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TOP Microbiology MCQS Questions
Q.
Bacterial spores are destroyed by_______________?
Autoclave
Disinfection by hypochlorite solution
Boiling at 100
Pasteurisation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The interaction of antigens with antibodies on the surface of a mast cel leads to degranulation and anaphylaxis. The mast cell granules produce anaphylaxis because they contain________________?
Lysosomes
Vasoactive mediators
Proteolytic enzymes
Lymphotoxins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vasoactive mediators
Q.
Bacteria with potent exotoxin is_______________?
Klebsiella
Shigella
Clostridium tetani
Pseudomonas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani
Q.
True about prions________________?
Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective
Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Viruses which are genetically deficient
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Q.
The best skin disinfectant is________________?
None of the above
Alcohol
Chlorhexdine
Savlon
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chlorhexdine
Q.
Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates_____________?
Late convalescence
Carrier status
Simple carriers
High infectivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: High infectivity
Q.
The facultative anaerobic bacteria are those who are_______________?
Unable to grow in the presence of oxygen
Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Unable to grow in the absence of oxygen
Able to grow in the presence of carbon dioxide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Q.
A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium malaria
Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Erysipelas is caused by________________?
Pneumococci
Gonococci
Group B staphylococci
Group A steptococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B staphylococci
Q.
True about immune response of hepatitis B is__________________?
Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
Antibody to HBC is not protective
CMI disappears soon after recover
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Q.
Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria______________?
Loefflers serum slope
Lowenstein Jensen Medium
Mc Conkey
Saborauds agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Loefflers serum slope
Q.
A full course of immunization agianst. Telanus with 3 doses to Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how many years ?
20
5
15
10
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 10
Q.
Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?
Virus isolation
ELISA followed by western blot technique
Western blot followed by ELISA
Polymers chain reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA followed by western blot technique
Q.
Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-5m in size, multi-septate, chestnut, brown color is characteristic of________________?
Chromoblastomycosis
Rhinosporodiosis
Phaeohypomycosis
Histoplasmosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chromoblastomycosis
Q.
The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell
Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
Haemagglutination test
Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Haemagglutination inhibition test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Q.
An oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod which produces a bluish-green pigment has been grown in culture from a swab obtained from an infected burn wound. This organism is susceptible to gentamicin, ticarcillin and tobramicin, but resistant to all the other antibiotics which of the following organisms is it likely to be ?
Escherichia coli
Proteus miribilis
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Klebsiella pnemoniae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q.
Exaltation is________________?
Decreased virulence
No change
Increased Virulence
None
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increased Virulence
Q.
Which of the following is not true of boiling water_____________?
It can kill hepatitis B virus
Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Can kill vegetative bacterial cells
Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Q.
The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is_______________?
IgA
IgG
IgD
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Germ tubes are formed mainly by_______________?
Candida stellatoidea
Candida albicans
Candida pseudotropicalls
Candida tropicalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
The best method of sterilization of dressing powder is_____________?
Hot air oven
Autoclaving
Inspissation
Tyndallization
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with______________?
Mast cells
Lysozyme
IgA antibodies
IgM antibodies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA antibodies
Q.
Loss of capsule in bacteria is generally associated with______________?
Loss of infectivity
Inability to spread through tissue
increase in invasiveness
Decease in virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Decease in virulence
Q.
Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify______________?
Chlamydiae
Rickettsiae
Mycoplasma
Spirochaetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochaetes
Q.
Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_____________?
Candidiasis
Tuberculosis
Cryptococcosis
Aspergilosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candidiasis
Q.
Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans_________________?
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Hot air oven is used for sterilization of all EXCEPT__________________?
Liquid paraffin
Rubber tubes
Sharp instrument
Glassware
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubber tubes
Q.
Which worm is longest________________?
A. Lumbricoides
T. Saginata
T. Solium
Hook worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T. Saginata
Q.
Malignant pustule is referred to_________________?
Cutaneous anthrax
Facio-cervical actinomycosis
Infected squamous cell carcinoma
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cutaneous anthrax
Q.
In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started________________?
Rabies
Influenza
Poliomyelitis
Herpes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabies
Q.
True about VDRL test________________?
Best followed for drug therapy
All of the above
Slide flocculation test
Non
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is_____________?
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis A virus
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
Lancefields classification of B hemolytic streptococcus is based on______________?
Physiological properties
Polysaccharide C antigen
M Protein
Type of lipid in cell membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Polysaccharide C antigen
Q.
Virulence of Gonococcus is due to___________________?
