________?
Facio-cervical actinomycosis
None of the above
Infected squamous cell carcinoma
Cutaneous anthrax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cutaneous anthrax
Q.
In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started________________?
Herpes
Influenza
Rabies
Poliomyelitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabies
Q.
True about VDRL test________________?
All of the above
Slide flocculation test
Non
Best followed for drug therapy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is_____________?
Hepatitis A virus
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
Lancefields classification of B hemolytic streptococcus is based on______________?
Polysaccharide C antigen
Type of lipid in cell membrane
Physiological properties
M Protein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Polysaccharide C antigen
Q.
Virulence of Gonococcus is due to___________________?
Cell Membrane
Cytolytic enzymes
Its intracellular location
Pili
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
Which of the following fulfil all the criterias of kich
N. gonorrhoeae
Mycobacterium leprae
Treponema pallidum
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: None of the above
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria grow_______________?
in the absence of oxygen
in the presence of nitrogen
in the presence of oxygen
differential media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in the absence of oxygen
Q.
Which of the following is an acid-fast bacillus_____________?
Mycobacterium bacilli
All of the above
Treponema pallidum
Neisseria gonorrhea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium bacilli
Q.
Which of the following is obligate aerobe ?
Proteus
Pseudomonas aerogenosa
diphtheria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Q.
Malaria pigment is________________?
Haematin-globin pigment
Iron
Haemoglobin
Bilurubin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haematin-globin pigment
Q.
The key cell types involved in the acquired immunity include all EXCEPT________________?
Antigen presenting cells (APC
T lymphocytes
B lymphocytes
Erythrocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythrocytes
Q.
Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor_____________?
M protein
Streptolysin 0
Carbohydrate cell wall
Pyrogenic exotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pyrogenic exotoxin
Q.
The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as_____________?
Clone
Epitope
Idiotope
Paratope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epitope
Q.
Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose_______________?
Anaphylaxis
Contact dermatitis
Arthus reaction
Serum sickness
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Immunoglobulin consists of________________?
1 heavy, 2 light chains
1 light, 1 heavy chain
2 light, 2 heavy chains
3 light, 1 heavy chain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2 light, 2 heavy chains
Q.
Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in________________?
Tissue culture
Artificial media
Rabbit testis only
Chick embryos
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabbit testis only
Q.
Which of the following characteristics of bacteria is not true?
Cell wall containing muramic acid
Unicellular
Free living
Having either DNA or RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Having either DNA or RNA
Q.
A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT________________?
Teichoplanin
Linezolid
Imipenem
Vancomycin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Imipenem
Q.
The overall effect of HIV is to gradually impair the immune system by interference with______________?
Natural killer cells
Helper T lymphocytes
Macrophages
Plasma cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes
Q.
Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?
Surface antibody
Surface antigen
Core antibody
Core antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Surface antigen
Q.
Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies_____________?
Small pox
Chicken pox
Rabies
Measles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles
Q.
Prozone phenomenon is due to______________?
Excess antibody
Disproportionate antigen antibody levels
Hyper immune reaction
Excess antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Excess antibody
Q.
Actinomycosis is a_________________?
Anaerobic bacterial disease
Aerobic fungal disease
Aerobic bacterial disease
Anaerobic fungal disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic bacterial disease
Q.
HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except________________?
Saliva
Sexual intercourse
Needle prick injury
Blood transmission
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saliva
Q.
Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_______________?
Presence of either DNA or RNA
Complex multiplication
Simple structure
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
False +ve for VDRL is seen in______________?
Yaws
Lepromatous Leprosy
Malaria
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Most fungi of medical importance belongs to__________________?
Ascomycetes
Zygomycetes
Deuteromycetes
Basidiomycetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deuteromycetes
Q.
Most of the drug resistances occurs due to_____________?
Transduction
conjugation
Mutation
Transformation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: conjugation
Q.
The bacterial cell wall has all of the following properties except______________?
It is the structure principally responsible for the reaction of gram staining
It contains D-isomers of amino acids
It consists of a mixed polymer called peptidoglycon
It is a unique flexible plastic structure
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It is a unique flexible plastic structure
Q.
The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is_____________?
Apthous stomatitis
Herpetic gingivostomatitis
Tuberculosis
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Q.
Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in which of the following viruses_____________?
HIV
Hepatitis B virus
Measles virus
Pox virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is______________?
Bartonella henselae
Donovania granulomatis
Chlamydia trachomatis
Hemophilia ducreya
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bartonella henselae
Q.
Which of the following is not a feature of anaphylaxis ?
None of the above
Delayed reaction
Immediate reaction
passive transfer by serum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Delayed reaction
Q.
DNA covering material in a virus is called as________________?
Capsomere
Nucleocapsid
Envelope
Capsid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Capsid
Q.
ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______________?
Less sensitive less specific
More sensitive, more specific
Less sensitive, more specific
More sensitive, less specific
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: More sensitive, less specific
Q.
Who first introduced solid media_______________?
Louis pasteur
Hensen
Robert koch
Ogston
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robert koch
Q.
cAMP reaction is shown by which streptococci ?
Group D
Group C
Group B
Group A
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B
Q.
Widal test is specific for____________?
Plague
Typhoid
Pemhigoid
Leprosy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid
Q.
Which of the following is not a koch
The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue
Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the experimental animals
Pure cultures can be obtained
When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Q.
All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_________________?
gingivalis
histolytica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: gingivalis
Q.
When horse serum is injected intravenoulsy in to a rabbit and again in to the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs as the site of the second injection________________?
Serum sickness
Arthus phenomenon
Atopy
Anaphylaxis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus phenomenon
Q.
Fimbriae are demonstrated by ___________________?
Haemagglutination test
Biochemical reaction
Culture
Gram stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haemagglutination test
Q.
The following is not true of Candida albicans______________?
Yeast like fungus
Blastomeres seen in isolates
Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them
Forms Chlamydospores
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blastomeres seen in isolates
Q.
The temperature required for cultivating mycobacterium________________?
2 degree
0 degree
37 degrees
27 degrees
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 37 degrees
Q.
All are true about bordetella pertussis except______________?
It may occur in children and young adult after vaccination
Most common cause is B. Petrussis
Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Bacteria culture from nasopharyngeal swab is the definitive diagnosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Q.
Causative organism of Kalahazar is_______________?
Plasmodium ovaie
Entamoeba histolytica
Toxoplasma
Leishman donovani
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leishman donovani
Q.
Interferon interferes with replication of virus at the time of_____________?
DNA/RNA replication
When virus enters the cell
Protein synthesis
Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein synthesis
Q.
Rideal Walker test is used to determine the efficiency of the_____________?
Dry heat sterilization
Disinfectant
Antibiotics
Moist heat sterilisation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Disinfectant
Q.
The difference between sterilization and disinfection is that_______________?
Sterilization involves chemicals and disinfection involves physical methods
Disinfection kills all spores but sterilization does not
Sterilization is easier to achieve
Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Q.
The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is_______________?
Transformation
Translation
Lysogeny
Conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysogeny
Q.
For uniform staining reaction, morphology and biochemical activity it is advisable to study bacterial cultures during the_____________?