Its intracellular location
Cytolytic enzymes
Pili
Cell Membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
Which of the following fulfil all the criterias of kich
N. gonorrhoeae
None of the above
Mycobacterium leprae
Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: None of the above
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria grow_______________?
in the presence of nitrogen
in the presence of oxygen
in the absence of oxygen
differential media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in the absence of oxygen
Q.
Which of the following is an acid-fast bacillus_____________?
Mycobacterium bacilli
All of the above
Treponema pallidum
Neisseria gonorrhea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium bacilli
Q.
Which of the following is obligate aerobe ?
Pseudomonas aerogenosa
diphtheria
Proteus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Q.
Malaria pigment is________________?
Haemoglobin
Haematin-globin pigment
Iron
Bilurubin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haematin-globin pigment
Q.
The key cell types involved in the acquired immunity include all EXCEPT________________?
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
Antigen presenting cells (APC
Erythrocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythrocytes
Q.
Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor_____________?
Carbohydrate cell wall
Streptolysin 0
M protein
Pyrogenic exotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pyrogenic exotoxin
Q.
The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as_____________?
Paratope
Idiotope
Epitope
Clone
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epitope
Q.
Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose_______________?
Serum sickness
Arthus reaction
Anaphylaxis
Contact dermatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Immunoglobulin consists of________________?
1 heavy, 2 light chains
1 light, 1 heavy chain
3 light, 1 heavy chain
2 light, 2 heavy chains
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2 light, 2 heavy chains
Q.
Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in________________?
Rabbit testis only
Tissue culture
Artificial media
Chick embryos
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabbit testis only
Q.
Which of the following characteristics of bacteria is not true?
Having either DNA or RNA
Cell wall containing muramic acid
Unicellular
Free living
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Having either DNA or RNA
Q.
A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT________________?
Teichoplanin
Imipenem
Vancomycin
Linezolid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Imipenem
Q.
The overall effect of HIV is to gradually impair the immune system by interference with______________?
Macrophages
Plasma cells
Helper T lymphocytes
Natural killer cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes
Q.
Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?
Surface antibody
Core antigen
Surface antigen
Core antibody
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Surface antigen
Q.
Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies_____________?
Rabies
Small pox
Chicken pox
Measles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles
Q.
Prozone phenomenon is due to______________?
Excess antibody
Hyper immune reaction
Disproportionate antigen antibody levels
Excess antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Excess antibody
Q.
Actinomycosis is a_________________?
Aerobic bacterial disease
Aerobic fungal disease
Anaerobic fungal disease
Anaerobic bacterial disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic bacterial disease
Q.
HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except________________?
Saliva
Needle prick injury
Blood transmission
Sexual intercourse
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saliva
Q.
Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_______________?
Complex multiplication
All of the above
Simple structure
Presence of either DNA or RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
False +ve for VDRL is seen in______________?
Lepromatous Leprosy
Malaria
All of the above
Yaws
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Most fungi of medical importance belongs to__________________?
Ascomycetes
Basidiomycetes
Zygomycetes
Deuteromycetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deuteromycetes
Q.
Most of the drug resistances occurs due to_____________?
Mutation
Transduction
conjugation
Transformation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: conjugation
Q.
The bacterial cell wall has all of the following properties except______________?
It is a unique flexible plastic structure
It is the structure principally responsible for the reaction of gram staining
It contains D-isomers of amino acids
It consists of a mixed polymer called peptidoglycon
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It is a unique flexible plastic structure
Q.
The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is_____________?
Herpetic gingivostomatitis
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Tuberculosis
Apthous stomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Q.
Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in which of the following viruses_____________?
Hepatitis B virus
HIV
Measles virus
Pox virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is______________?
Chlamydia trachomatis
Donovania granulomatis
Bartonella henselae
Hemophilia ducreya
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bartonella henselae
Q.
Which of the following is not a feature of anaphylaxis ?
Delayed reaction
Immediate reaction
passive transfer by serum
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Delayed reaction
Q.
DNA covering material in a virus is called as________________?
Nucleocapsid
Capsomere
Envelope
Capsid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Capsid
Q.
ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______________?
Less sensitive, more specific
More sensitive, more specific
Less sensitive less specific
More sensitive, less specific
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: More sensitive, less specific
Q.
Who first introduced solid media_______________?
Louis pasteur
Ogston
Hensen
Robert koch
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robert koch
Q.
cAMP reaction is shown by which streptococci ?
Group D
Group A
Group C
Group B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B
Q.
Widal test is specific for____________?