Lag phase
Death phase
Logarithmic phase
Stationary phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Logarithmic phase
Q.
The structure in involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface is_______________?
None of the above
Flagella
Fimbria
Capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fimbria
Q.
Vibrio cholera was discovered by_________________?
Medintoff
John snow
Koch
Virchow
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Koch
Q.
Noguchi
None of the above
Bordetella
Borrelia
Brucella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia
Q.
Donovanosis, true is___________________?
Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic
Characterized by painful genital ulcers
Penicillin is drug of choice
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Q.
Which of the following statement about P24 antigen of HIV is Not True ?
Virus load parallel P24 titre
It can be detected during the window period
Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:
It remains during asymptomatic phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It remains during asymptomatic phase
Q.
A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?
Autograft
Allograft
Xenograft
Isograft
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Isograft
Q.
In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_______________?
Hypnozoite
Gametocyte
Merozoite
Sporozoite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sporozoite
Q.
Virus infected cell is killed by________________?
Macrophages
Interferons
Autolysis
Neutrophils
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Interferons
Q.
In small intestine, cholera toxin acts by______________?
Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
Activation of GTPase
ADP
Active absorption of NaCI
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ADP
Q.
Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by_____________?
Haemolytic streptococci
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus viridans
Nisseria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus viridans
Q.
Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by______________?
Inspissation
UV-Radiation
Autoclaving
Hot air oven
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Candida is most often implicated in causation___________________?
Conjunctivitis
Tenea capitis
Desert rheumatism
Thrush
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thrush
Q.
Diphtheria is pathogenic only when infected with______________?
Lambda K12
Beta phage
Alfa phage
Delta Phage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Beta phage
Q.
The antigen used in Weil Felix test is obtained from________________?
Proteus
Staphylococcus
coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to______________?
CD4 T-cells
NK
B
CD8 T-cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4 T-cells
Q.
Actinomycosis is caused by______________?
Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Acid fast, non-motile bacillus
Fungus
Retrovirus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Q.
The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route________________?
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis D virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______________?
Western Blot is
PCR is
ELISA IS
Both are
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both are
Q.
Lepromin test is useful for________________?
Diagnosis
Epidemiology
Treatment plan
Prognosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prognosis
Q.
Staphylococci typically occur in_________________?
Chains
Tetrads
Irregular clusters
Pairs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Irregular clusters
Q.
The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the________________?
CH2 domian
VL domian
CH1 domian
CL domian
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CH2 domian
Q.
Multiple drug resistance of bacteria depends on which of the following_______________?
Colicigenic factor (Col)
All of the above
Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Fertility factor (F+)
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Q.
Immunity that is conferred to the foetus by transfer of IgG and IgA antibodies is called as______________?
Passive acquired immunity
Natural active immunity
Active acquired immunity
Passive natural immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Passive natural immunity
Q.
Viron is defined as______________?
None of the above
Smallest virus
Extracellular infectious virus particle
A smallest particle similar to virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Extracellular infectious virus particle
Q.
Cough plate method is used to identify________________?
M-Tuberculosis
Mycoplasma
Y. pestis
Pertussis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pertussis
Q.
Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functional of the cell______________?
nucleus
membrane
Capsule
wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: membrane
Q.
A dentist suffred from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is_____________?
Convalscent carrier
Inactive carrier
Paradoxical carrier
Healthy carrier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Convalscent carrier
Q.
Sunlight acts as sterilizing agent because_________________?
Heat
Long wavelength
Ozone
short wave lenght
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: short wave lenght
Q.
Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in______________?
4 weeks
12 weeks
2 weeks
9 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4 weeks
Q.
What is the sequence which a retro virus follows on entering a host cell ?
DNA-RNA
RNA -DNA-RNA
RNA-DNA
DNA-RNA-DNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: RNA -DNA-RNA
Q.
Nagglers reaction detects________________?
Lecithinase
Coagulase
Hyaluronidase
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Man is the only reservoir for_______________?
histolytica
Y. enterocolitica
Camphylobacter jejuni
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: histolytica
Q.
Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_________________?
Lecithinase
Cytokinin
Theta toxin
Desmolase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except___________________?
through conjugation
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through bacteriophages
Though plasmids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is__________________?
Hepatitis vaccination
Immune blood transfusion
Placental transfer of antibodies
Gamma globulin injection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Placental transfer of antibodies
Q.
All are true about legionella pneumophilia except______________?
Aquatic bodies are main habitat
It can replicate in amoeba
Person to person transmission
Urine test is a reliable method
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Person to person transmission
Q.
Smith noguchi
Spirochetes
Salmonella
Bacillus
Klebsiella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
Tyndallisation is carried out for________________?
60 minutes
Three successive days
Two successive days
One day
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Three successive days
Q.
Prions true is____________?
Sensitive to most chemical sterilization
Contains DNA/ RNA
Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Evokes strong immunogenic reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Q.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which of the following________________?
Plasma cells
Active T cells
NK cells
B-cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active T cells
Q.
All are oncogenic except________________?
Aedes
Anopheles
Culex
Mansoni
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aedes
Q.
Which of the following viruses appears to be involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi
Human Herpes Virus 3
Human Herpes Virus 8
Human Herpes Virus 4
Human Herpes Virus 1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Human Herpes Virus 4
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Vincent
Caused by leptospira interrogans
Caused due to malnutrition
A symbiotic infection
Ulcerative gingivostomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by leptospira interrogans
Q.
Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores can be achieved with_______________?
KOH wet mount
Grocott Gomori Methenamine silver
Hematoxylin and Eosin
Peri-iodic Acid Schiff
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: KOH wet mount
Q.
The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum ?
IgG1
IgG3
IgG2
IgG4
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG1
Q.
Cytopathic effect is shown by_____________?
Anaerobe
Spirochete
Bacteria
Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
Methods for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infection________________?
Wood light examination
KOH staining
All of the above
Microscopic examination of skin scrapings
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Culture medium used for Bordatella pertussis is_________________?
Bordet Gengou medium
Wilson Blair medium
Robertson cooked meat medium
Bile broth
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bordet Gengou medium
Q.
Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_____________________?
no antibodies are present in primary HSV
antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis
in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
only after one year
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
Q.
Graft versus host reaction is caused by_________________?
Monocytes
Leukocytes
B-Lymphocytes
T-lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T-lymphocytes
Q.
Black pigmented anaerobes include all of the following except______________?
Tannerella
Buccae
Porphyromonas
Prevotella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Buccae
Q.
A protoplast is best characterized as a bacterial cell______________?
Uniquely sensitive to penicillin
with a cell wall but free of a capsule
Free of a cell wall and a capsule
containing a cell wall and a capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Q.
Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes______________?
B cells
Cytotoxic T cells
Memory B cells
NK Cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NK Cells
Q.
Grape bunch shaped colonies are seen in______________?
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
E.coli
Gonococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staphylococcus
Q.
The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is_______________?
EB virus
Hepatitis
Adeno
Parvo virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parvo virus
Q.
Most antibodies are produced in the________________?
Brain and the meninges
Spleen and the lymph nodes
Thymus and the appendix
Heart and the liver
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spleen and the lymph nodes
Q.
Post streptococcal acute glomerulo nephritis is an example of________________?
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type III hypersensitivity
Q.
Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups ?
Picorna viruses
Hepadana viruses
Herpes viruses
Flavi viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi viruses
Q.
Phase contrast microscopy is based on principle of__________________?
Different reflective indices of object
Light attenuation
Light scattering
Different refractive indices of object
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Different refractive indices of object
Q.
The medium of choice for culturing yeast from of dimorphic fungi is_________________?
Sabouraud
Brain
Sabouraud
Any medium incubated at 35-37
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
The diagnosis of gonorrhea is established by_____________?
All of the above tests
Haemagglutination tests
Pili agglutination tests
Compliment fixation tests
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above tests
Q.
Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to______________?
Guinea worm
Ascaris
Thread worm
Hook worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hook worm
Q.
Candida albicans causes all of the following except______________?
Meningitis
Oral thrush
Mycetoma
Endocarditis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycetoma
Q.
CD4 count in normal healthy adult is_______________?
1000
200
500
300
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1000
Q.
A darkfield microscope would be useful in examining blood for_______________?
Mycobacterium
Actinomyces
Streptococcus
Treponema
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema
Q.
Immunoglobulins ar secreted by______________?
T-cells
Macrophages
Neutrophils
Plasma cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasma cells
Q.
Haptane is_______________?
Same as epitopes
Carrier required for specific antibody production
High molecular protein
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Carrier required for specific antibody production
Q.
Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by______________?
Isolation form stool
Isolation from bile
Culture from blood
IgM antibodies in serum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM antibodies in serum
Q.
VDRL is a________________?
Tube agglutination test
Slide flocculation test
Tube flocculation test
Latex agglutination test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Slide flocculation test
Q.
One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is____________?
Viral interference
Permutation
Mutation
Supervision
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Viral interference
Q.
The difference between gram positive and negative bacteria lies in their_______________?
Mesosomes
cell membrane
Nuclear material
cell wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cell wall
Q.
The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are______________?
Mycoplasma
Gram positive organisms
Virus infections
Gram negative organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram negative organisms
Q.
Endotoxins differ from exotoxins in that endotoxins______________?
are highly antigenic
are proteins
are heat labile
activate complement by the alternate pathway
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: activate complement by the alternate pathway
Q.
The Dane particle is the______________?
Delta Virus
IgG anti HAV
HBV
HBC Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBV
Q.
Tuberculin test screens for_____________?
Cell mediated immunity
Phagocyte dysfunction
Complement function
Hemoral immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell mediated immunity
Q.
Endoscopes are sterilized by using_______________?
Boiling
Autoclaving
Cidex
Gamma radiation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Boiling
Q.
One of the following statement about statements about sterilization is not true_______________?
Glass syringes ? Boiling at 169
Liquid paraffin ? Dry heat
Flash pasteurization of milk ? 72
Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Q.
Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?
Polysaccharides
Proteins
Adjuvant
Lipids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteins
Q.
IgG antibodies have a half-life of approximately_______________?
1 week
1 day
1 hour
1 Month
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 Month
Q.
Exotoxins are____________________?
None
Lipoprotein
Lipid-polysaccharide complex
Protein compound
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein compound
Q.
Following is a retrovirus_____________?
Polio virus
Hepatitis virus
Influenza
Immunodeficiency virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immunodeficiency virus
Q.
The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement_________________?
IgM
IgG
IgE
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
The reaginic antibody is________________?
IgA
IgD
IgG
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Kaposi
Between 1000-2000
Below 200
Above 600
Above 2000
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Below 200
Q.
All are not true for cultivation of anaerobic organisms except_______________?
Refrigerator
Incubator
anaerobic jar
Centrifuge
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: anaerobic jar
Q.
Each of the following can cause food poisoning except________________?
Staphylococcus
Cl. welchii
Cl. botulinum
Cl. difficile
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. difficile
Q.
Which of the following does not go into chronic hepatitis stage ?
HBV
HDV
HEV
HCV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HEV
Q.
Physical sterilization was discovered by__________________?
John Hunter
Alexander flemings
Joeph Lister
Robert Koch
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Joeph Lister
Q.
Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito______________?
Sporozoite
Zygote
Merozoite
Gametocyte
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gametocyte
Q.
Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with_______________?
Kin Young stain
Ziel Nelson
Giemsa stain
Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Q.
Which of the following are correctly matched ?
Transfer of antibody from mother to child is through colostrum and acquired passive immunity naturally
All of the above
Antigenic stimulus given by vaccine (polio) is artificial active immunity
Injection of antibodies (Hepatitis) is artificially acquired passive immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which is type II hypersensitivity ?
Anaphylaxis
Delayed hypersensitivity
Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Immune complex mediated
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Q.
By using phase contrast microscope_______________?
Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Internal metabolic activities can be observed
Internal structures are differentiated in dead cells
External capsule formation can be observed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Q.
One of the following is a treponemal test for diagnosis of syphilis_____________?
Wasserman test
Kahn test
Widal test
FTAB
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: FTAB
Q.
Which of the following have the capability to produce extra cellular polysaccharides______________?
Strep. pyogenes
Peptostreptococcus
Enterococcus
Strep. Mutans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strep. Mutans
Q.
Opportunistic infection is caused by___________________?
Aspergillus
Penicillium
All of the above
Mucor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The minimum time required for the sterilization of surgical instruments by moist heat at 134
30 minutes
15 minutes
3 minutes
60 minutes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3 minutes
Q.
Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti_________________?
Terminal nuclei absent
Causes filariasis
Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Body is slender and long
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Q.
Granules in the corynebacterium diphtheria are called by following names, except______________?
Voluntin granules
Babes Ernst granules
Metachromatic granules
Refractile granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile granules
Q.
Neurotoxin of tetanus acts on______________?
Spinal card
Synapse
Muscle
Brain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spinal card
Q.
Sporulation occurs in__________________?
Log phase
Stationary phase
Decline phase
Lag phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
True about HIV are all except______________?
DNA virus
Attacks CD4 cells
Decrease CD4 count in late stages
Macrophages are the reservoir
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: DNA virus
Q.
IgG has subclasses_______________?
1
2
4
3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4
Q.
Anti HBsAB indicates______________?
Acute infection
Good prognosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Resistance to hepatitis B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Good prognosis
Q.
Causative agents of Vincent
Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Borrelia burgoloferi and lactobacillus
Borrelia recurrents and bateroides
Leptospira and Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Q.
Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______________?
Atopic allergy
Contact dermatitis
Transfusion reaction
Serum sickness
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is________________?
Indirect hemagglutination
Counter immune electroporesis
ELISA
Microscopy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA
Q.
Test for differentiating virulent form non-virulent tubercular bacilli_____________?
Aryl sulphatase test
Neutral red test
Catalase peroxidase test
Niacin test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neutral red test
Q.
Rickettsiae__________________?
All of the above
Transmitted by arthropod vectors
Multiply within living cell
Respond to tetracycline therapy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Virus is cultured in_______________?
Embryonated egg
Rogosa medium
Nonembryonated egg
Saubourd
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Embryonated egg
Q.
Disinfection frees the surface from______________?