Leprosy
Pemhigoid
Plague
Typhoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid
Q.
Which of the following is not a koch
Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the experimental animals
The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue
When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Pure cultures can be obtained
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Q.
All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_________________?
gingivalis
histolytica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: gingivalis
Q.
When horse serum is injected intravenoulsy in to a rabbit and again in to the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs as the site of the second injection________________?
Atopy
Anaphylaxis
Serum sickness
Arthus phenomenon
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus phenomenon
Q.
Fimbriae are demonstrated by ___________________?
Haemagglutination test
Biochemical reaction
Culture
Gram stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haemagglutination test
Q.
The following is not true of Candida albicans______________?
Yeast like fungus
Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them
Forms Chlamydospores
Blastomeres seen in isolates
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blastomeres seen in isolates
Q.
The temperature required for cultivating mycobacterium________________?
0 degree
2 degree
27 degrees
37 degrees
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 37 degrees
Q.
All are true about bordetella pertussis except______________?
Most common cause is B. Petrussis
Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
It may occur in children and young adult after vaccination
Bacteria culture from nasopharyngeal swab is the definitive diagnosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Q.
Causative organism of Kalahazar is_______________?
Entamoeba histolytica
Leishman donovani
Plasmodium ovaie
Toxoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leishman donovani
Q.
Interferon interferes with replication of virus at the time of_____________?
Protein synthesis
Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule
DNA/RNA replication
When virus enters the cell
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein synthesis
Q.
Rideal Walker test is used to determine the efficiency of the_____________?
Antibiotics
Moist heat sterilisation
Disinfectant
Dry heat sterilization
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Disinfectant
Q.
The difference between sterilization and disinfection is that_______________?
Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Sterilization is easier to achieve
Sterilization involves chemicals and disinfection involves physical methods
Disinfection kills all spores but sterilization does not
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Q.
The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is_______________?
Conjugation
Transformation
Lysogeny
Translation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysogeny
Q.
For uniform staining reaction, morphology and biochemical activity it is advisable to study bacterial cultures during the_____________?
Death phase
Stationary phase
Logarithmic phase
Lag phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Logarithmic phase
Q.
The structure in involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface is_______________?
Capsule
Fimbria
None of the above
Flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fimbria
Q.
Vibrio cholera was discovered by_________________?
Koch
Virchow
John snow
Medintoff
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Koch
Q.
Noguchi
Borrelia
Bordetella
None of the above
Brucella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia
Q.
Donovanosis, true is___________________?
Penicillin is drug of choice
Characterized by painful genital ulcers
Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Q.
Which of the following statement about P24 antigen of HIV is Not True ?
It can be detected during the window period
Virus load parallel P24 titre
Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:
It remains during asymptomatic phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It remains during asymptomatic phase
Q.
A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?
Allograft
Autograft
Isograft
Xenograft
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Isograft
Q.
In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_______________?
Sporozoite
Gametocyte
Merozoite
Hypnozoite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sporozoite
Q.
Virus infected cell is killed by________________?
Interferons
Autolysis
Neutrophils
Macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Interferons
Q.
In small intestine, cholera toxin acts by______________?
Active absorption of NaCI
Activation of GTPase
ADP
Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ADP
Q.
Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by_____________?
Haemolytic streptococci
Streptococcus viridans
Staphylococcus aureus
Nisseria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus viridans
Q.
Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by______________?
Inspissation
UV-Radiation
Autoclaving
Hot air oven
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Candida is most often implicated in causation___________________?
Thrush
Conjunctivitis
Desert rheumatism
Tenea capitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thrush
Q.
Diphtheria is pathogenic only when infected with______________?
Lambda K12
Beta phage
Alfa phage
Delta Phage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Beta phage
Q.
The antigen used in Weil Felix test is obtained from________________?
Proteus
Staphylococcus
coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to______________?
B
NK
CD4 T-cells
CD8 T-cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4 T-cells
Q.
Actinomycosis is caused by______________?
Fungus
Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Acid fast, non-motile bacillus
Retrovirus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Q.
The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route________________?
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis D virus
Hepatitis E virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______________?
Both are
Western Blot is
PCR is
ELISA IS
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both are
Q.
Lepromin test is useful for________________?
Epidemiology
Prognosis
Diagnosis
Treatment plan
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prognosis
Q.
Staphylococci typically occur in_________________?
Chains
Tetrads
Irregular clusters
Pairs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Irregular clusters
Q.
The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the________________?
CH1 domian
CH2 domian
VL domian
CL domian
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CH2 domian
Q.
Multiple drug resistance of bacteria depends on which of the following_______________?
Colicigenic factor (Col)
All of the above
Fertility factor (F+)
Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Q.
Immunity that is conferred to the foetus by transfer of IgG and IgA antibodies is called as______________?
Passive acquired immunity
Passive natural immunity
Active acquired immunity
Natural active immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Passive natural immunity
Q.
Viron is defined as______________?
None of the above
A smallest particle similar to virus
Extracellular infectious virus particle
Smallest virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Extracellular infectious virus particle
Q.
Cough plate method is used to identify________________?
Y. pestis
Pertussis
Mycoplasma
M-Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pertussis
Q.
Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functional of the cell______________?
wall
Capsule
nucleus
membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: membrane
Q.
A dentist suffred from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is_____________?
Healthy carrier
Convalscent carrier
Paradoxical carrier
Inactive carrier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Convalscent carrier
Q.
Sunlight acts as sterilizing agent because_________________?
short wave lenght
Long wavelength
Ozone
Heat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: short wave lenght
Q.
Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in______________?
2 weeks
9 weeks
12 weeks
4 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4 weeks
Q.
What is the sequence which a retro virus follows on entering a host cell ?
RNA -DNA-RNA
DNA-RNA
RNA-DNA
DNA-RNA-DNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: RNA -DNA-RNA
Q.
Nagglers reaction detects________________?
Coagulase
Lecithinase
None of the above
Hyaluronidase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Man is the only reservoir for_______________?
histolytica
Camphylobacter jejuni
Y. enterocolitica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: histolytica
Q.
Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_________________?
Desmolase
Lecithinase
Cytokinin
Theta toxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except___________________?
Though plasmids
through conjugation
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through bacteriophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is__________________?
Hepatitis vaccination
Placental transfer of antibodies
Immune blood transfusion
Gamma globulin injection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Placental transfer of antibodies
Q.
All are true about legionella pneumophilia except______________?
Person to person transmission
Aquatic bodies are main habitat
It can replicate in amoeba
Urine test is a reliable method
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Person to person transmission
Q.
Smith noguchi
Salmonella
Spirochetes
Bacillus
Klebsiella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
Tyndallisation is carried out for________________?
Three successive days
Two successive days
One day
60 minutes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Three successive days
Q.
Prions true is____________?
Sensitive to most chemical sterilization
Evokes strong immunogenic reaction
Contains DNA/ RNA
Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Q.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which of the following________________?
NK cells
Active T cells
Plasma cells
B-cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active T cells
Q.
All are oncogenic except________________?
Mansoni
Anopheles
Aedes
Culex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aedes
Q.
Which of the following viruses appears to be involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi
Human Herpes Virus 1
Human Herpes Virus 8
Human Herpes Virus 3
Human Herpes Virus 4
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Human Herpes Virus 4
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Vincent
A symbiotic infection
Caused due to malnutrition
Caused by leptospira interrogans
Ulcerative gingivostomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by leptospira interrogans
Q.
Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores can be achieved with_______________?
Grocott Gomori Methenamine silver
Hematoxylin and Eosin
Peri-iodic Acid Schiff
KOH wet mount
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: KOH wet mount
Q.
The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum ?
IgG2
IgG1
IgG4
IgG3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG1
Q.
Cytopathic effect is shown by_____________?
Bacteria
Virus
Anaerobe
Spirochete
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
Methods for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infection________________?
KOH staining
Microscopic examination of skin scrapings
All of the above
Wood light examination
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Culture medium used for Bordatella pertussis is_________________?
Wilson Blair medium
Bile broth
Robertson cooked meat medium
Bordet Gengou medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bordet Gengou medium
Q.
Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_____________________?
only after one year
in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
no antibodies are present in primary HSV
antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
Q.
Graft versus host reaction is caused by_________________?
B-Lymphocytes
Monocytes
T-lymphocytes
Leukocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T-lymphocytes
Q.
Black pigmented anaerobes include all of the following except______________?
Tannerella
Prevotella
Buccae
Porphyromonas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Buccae
Q.
A protoplast is best characterized as a bacterial cell______________?
Uniquely sensitive to penicillin
containing a cell wall and a capsule
Free of a cell wall and a capsule
with a cell wall but free of a capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Q.
Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes______________?
B cells
NK Cells
Cytotoxic T cells
Memory B cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NK Cells
Q.
Grape bunch shaped colonies are seen in______________?
E.coli
Staphylococcus
Gonococci
Streptococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staphylococcus
Q.