None of the above
Spore forms
Vegetative forms
Both of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vegetative forms
Q.
Human immunoglobulins are divided based on_____________?
Structural differences
None of the above
Complemented fixation
Functional differences
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Structural differences
Q.
Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to__________________?
Capsule
Invasion
Exotoxin
Endotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Exotoxin
Q.
Chemotactic cytokine is_________________?
IL-8
IL-1
IL-6
TNF
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IL-8
Q.
The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in vivo from one bacterium to another by_____________?
Rarefaction
Transformation
Conjugation
Transduction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
The culture media for fungus is__________________?
NNN medium
Chocolate agar medium
Tellurite medium
Sabourauds medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabourauds medium
Q.
Immunoglobin, Which is produced first by the fetus in response to infection_______________?
IgA
IgM
IgG
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Which of the following is an enrichment medium________________?
Selenite F Broth
Mac Conkey agar
Blood agar
Nutrient Broth
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Selenite F Broth
Q.
What is the transport medium for cholera___________________?
Venkatraman
Cary Blair Medium
Tellurite Medium
B & C
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: B & C
Q.
A type of immediately occuring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called_____________?
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type I hypersensitivity
Q.
Same or closely related antigens present in different biological species are known as________________?
Suquestrated antigens
Heterophile antigens
Haptens
Isoantigens
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Heterophile antigens
Q.
One of the following is an agglutination test in the diagnosis of typhoid___________?
Widal test
Eleks test
Mantoux test
Wasserman test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
Sterilization is a process in which_________________?
Deactivate all pathogens not spores
Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Kill all pathogenic micro-organisms
Kill all non-pathogenic micro-organisms in the environment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Q.
Human immune deficiency virus is ________________ virus?
Retro
Rhabdo
Rheo
Flavi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Retro
Q.
A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned in to an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis______________?
Carbol Fuschin
Calcoflour White
Trichrome Methylene blue
Acid Fast Stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trichrome Methylene blue
Q.
Half-life of free HIV in plasma is________________?
24 hours
12 hours
3 months
6 hours
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 6 hours
Q.
Among The infectious diseases transmitted by food, one is___________________?
Diptheria
Typhoid fever
Tuberculosis
Viral stomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid fever
Q.
Moist heat kills all of the following EXCEPT_______________?
Coxiella burnetti
Brucella
Mycobacterium
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coxiella burnetti
Q.
The Ig found in exocrine secretions is_____________?
IgM
IgD
IgA
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Operation theatres are sterilized by_____________?
Carbolic acid spraying
Washing with soap and water
ETO gas
Formaldehyde fumigation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Formaldehyde fumigation
Q.
Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci________________?
Aerococcus
Staphylococcus
Sarcina
Micrococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sarcina
Q.
About Bacteroids True are all Except_______________?
Susceptible to many antibiotics
Bile resistant anerobes
Present mainly in mixed infections
Most common species is B fragilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Susceptible to many antibiotics
Q.
Encapsulation in bacteria helps in__________________?
Prevent their phagocytosis
Oxygen effect
Decreased virulence
Spore formation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prevent their phagocytosis
Q.
In initial stages of tyhoid, salmonella can be detected in________________?
Blood
Urine
All of the above
Feacus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood
Q.
All of the following are true of streptococcus except_____________?
It
Most common in humans
Most common is animals
Shows adherence to dental enamel
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It
Q.
Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phase of the bacterial growth curve______________?
Lag
Decline
Stationary phase
Exponential growth
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
Viruses can be cultured in all except_______________?
Chick embryo
Guinea pigs
Cell culture
Blood agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood agar
Q.
Kolmer test is a screening test done for_________________?
Tuberculosis
Lymphoma
Syphilis
Gonorrhea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Function of T-lymphocyte is/are________________?
Production of interferon
Lymphokine production
All of the above
Rosette formation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The following are applicable to bacterial genoms except________________?
It doe not contain histones
It is composed of DNA
It is circular
Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Q.
EBV causes all except_________________?
Carcinoma of nasopharynx
Burkitt
Infectious mononucleosis
Papilloma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma
Q.
Which of the following is not used as disinfectant________________?
5% chloroxylene
100% alcohol
2% Lysol
1-2% cetrimide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 100% alcohol
Q.
Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by_______________?
M. ulcerans
M. chelonae
M. Kansasii
M. smegmatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. chelonae
Q.
All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except____________?
HIV
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis E
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Which of the following correctly indicates the infectivity of hepatitis virus in human ?
Anti-HBS
Anti-HBC
HBCAg
HBeAg
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBeAg
Q.
In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except__________________?
Malabsorption
Bone marrow depression
Hemolysis
Spleen sequestration
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Malabsorption
Q.
Which of the following is not a pox virus ?
Molluscum contagiosum
Cowpox
Small pox
chicken pox
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: chicken pox
Q.
A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is______________?
Methanamine silver stain
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
India ink preparation
Pyte-ferraco stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
Staphylococcal food poisoning includes the following features_______________?
Incubation period of 24 hours
Common with dairy products
Heat labile enterotoxin
Requires immediate antibiotics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Common with dairy products
Q.
Causative organism for gas gangrene_______________?
Strep. Faecalis
Coli
Clostridium welchii
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Streptococcus is classified based on__________________?
Cultural characteristics
M Protein
Bile Solubility
Cell wall carbohydrate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall carbohydrate
Q.
compared with autoclave, use of a dry heat over for sterilization has the following disadvantages______________?
Less effective
Causes sharp instruments to dull
Time-consuming
Causes instruments to rust
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Time-consuming
Q.
Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces?
Flagella
Capsule
Mesosomes
Pili
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except_____________?
Legionella pneumophila
Neisseria meningitides
Salmonella typhi
Streptococcus pyogenes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus pyogenes
Q.
The best sterilization method for a hand-piece is________________?
All of the above
Ethylene oxide gas
dry heat
chemical vapour
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ethylene oxide gas
Q.
Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is____________?
Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Secretory IgA
Sialoperoxidase
Histidine rich proteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Q.
Sleeping sickness is caused by_______________?
Reduvid bug
Sand fly
House fly
Tick
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reduvid bug
Q.
The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_____________?
Kerison
Pilomatrixoma
Tenia incognito
Alopecia areata
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kerison
Q.
Steam under pressure in used in ________ sterilization?
Pasteurization
hot air oven
Kochs sterilizer
Autoclave
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The small nonparticulate protein leading to enhanced replication of HBV as well as HIV is______________?
HBs Ag
HBx Ag
Hbe Ag
HBc Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBx Ag
Q.
T cells multiplication is stimulated by_______________?
Heat
Bovine serum
Macrolin
Phytohaemagglutinin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Phytohaemagglutinin
Q.
Bacteria reproduce mainly by______________?
Sporing
Binary fission
Budding
Bacterial components produced by host cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Binary fission
Q.
The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine doses not play a major role is______________?
Anaphylaxis
Arthus reaction
Urticaria
Asthma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus reaction
Q.
Robertsons cooked meat medium is best suited for cultivation of_______________?
S. epidermidis
Clostridia
Choleria
Mycobacterium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridia
Q.
A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates________________?
Prodromal phase
Acute infection
Convalescence
Carrier state
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acute infection
Q.
Which of the following organisms does NOT react with gram
Actinomyces israelii
Candida albicans
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Streptococcus mutan
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q.
Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins ?
IgE
IgG
IgM
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Disinfection of the rooms can be done by using_______________?
20% phenol
High efficiency particle arrestors
Chlorine gas
40% formaldehyde vapour
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 40% formaldehyde vapour
Q.
Negative staining is used to demonstrate________________?
Bacterial Flagella
Bacterial capsule
Bacterial fimbriae
Bacterial spore
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacterial fimbriae
Q.
Which is not true about vibrio cholera_________________?
Cannot survive in extracellular environment
It is non-halophilic
Grows on simple media
Man is the only natural host
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Q.
Group A carbohydrate of Str. pyogenes cross reacts with human_________________?
Myocardium
Vascular intima
Synovial fluid
Cardiac valves
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiac valves
Q.
Pneumococus can be differentiated from streptococcus by________________?
Gram staining
Bile solubility
Growth characteristics
Type of hemolysis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bile solubility
Q.
Phage conversion is required for________________?
Gonorrhoea
All o f the above
Diptheria
Tularemia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Diptheria
Q.
parasitic inflammation would show predominantly____________________?
Neutrophilis
Lymphocytes
Basophils
Eosinophils
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Eosinophils
Q.
Pseudohphae are seen in____________?
Alternaria
Osporium
Candida albicans
Aspergillus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?
Trench fever
Relapsing fever
Q fever
Epidemic typhus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Q fever
Q.
The causative organism of syphilis is___________?
Leptospira interrogans
Borrelia burgolorferi
Chalamydia trachomatis
Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema pallidum
Q.
Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except______________?
Strongyloides
Giardia lambia
Ascaris lumbriocoides
Entamoeba
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strongyloides
Q.
Toxoids are_________________?
non-antigenic and non-toxic
antigenic and non-toxic
non-antigenic and toxic
antigenic and toxic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: antigenic and non-toxic
Q.
Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000_________________?
L chain
J piece
H chain
Secretory piece
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: H chain
Q.
IL-1 is produced by_________________?
Helper T cells
Helper B cells
Macrophages
Monocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Macrophages
Q.
In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by_____________?
Urine culture
Widal test
Stool culture
Blood culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except__________________?
Found exclusively in human beings.
All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Most common cause of urethritis is male
Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Q.
Pigs are important source of_____________?
Japanese encephalitis
Yellow fever
Rabies
Kuru
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Japanese encephalitis
Q.
A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains and haemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism ?
Bacitracin sensitivity
Cataslase positive
Optochin sensitivity
Bile solubility
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacitracin sensitivity
Q.
Organ of locomotion in bacteria is________________?
Capsule
Cell wall
Fimbria
Flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flagella
Q.
All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except______________?
Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital
Colony morphology on saliva agar
Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide
Gram staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram staining
Q.
Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in______________?
Tapeworm
Hood worm
Ascariasis and tapeworm
Ascariasis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ascariasis
Q.
Bacteria with tuft of flagella at one end are called_______________?
Peritrichate
Lophotrichate
Bipolar
Monotrichate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lophotrichate
Q.
Certain viruses have been isolated in crytalline form and have been found to be_____________?
Phospholipids
Nucleotides
Scleroproteins
Nucleoproteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleoproteins
Q.
Fungal infection of human beings is called as_____________?
Mycosis
Fungosis
Mucorsis
Micromia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycosis
Q.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa_________________?
Causes Shangai fever
Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.
Produces heat stable enterotoxin
Does not produce any pigment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Causes Shangai fever
Q.
The world german measles is applied for_____________?
Herpes simplex
Rubeola
Rubella
Herpetic ginglvostomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Which of the following provides best gurantee for sterlization in the heat sterilizer ?
Using chemical indicator strip or pouch
Determining the ability of a sterilizer to kill the hepatitis B virus
Using a bacterial spore test
Recording a temperature/ pressure readings from sterilizer guage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Using a bacterial spore test
Q.
Active artificial immunization is induced by the administration of all of the following EXCEPT______________?
Antitoxins
Vaccines
Toxoids
Bacterial products
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antitoxins
Q.
Plaque test is used routinely in virology lab
To prepare vaccines
To maintain certain viral culture
Identification of viral disease
To separate specific clone of virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Identification of viral disease
Q.
The commonest method of detection of diptheria carriers is_______________?
Charles
Casoni
Schick test
Dick test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Schick test
Q.
Most common tumor associated with AIDS is______________?
Melanoma
Carcinoma
Ewing
Kaposi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kaposi
Q.
Which of the following is a RNA virus ?
Measles virus
Papavo virus
Adeno virus
Herpes Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
A 6 year old boy comes with abdominal pain, vomiting after consuming mild products within 6 hours. The most likely organism responsible is______________?
Salmonella
Clostridium botulinum
B.Cereus
Staph. aureus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staph. aureus
Q.
The medium of choice for growing most fungi is_______________?
Blood agar
Thioglycollate medium
Tissue culture
Sabouraud
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
Hydatid cyst is__________________?
Fungal
Parasitic in nature
Viral
Congenital
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parasitic in nature
Q.
Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called______________?
Opsonisation
De coding
Chemotaxis
CFT
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Opsonisation
Q.
The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is___________________?
15%
5%
10%
2%
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2%
Q.
Selective media for MYCOBACTERIUM _____________?
Lowenstein Jensen medium
Sabourauds medium
Loefflers serum slope
Agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lowenstein Jensen medium
Q.
A sporangium contains_______________?
Chlamydospores
Spherules
porangiospores
Oidia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: porangiospores
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria can be cultured in__________________?
L-J medium
Loefflers medium
Robertson cooked meat medium
Sabourauds agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robertson cooked meat medium
Q.
All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except________________?
Trophozoites colonise in the colon
The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides
Cysts are 8 nucleated
Cysts are 4 nucleated
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cysts are 8 nucleated
Q.
Gram -ve bacteria stain during gram staining____________?
Colorless
Blue color
Green
Red color
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Red color
Q.
The optimal time and temperature required for sterilization in an autoclave is___________________?
121
121
121
140
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 121
Q.
Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus ?
Condyloma acuminatum
Keratoacanthoma
Focal epithelial hyperplasia
Verruca vulgaris
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Keratoacanthoma
Q.
IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by______________?
Activated macrophages
Lymphocytes
Platelet
Plasma cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Activated macrophages
Q.
The major intestinal pathogens which are non-lactose fermenters are_________________?
Klebsiella
Salmonella
Escherichia
Paracolons
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salmonella
Q.
Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by________________?
Direct microscopy
DNA probe
ELISA
Culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Culture
Q.
Which component of the cell wall is responsible________________?
Boivin antigen
Region I
Region II
Region III
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Region III
Q.
In patients with asthma due to an allergic cause the serum levels of which immunoglobulin increase____________________?
IgD
IgM
IgA
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Which regards to temperature requirement, most pathogenic bacteria are_____________?
Psychrophiles
Cryophiles
Thermophiles
Mesophiles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mesophiles
Q.
Negative phase is seen in ________ immunity?