The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is_______________?
Parvo virus
EB virus
Adeno
Hepatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parvo virus
Q.
Most antibodies are produced in the________________?
Thymus and the appendix
Spleen and the lymph nodes
Heart and the liver
Brain and the meninges
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spleen and the lymph nodes
Q.
Post streptococcal acute glomerulo nephritis is an example of________________?
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type III hypersensitivity
Q.
Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups ?
Picorna viruses
Flavi viruses
Hepadana viruses
Herpes viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi viruses
Q.
Phase contrast microscopy is based on principle of__________________?
Light attenuation
Light scattering
Different refractive indices of object
Different reflective indices of object
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Different refractive indices of object
Q.
The medium of choice for culturing yeast from of dimorphic fungi is_________________?
Any medium incubated at 35-37
Sabouraud
Sabouraud
Brain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
The diagnosis of gonorrhea is established by_____________?
Pili agglutination tests
Haemagglutination tests
All of the above tests
Compliment fixation tests
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above tests
Q.
Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to______________?
Ascaris
Guinea worm
Hook worm
Thread worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hook worm
Q.
Candida albicans causes all of the following except______________?
Oral thrush
Meningitis
Mycetoma
Endocarditis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycetoma
Q.
CD4 count in normal healthy adult is_______________?
500
1000
300
200
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1000
Q.
A darkfield microscope would be useful in examining blood for_______________?
Mycobacterium
Actinomyces
Streptococcus
Treponema
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema
Q.
Immunoglobulins ar secreted by______________?
T-cells
Macrophages
Plasma cells
Neutrophils
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasma cells
Q.
Haptane is_______________?
High molecular protein
Same as epitopes
None of the above
Carrier required for specific antibody production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Carrier required for specific antibody production
Q.
Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by______________?
Isolation form stool
Isolation from bile
Culture from blood
IgM antibodies in serum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM antibodies in serum
Q.
VDRL is a________________?
Tube flocculation test
Slide flocculation test
Latex agglutination test
Tube agglutination test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Slide flocculation test
Q.
One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is____________?
Supervision
Permutation
Viral interference
Mutation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Viral interference
Q.
The difference between gram positive and negative bacteria lies in their_______________?
cell membrane
Nuclear material
Mesosomes
cell wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cell wall
Q.
The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are______________?
Mycoplasma
Virus infections
Gram positive organisms
Gram negative organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram negative organisms
Q.
Endotoxins differ from exotoxins in that endotoxins______________?
are proteins
are highly antigenic
are heat labile
activate complement by the alternate pathway
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: activate complement by the alternate pathway
Q.
The Dane particle is the______________?
IgG anti HAV
Delta Virus
HBV
HBC Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBV
Q.
Tuberculin test screens for_____________?
Complement function
Hemoral immunity
Phagocyte dysfunction
Cell mediated immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell mediated immunity
Q.
Endoscopes are sterilized by using_______________?
Autoclaving
Gamma radiation
Boiling
Cidex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Boiling
Q.
One of the following statement about statements about sterilization is not true_______________?
Flash pasteurization of milk ? 72
Liquid paraffin ? Dry heat
Glass syringes ? Boiling at 169
Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Q.
Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?
Polysaccharides
Proteins
Lipids
Adjuvant
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteins
Q.
IgG antibodies have a half-life of approximately_______________?
1 hour
1 Month
1 day
1 week
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 Month
Q.
Exotoxins are____________________?
Protein compound
Lipoprotein
Lipid-polysaccharide complex
None
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein compound
Q.
Following is a retrovirus_____________?
Immunodeficiency virus
Influenza
Hepatitis virus
Polio virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immunodeficiency virus
Q.
The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement_________________?
IgM
IgE
IgA
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
The reaginic antibody is________________?
IgE
IgA
IgD
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Kaposi
Above 2000
Above 600
Below 200
Between 1000-2000
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Below 200
Q.
All are not true for cultivation of anaerobic organisms except_______________?
Incubator
anaerobic jar
Refrigerator
Centrifuge
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: anaerobic jar
Q.
Each of the following can cause food poisoning except________________?
Staphylococcus
Cl. botulinum
Cl. difficile
Cl. welchii
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. difficile
Q.
Which of the following does not go into chronic hepatitis stage ?
HDV
HBV
HEV
HCV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HEV
Q.
Physical sterilization was discovered by__________________?
John Hunter
Robert Koch
Alexander flemings
Joeph Lister
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Joeph Lister
Q.
Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito______________?
Merozoite
Sporozoite
Zygote
Gametocyte
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gametocyte
Q.
Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with_______________?
Ziel Nelson
Giemsa stain
Kin Young stain
Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Q.
Which of the following are correctly matched ?
Antigenic stimulus given by vaccine (polio) is artificial active immunity
Injection of antibodies (Hepatitis) is artificially acquired passive immunity
Transfer of antibody from mother to child is through colostrum and acquired passive immunity naturally
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which is type II hypersensitivity ?
Delayed hypersensitivity
Immune complex mediated
Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Anaphylaxis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Q.
By using phase contrast microscope_______________?
Internal structures are differentiated in dead cells
Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
External capsule formation can be observed
Internal metabolic activities can be observed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Q.
One of the following is a treponemal test for diagnosis of syphilis_____________?
FTAB
Kahn test
Widal test
Wasserman test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: FTAB
Q.
Which of the following have the capability to produce extra cellular polysaccharides______________?
Strep. pyogenes
Enterococcus
Peptostreptococcus
Strep. Mutans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strep. Mutans
Q.
Opportunistic infection is caused by___________________?
Mucor
All of the above
Penicillium
Aspergillus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The minimum time required for the sterilization of surgical instruments by moist heat at 134
30 minutes
3 minutes
60 minutes
15 minutes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3 minutes
Q.
Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti_________________?
Terminal nuclei absent
Causes filariasis
Body is slender and long
Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Q.
Granules in the corynebacterium diphtheria are called by following names, except______________?
Babes Ernst granules
Metachromatic granules
Refractile granules
Voluntin granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile granules
Q.
Neurotoxin of tetanus acts on______________?
Brain
Synapse
Spinal card
Muscle
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spinal card
Q.
Sporulation occurs in__________________?
Log phase
Lag phase
Decline phase
Stationary phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
True about HIV are all except______________?
Macrophages are the reservoir
DNA virus
Decrease CD4 count in late stages
Attacks CD4 cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: DNA virus
Q.
IgG has subclasses_______________?
1
3
2
4
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4
Q.
Anti HBsAB indicates______________?
Resistance to hepatitis B
Acute infection
Good prognosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Good prognosis
Q.
Causative agents of Vincent
Borrelia burgoloferi and lactobacillus
Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Borrelia recurrents and bateroides
Leptospira and Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Q.
Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______________?
Atopic allergy
Contact dermatitis
Transfusion reaction
Serum sickness
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is________________?
Indirect hemagglutination
Microscopy
ELISA
Counter immune electroporesis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA
Q.
Test for differentiating virulent form non-virulent tubercular bacilli_____________?
Niacin test
Neutral red test
Catalase peroxidase test
Aryl sulphatase test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neutral red test
Q.
Rickettsiae__________________?
Multiply within living cell
Transmitted by arthropod vectors
All of the above
Respond to tetracycline therapy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Virus is cultured in_______________?
Rogosa medium
Embryonated egg
Nonembryonated egg
Saubourd
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Embryonated egg
Q.
Disinfection frees the surface from______________?
Spore forms
None of the above
Both of the above
Vegetative forms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vegetative forms
Q.
Human immunoglobulins are divided based on_____________?
Structural differences
Complemented fixation
Functional differences
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Structural differences
Q.
Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to__________________?
Invasion
Endotoxin
Exotoxin
Capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Exotoxin
Q.
Chemotactic cytokine is_________________?
IL-1
TNF
IL-8
IL-6
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IL-8
Q.
The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in vivo from one bacterium to another by_____________?
Rarefaction
Conjugation
Transduction
Transformation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
The culture media for fungus is__________________?
Tellurite medium
Sabourauds medium
Chocolate agar medium
NNN medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabourauds medium
Q.
Immunoglobin, Which is produced first by the fetus in response to infection_______________?
IgA
IgM
IgD
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Which of the following is an enrichment medium________________?
Selenite F Broth
Nutrient Broth
Mac Conkey agar
Blood agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Selenite F Broth
Q.
What is the transport medium for cholera___________________?
Cary Blair Medium
Tellurite Medium
B & C
Venkatraman
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: B & C
Q.
A type of immediately occuring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called_____________?
Type II hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type I hypersensitivity
Q.
Same or closely related antigens present in different biological species are known as________________?
Isoantigens
Heterophile antigens
Suquestrated antigens
Haptens
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Heterophile antigens
Q.
One of the following is an agglutination test in the diagnosis of typhoid___________?