Active
Local
Herd
Passive
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active
Q.
Bacterial cell does not possess___________________?
Cell wall
Mitochondria
Ribosome
dna
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mitochondria
Q.
Australian antigen is_______________?
HB Ag
HBV
None of the above
HBs AG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBs AG
Q.
Which does not have a viral etiology______________?
Carcinoma Cervix
Hepatoma
Lymphoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Endotoxins are produced by________________?
Gram -ve bacteria
Fungi
Gram +ve bacteria
Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram -ve bacteria
Q.
EBV is responsible for all except______________?
Hepatoma
Burkitt
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Complement factor through which common pathway begins___________________?
Protein B
C5
C2
C3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C3
Q.
Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is___________________?
Spleen
Lungs
Liver
Brain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Liver
Q.
The time gap between appearance of Koplik
24 Hrs
10 days
2 weeks
3-4 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3-4 days
Q.
CD4 cells recognize the antigens in association with_____________?
MHC III
MHC I
MHC II
B-cell receptor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: MHC II
Q.
Each of the following viruses possesses an outer lipoprotein envelope except_____________?
Influenza Virus
Papilloma Virus
Human immunodeficiency virus
Varicella Zoster Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma Virus
Q.
Mark true in following ?
Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
None of the above
Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Q.
First released immunoglobulin after primary immunization_______________?
IgD
IgM
IgE
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is_________________?
Escherichia coli
T-strain mycoplasma
Streptococcus fecalis
Neisseria gonorrhea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Escherichia coli
Q.
Black water fever is caused by______________?
Microfilaria
Leishmania donovani
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______________?
Dot
Comma
Sickle
Banana
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sickle
Q.
Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____________?
3 months
1 week
6 months
6 week
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 week
Q.
About Psedomonas. All are true except________________?
Strick aerobes
Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Can grow in disinfectants in hospital
Most common organism is burn patient
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except_______________?
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through bacteriophages
Through plasmids
Through conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____________?
6,8,11
3,10,19
16,18,31
Type 6,12,18
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 16,18,31
Q.
Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except_______________?
Chemically defined media
Animals
Embryonated eggs
Tissue culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chemically defined media
Q.
Type of receptor present on T-cells are__________________?
Prostaglandins
Ig G
CD4
Ig A
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4
Q.
All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_____________?
Refractile nucleus
Eccentric nucleus
Chromatid bars
Glycogen mass
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile nucleus
Q.
Leprosy bacilli can be grown in_________________?
Testes of guinea pig
Testes of albino rats
Tail of guinea pig
Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Q.
Group A B-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the pharynx may be followed in some by_____________?
Rheumatic fever
Typhoid fever
Diphtheria
Syphilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatic fever
Q.
Secretory Ig is_______________?
IgE
IgD
IgM
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Which of the following viruses does not infect salivary glands ?
Orthomyxovirus
HIV
Echo virus
Hepatitis C
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxovirus
Q.
Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following________________?
All of the above
Sabin
Tetanus toxoid
Salk vaccine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salk vaccine
Q.
True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by_______________?
cats
Rats
Dogs
Cow
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cats
Q.
Candidal hyphae can be stained using_______________?
Toluidine blue stain
Periodic acid schiff stain
Van Gieson
Masson Trichrome stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Periodic acid schiff stain
Q.
The prototype of Type II hypersensitivity reaction is__________________?
SLE
Contact dermatitis
Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Arthus reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Q.
The earliest identifiable cells of T-Cell lineage during maturation are_______________?
CD8+ Pre-T-Cells
CD8+ Pro-T-Cells
CD5+ Pre-T-Cells
CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
Q.
Dengue virus belongs to______________?
Rhabdoviridae
Reoviridae
Flavi virus
Togaviridae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi virus
Q.
T cell matures in______________?
Thymus
Busra of Fabricius
Lymph node
Payers patch
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thymus
Q.
The presence of Which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility ?
Enzymes
Polysaccharide
Lipids
Protein coat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein coat
Q.
Wasserman test test is diagnostic of__________________?
Gonorrhea
Tyhoid
Syphilis
TB
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Glasswares are sterilised by______________?
Formaldehyde
Incineration
Hot air oven
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by which of the following_____________?
Cidex
All of the above
Ethanol
Boiling
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affets_______________?
Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Fibroblasts
Red blood cells
Mast cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Q.
Which of the following enzyme is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot pathogenic staphylococci_____________?
Lysozyme
Fibrinolysin
Coagulase
S protein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coagulase
Q.
Secondary response is mediated by_______________?
IgM
IgE
IgA
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Bacterial species which is protective or beneficial to the host is_______________?
Treponema denticola
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Streptococcus sanguis
Spirochetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus sanguis
Q.
Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve________________?
Duodenum
Caecum and large intestine
Jejunum and Ileum
Stomach
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caecum and large intestine
Q.
A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents________________?
Allo
Auto
Xeno
ISO
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Allo
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical mycobacteria by______________?
None of the above
AFB staining
Pas staining
Niacin test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Niacin test
Q.
The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by____________?
Transduction
Translation
Cell fusion
Conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
Sterilisation control for moist heat is
Using non-pathogenic strain of clostridium tetani
Using methylene blue
Using chemical indicator
using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Q.
Complement binding immunoglobin via the classical pathway is_______________?
IgG & IgD
IgD & IgE
IgG & IgA
IgG & igM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG & igM
Q.
Commonest mycobacterial infection in tropical countries_______________?
M. tuberculosis
M. leprae
Kansasi
M. avium intracellulare
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. tuberculosis
Q.
Sterilisation is______________?
Only pathogenic micro-organisms killed
All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Pathogens killed but spores are not affected
Non-pathogenic killed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Q.
Killer and Helper cells are part of_______________?
Monocytes
B cells
T cells
Macrophage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T cells
Q.
Bacteriophage was discovered by_________________?
Menkin
Metchinkoff
Robert koch
Twort and d
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Twort and d
Q.
Growth factor needed for Salmonella_________________?
Niacin
B-12
Tryptophan
Citrate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Tryptophan
Q.
Louis Pasteur is not associated with_______________?
Discovery of Rabies Vaccine
Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Disproved spontaneous regression theory
Introduction of complex media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Q.
Synthesis of antibodies in plasma cells occurs in_________________?
Mitochondria
Golgi body
Nucleus
Endoplasmic reticulum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.
Leishmania is cultured in ________________ media?
Chocolate agar
NNN
Sabourauds
Tellurite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NNN
Q.
Purpose of Sterilization is to eliminate________________?
Spore formers
Bacteria
Fungus
Viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spore formers
Q.
The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to_____________?
Inhibit microbial growth
Remove microbes
Kill mircobes
Dehydrate microbial cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Remove microbes
Q.
The only virus, which has double stranded RNA, is______________?
Reo virus
Bunya virus
Calci virus
Rhabdo virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reo virus
Q.
Culture media of candida is_________________?
All of the above
Saboraud
Pingolevin
Methylene blue dextrose agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saboraud
Q.
L.D bodies are seen in_______________?
Sleeping sickness
Kalahazar
Malaria
Toxoplasmosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kalahazar
Q.
Schuffner
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium malariae
Plasmodium vivax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium vivax
Q.
Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus infection during window period ?
IgM anti
None of the above
HBs Ag
Anti HBs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM anti
Q.
Delhi boil refer to_______________?
Solar Keratosis
Malignant pustule
Venereal ulcer
L. Tropica sore
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: L. Tropica sore
Q.
Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except________________?
50% chances to have AIDS
Have infections
All are true
Failure to thrive
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 50% chances to have AIDS
Q.
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to_______________?
B lymphocytes
Histiocytes
T lymphocytes
Monocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T lymphocytes
Q.
The cell wall deficient bacteria_______________?
Chlamydiae
Rickettsiae
Ehrlichiae
Mycoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycoplasma
Q.
Pasteur developed the vaccine for_______________?
Anthrax
Cholera
Rabies
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Borrelia vincenti is always associated with______________?
Fusiform bacilli
Spirochaetes
Treponema vincenti
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fusiform bacilli
Q.
The Manufacturing unit of surgical needle & sutures are sterilized by ________________?
Boiling
Autoclaving
Gamma-Rays
X-Rays
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma-Rays
Q.
Glutaraldehyde is preferred more than formaldehyde because______________?
It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
It has got more bacteriostatic activity
Its application is easier
It has got more bactericidal activity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Q.
The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is_____________?
Chorio allantoic membrane
Robertoson
Chocolate agar
Sabourad
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chorio allantoic membrane
Q.
Rh incompatibility is which type of hyper sensitivity reaction ?
Type I
Type III
Type II
Type IV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Silver impregnation method of staining is useful to demonstrate_____________?
Bacterial flagella
Spirochetes
None of the above
Both of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both of the above
Q.
Which of the following would you consider to be general properties of viruses______________?
Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids
Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses
Contain DNA but no RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Q.
Dematophytes are fungi infecting________________?
Superficial skin and deep tissue
Nails, hair and skin
Subcutaneous tissue
Systemic organs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nails, hair and skin
Q.
Chlamydia causes all of the following except________________?
Non-gonococcal urethritis
Pneumonia
Parotitis
Trachoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parotitis
Q.
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (SSS syndrome) is due to______________?
Enterotoxin F
Enterotoxin B
Enterotoxin A
Enterotoxin D
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterotoxin F
Q.
Leprosy bacilli are transmitted from person to person by all except______________?
From open sore
Dischange from nasal mucosa
Through intact skin
Through breast milk
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Through breast milk
Q.
ASO (Antistreptolysin 0) test is uesd for the diagnosis of________________?
Rheumatoid arthritis
Typhoid fever
Rickettsial fever
Rheumatie fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatie fever
Q.
Actinomycetes is______________?
Gram negative bacteria
Fungus
Gram positive bacteria
A yeast like form
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is_____________?
Haemotoxin stain
Eosin stain
Ninhydrin stain
Blue stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ninhydrin stain
Q.
Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by_____________?
Virus
Bacteria
Parasite
Bacteria superadded on virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
The term animalcules to oral microorganisms is given by__________________?
Robertson
Socranci
Wd miller
Leumenhoek
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leumenhoek
Q.
Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly_______________?
Skin
Lung
Nasal mucosa
Gastrointestinal tract
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gastrointestinal tract
Q.
Phospholipid used to investigate syphilis by the reagin test is________________?
Cardiolipin
Plasminogen
Palmityl lecithin
Serine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiolipin
Q.
Cleavage of IgG molecule by Papin gives rise to:One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments_______________?
One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Two Fc fragments and two Fab fragments
One Fc fragment and four Fab fragments
Two Fc fragment and one Fab fragment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Q.
Following reaction are produced by heterophil antigens except_____________?
Paul bunnel reaction
Forssman antigen antibody reaction
Weil-Felix reaction
Widal reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal reaction
Q.
The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______________?
IgD
IgE
IgA
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV irradiation_______________?
Inorganic salts
Nucleic acids
Carbohydrates
Lipids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleic acids
Q.
Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by________________?
Bacteria
Epithelial cells
Sucrose
Dextran
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dextran
Q.
The anaphylaxis should be treated first with_____________?
Anti histamines
Epinephrine
Antibiotics
Steroids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epinephrine
Q.
Dorset
Mycobacterium
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Gonococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best demonstrated by_________________?
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
H & E stain
Gram
PAS stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Q.
The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is______________?
Borrelia vincenti
Treponjema pertenue
Treponema pallidum
Borrelia burgdorferi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti
Q.
Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is ________________?
Mucor
Aspergillus
Penicillium
Rhizopus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus
Q.
Best method of sterilizing disposable syringes_______________?
Gamma rays
U.V. rays
Hot air oven
Boiling
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma rays
Q.
Anaphylaxis refers to the________________?
Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions
State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________________?
Melanin production related to virulence
Causes meningitis
Basidiomycetes yeast
Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Q.
The Process of attenuation can be achieved by all except___________________?
Growing bacteria in unconventional host
Growing bacteria in adverse environment
Repeated cultures in artificial media
Serial passage in an experimental host
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serial passage in an experimental host
Q.
Probiotic organism used_________________?
Staphylococcus
Bifido bacteria
Salmonella
E coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bifido bacteria
Q.
Staphylococcus does not causes_______________?
Scarlet fever
Osteomyelitis
Abscess
Pneumonia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Scarlet fever
Q.
Oil and Grease are sterilized by________________?
Ethylene dioxide
Irradiation
Hot air oven
Auto claving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Most sensitive test for antigen detection is_______________?
Passive hemaglutination
Radioimmuno Assay
Immunoflourescence
ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Radioimmuno Assay
Q.
Antigen combining site of the antibody is____________________?
Idiotope
Hapten
Epitope
Paratope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Paratope
Q.
The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______________?
Erythema
Necrosis
Induration
Vasculitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythema
Q.
The most common site where organisms are present in a typhoid carrier is______________?
Salivary gland
Liver
Gall Bladder
Spleen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gall Bladder
Q.
Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause foetal defect ?
Papilloma
Rubella
Mumps
Herpes Simplex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Babu, a 28 year old male comes with compaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by____________?
ELISA
Western blot
P24 antigen
Lymph node biopsy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: P24 antigen
Q.
The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is ________________?
lecithinase production
Coagulase production
hypersensitivity
exotoxin production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: hypersensitivity
Q.
In T.B cell mediated immunity is by_______________?
None of the above
B
CD 4*
CD 8*
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD 4*
Q.
Australia antigen is associated with________________?
AIDS
Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Chronic leukemia
Basal cell carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Q.
Incubation pariod of herpes zoster is________________?
1 months
1-2 years
3-6 months
7-14 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 7-14 days
Q.
Salmonella typhi can be isolated at different times from______________?
Urine
Blood
All of the above
Feaces
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which of the following antibacterial substance is present in eggs and saliva ?
Lysozyme
Secretozyme
Isozyme
Albumin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysozyme
Q.
Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection_________________?
Giardia lambella
Isopora belli
Balantidium coli
Taenia solium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Taenia solium
Q.
Electron microscopic examination of the bacterial flora of necrotising ulcerative gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are______________?
Cocci
Filamentous rods
Bacteriophages
Spirochetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
The most frequently encountered clostridial species in gas gangrene is______________?
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium welchii
Clostridium botulinum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Q fever is caused by________________?
R. quintana
Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
R. prowozekii
C. burnetti
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C. burnetti
Q.
Mesophilic organisms are those that grow best at temperature of______________?
25
55
-7
-20
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 25
Q.
An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry cough, sputum culture showed growth on charcoal yeast Extract Medium, theorganism is______________?
H. influenza
Moraxella catarrhalis
Burkholderia cepacia
Legionella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Legionella
Q.
Techoic acid is present in_____________?
Cytoplasm of Gram positive organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram negative organisms
Cell wall of Gram negative organisms
Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Q.
Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?
Causes positive Nagler reaction
Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously
The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Q.
Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by_________________?
Dog tapeworm
Fish tapeworm
Hookworm
Threadworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fish tapeworm
Q.
Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?
Spore
Coccidia
Prions
Mycobacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prions
Q.
Blood agar is________________?
Differential media
Simple media
Enriched media
Transport media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enriched media
Q.
Signs of tyhoid fever is/are_____________________?
Osteomyelitis
Haemorrhage
perforation
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by ___________________?
Aspergillus
Candida albicans
Mucor
Cryptococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction______________?
Proteus
E.coli
Haemophilus
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?
Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity
Immediately wash wound with soap and water
Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Give ARV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Q.
One of the following is a zoonotic disease_____________?
Typhoid
Bacillary dysentery
Cholera
Anthrax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anthrax
Q.
Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of______________?
Wool sorters disease
Malaria
Whooping cough
Gas gangrene
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gas gangrene
Q.
Which of the following is a live vaccine_____________?
17 D
Salk
HDCV
Hepatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HDCV
Q.
The function of IgD is______________?
Reagin activity
Antigen recognition by B cells
Localization protection in external secretion
Compliment activation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antigen recognition by B cells
Q.
The following statement is true regarding fungal infection__________________?
Candida infection is usually endogenous
Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man
albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals
Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida infection is usually endogenous
Q.
One of the following staining methods is an example of negative staining_______________?
India ink preparation
Zheil-Neilson
Gram
Fontana
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
All are true about widel test except________________________?
Base lines differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
H antigen cannot differentiate between subtypes
High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Q.
The virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhea include all of the following except____________?
Pili
Outer membrane proteins
IgA Protease
M-Proteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M-Proteins
Q.
Characteristic feature of retrovirus is_____________?
DNA polymerase
Restriction endonuclease
Reverse transcriptase
Ribonuclease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reverse transcriptase
Q.
Serum sickness syndrome is an example of________________?
Angioneurotic edema
Systemic arthus reaction
Anaphylactic
Cell-mediated immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Systemic arthus reaction
Q.
The Window period in HIV infection means______________?
The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab
The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS
The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
Q.
Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to________________?
Increase toxigenicity
reduce the toxigenicity
Reduce the antigenicity
Increase antigenicity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increase antigenicity
Q.
Which of the following is true about amoebic liver disease ?
Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Non-suppurative form is the serious form of extra intestinal amoebiasis
Left lobe of liver is commonly involved
Portal system is the main filtration system
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Q.
Teichoic acid is present in cell walls of_________________?
Yeast
Gram negative bacteria
Gram positive bacteria
Protozoa
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Grave
Type I
Type III
Type II
Type IV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Madura mycosis produces______________?
No granules
White to yellow granules
Red granules
Brown to black granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: White to yellow granules
Q.
A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?
Francisella spp
Brucella spp
Bartonella spp
Pasturella spp
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Brucella spp
Q.
Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a_______________?
RIPA
Western Blot
ELISA
Immunodot
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Western Blot
Q.
Rabies virus________________?
Neurotropic
Chromophilic
Cytotropic
Dermatotropic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neurotropic
Q.
Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is_______________?
IgM
IgA
IgE
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
B.C.G untrue is_____________?
Orally administered
live vaccine
T.B vaccine
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orally administered
Q.
In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a_______________?
Super antigen
Toxin
Carrier
Hapten
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hapten
Q.
Thread worm is______________?
Ancylostoma
Ascaris
Enterobius
Necator
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterobius
Q.
Endotoxin have all but one of the properties given below_______________?
Produced by gram negative bacteria
Produced by gram positive bacteria
Cannot be toxoided
Not secreted outside the cell
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Produced by gram positive bacteria
Q.
The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is___________?
Mannitol fermentation
Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes
Detection of coagulase
The catalase test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Detection of coagulase
Q.
Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus is due to ________________________?
Lack of nucleic acid in the cell wall
Penicillin analogue production
Pleomorphism
Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Q.
Influenza is caused by_____________?
Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Q.
Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is_________________?
2:1
1:2
3:1
1:3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2:1
Q.
On a stained slide, clostridium tetani has the appearance of a__________________?
Safely pin
Chain of beads
Drum stick
Bunch of a
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Drum stick
Q.
Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine ?
Tuberculosis (BCG)
Varicella Zoster virus
Typhoid
Cholera
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cholera
Q.
which of the following is anaerobic_______________?
Klebsiella
Bacteroides
E.coli
Pseudomonas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacteroides
Q.
Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstratig________________?
Trophozoites in the feces
Cysts in the sterile pus
Cysts in the intestine
Trophozoites in the pus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites in the pus
Q.
The urine sample of a patient has been sent to the laboratory to look for Leptospira. The specimen is to be screened by use of the__________________?
Electron microscope
Scanning microscope
Inverted microscope
Dark ground microscope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dark ground microscope
Q.
Function of Ig A is________________?
Circulating antibody
Activates macrophages
Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Kills virus infected cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Q.
Aflatoxins are produced by________________?
Aspergillus fumigatus
Aspergillus niger
All of the above
Aspergillus flavus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus flavus
Q.
The chemotactic factor is______________?
C5a
C2a
C3b
C4a
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C5a
Q.
Characters of exotoxin include all, except_______________?
Highly potent
Has specific tissue affinity
Protein polysaccharide complex
Heat labile
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein polysaccharide complex
Q.
Leptospirosis, all are true except______________?
Faeces & urine of rodents is the cause
It is sensitive to penicillin
Onset of IgM in 2 days
Incubation period is 10 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Onset of IgM in 2 days
Q.
Which of the following belongs to cell fraction derived vaccine______________?
Rubella
Hepatitis B
Mumps
Measles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B
Q.
The killer cells are associated with immunologic response___________________?
Type II
Type I
Type III
Type IV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
The term epitope refers to________________?
Immunogen
Hapten
complete antigen molecule
Smallest antigenic determinant
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Smallest antigenic determinant
Q.
Drumstick appearance is seen in______________?
Cl. tetani
Cl. sphenoids
All of the above
Cl. tetanomorphum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. tetani
Q.
The commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercie bacilli________________?
Congo red
Acridine orange
Auramine and Rhodamine
Thioglavin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine and Rhodamine
Q.
Common name for Trichuris trichura________________?
Tape worm
Round worm
Whip worm
Seat woman
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Whip worm
Q.
Herpes virus_____________?
None of the above
Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane
Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Q.
The specific test for Treponema pallidum is___________?