Eleks test
Mantoux test
Wasserman test
Widal test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
Sterilization is a process in which_________________?
Deactivate all pathogens not spores
Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Kill all pathogenic micro-organisms
Kill all non-pathogenic micro-organisms in the environment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Q.
Human immune deficiency virus is ________________ virus?
Rheo
Retro
Rhabdo
Flavi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Retro
Q.
A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned in to an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis______________?
Carbol Fuschin
Acid Fast Stain
Calcoflour White
Trichrome Methylene blue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trichrome Methylene blue
Q.
Half-life of free HIV in plasma is________________?
24 hours
3 months
12 hours
6 hours
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 6 hours
Q.
Among The infectious diseases transmitted by food, one is___________________?
Diptheria
Tuberculosis
Typhoid fever
Viral stomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid fever
Q.
Moist heat kills all of the following EXCEPT_______________?
Brucella
Mycobacterium
Salmonella
Coxiella burnetti
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coxiella burnetti
Q.
The Ig found in exocrine secretions is_____________?
IgG
IgM
IgD
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Operation theatres are sterilized by_____________?
Formaldehyde fumigation
Carbolic acid spraying
Washing with soap and water
ETO gas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Formaldehyde fumigation
Q.
Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci________________?
Sarcina
Staphylococcus
Micrococcus
Aerococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sarcina
Q.
About Bacteroids True are all Except_______________?
Bile resistant anerobes
Susceptible to many antibiotics
Present mainly in mixed infections
Most common species is B fragilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Susceptible to many antibiotics
Q.
Encapsulation in bacteria helps in__________________?
Prevent their phagocytosis
Oxygen effect
Spore formation
Decreased virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prevent their phagocytosis
Q.
In initial stages of tyhoid, salmonella can be detected in________________?
Feacus
Urine
Blood
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood
Q.
All of the following are true of streptococcus except_____________?
Most common in humans
It
Most common is animals
Shows adherence to dental enamel
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It
Q.
Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phase of the bacterial growth curve______________?
Lag
Stationary phase
Decline
Exponential growth
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
Viruses can be cultured in all except_______________?
Guinea pigs
Blood agar
Cell culture
Chick embryo
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood agar
Q.
Kolmer test is a screening test done for_________________?
Lymphoma
Tuberculosis
Gonorrhea
Syphilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Function of T-lymphocyte is/are________________?
Production of interferon
All of the above
Rosette formation
Lymphokine production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The following are applicable to bacterial genoms except________________?
It doe not contain histones
It is composed of DNA
Its DNA has both introns and extrons
It is circular
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Q.
EBV causes all except_________________?
Carcinoma of nasopharynx
Papilloma
Infectious mononucleosis
Burkitt
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma
Q.
Which of the following is not used as disinfectant________________?
2% Lysol
1-2% cetrimide
100% alcohol
5% chloroxylene
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 100% alcohol
Q.
Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by_______________?
M. chelonae
M. smegmatis
M. ulcerans
M. Kansasii
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. chelonae
Q.
All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except____________?
Hepatitis E
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
HIV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Which of the following correctly indicates the infectivity of hepatitis virus in human ?
Anti-HBC
HBCAg
HBeAg
Anti-HBS
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBeAg
Q.
In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except__________________?
Hemolysis
Malabsorption
Spleen sequestration
Bone marrow depression
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Malabsorption
Q.
Which of the following is not a pox virus ?
Molluscum contagiosum
Small pox
chicken pox
Cowpox
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: chicken pox
Q.
A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is______________?
Pyte-ferraco stain
India ink preparation
Methanamine silver stain
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
Staphylococcal food poisoning includes the following features_______________?
Requires immediate antibiotics
Common with dairy products
Heat labile enterotoxin
Incubation period of 24 hours
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Common with dairy products
Q.
Causative organism for gas gangrene_______________?
Strep. Faecalis
Clostridium welchii
Coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Streptococcus is classified based on__________________?
Bile Solubility
M Protein
Cultural characteristics
Cell wall carbohydrate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall carbohydrate
Q.
compared with autoclave, use of a dry heat over for sterilization has the following disadvantages______________?
Time-consuming
Less effective
Causes sharp instruments to dull
Causes instruments to rust
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Time-consuming
Q.
Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces?
Capsule
Pili
Flagella
Mesosomes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except_____________?
Legionella pneumophila
Streptococcus pyogenes
Salmonella typhi
Neisseria meningitides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus pyogenes
Q.
The best sterilization method for a hand-piece is________________?
dry heat
All of the above
Ethylene oxide gas
chemical vapour
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ethylene oxide gas
Q.
Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is____________?
Secretory IgA
Sialoperoxidase
Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Histidine rich proteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Q.
Sleeping sickness is caused by_______________?
House fly
Reduvid bug
Sand fly
Tick
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reduvid bug
Q.
The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_____________?
Tenia incognito
Kerison
Alopecia areata
Pilomatrixoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kerison
Q.
Steam under pressure in used in ________ sterilization?
hot air oven
Kochs sterilizer
Autoclave
Pasteurization
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The small nonparticulate protein leading to enhanced replication of HBV as well as HIV is______________?
HBc Ag
Hbe Ag
HBx Ag
HBs Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBx Ag
Q.
T cells multiplication is stimulated by_______________?
Phytohaemagglutinin
Heat
Macrolin
Bovine serum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Phytohaemagglutinin
Q.
Bacteria reproduce mainly by______________?
Bacterial components produced by host cells
Binary fission
Budding
Sporing
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Binary fission
Q.
The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine doses not play a major role is______________?
Anaphylaxis
Asthma
Urticaria
Arthus reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus reaction
Q.
Robertsons cooked meat medium is best suited for cultivation of_______________?
Mycobacterium
Choleria
S. epidermidis
Clostridia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridia
Q.
A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates________________?
Prodromal phase
Convalescence
Carrier state
Acute infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acute infection
Q.
Which of the following organisms does NOT react with gram
Streptococcus mutan
Actinomyces israelii
Candida albicans
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q.
Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins ?
IgE
IgG
IgA
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Disinfection of the rooms can be done by using_______________?
20% phenol
40% formaldehyde vapour
Chlorine gas
High efficiency particle arrestors
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 40% formaldehyde vapour
Q.
Negative staining is used to demonstrate________________?
Bacterial fimbriae
Bacterial spore
Bacterial Flagella
Bacterial capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacterial fimbriae
Q.
Which is not true about vibrio cholera_________________?
It is non-halophilic
Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Man is the only natural host
Grows on simple media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Q.
Group A carbohydrate of Str. pyogenes cross reacts with human_________________?
Cardiac valves
Synovial fluid
Myocardium
Vascular intima
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiac valves
Q.
Pneumococus can be differentiated from streptococcus by________________?
Growth characteristics
Bile solubility
Type of hemolysis
Gram staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bile solubility
Q.
Phage conversion is required for________________?
Diptheria
Tularemia
All o f the above
Gonorrhoea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Diptheria
Q.
parasitic inflammation would show predominantly____________________?
Lymphocytes
Neutrophilis
Basophils
Eosinophils
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Eosinophils
Q.
Pseudohphae are seen in____________?
Aspergillus
Candida albicans
Osporium
Alternaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?
Q fever
Trench fever
Epidemic typhus
Relapsing fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Q fever
Q.
The causative organism of syphilis is___________?
Leptospira interrogans
Borrelia burgolorferi
Treponema pallidum
Chalamydia trachomatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema pallidum
Q.
Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except______________?
Ascaris lumbriocoides
Entamoeba
Giardia lambia
Strongyloides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strongyloides
Q.
Toxoids are_________________?
non-antigenic and toxic
antigenic and non-toxic
antigenic and toxic
non-antigenic and non-toxic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: antigenic and non-toxic
Q.
Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000_________________?
J piece
Secretory piece
L chain
H chain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: H chain
Q.
IL-1 is produced by_________________?
Helper B cells
Helper T cells
Monocytes
Macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Macrophages
Q.
In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by_____________?
Blood culture
Urine culture
Stool culture
Widal test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except__________________?
Found exclusively in human beings.
Most common cause of urethritis is male
All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Q.
Pigs are important source of_____________?
Yellow fever
Kuru
Japanese encephalitis
Rabies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Japanese encephalitis
Q.
A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains and haemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism ?
Bacitracin sensitivity
Cataslase positive
Optochin sensitivity
Bile solubility
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacitracin sensitivity
Q.
Organ of locomotion in bacteria is________________?
Capsule
Cell wall
Fimbria
Flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flagella
Q.
All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except______________?
Colony morphology on saliva agar
Gram staining
Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide
Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram staining
Q.
Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in______________?
Ascariasis and tapeworm
Hood worm
Tapeworm
Ascariasis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ascariasis
Q.
Bacteria with tuft of flagella at one end are called_______________?
Bipolar
Peritrichate
Monotrichate
Lophotrichate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lophotrichate
Q.
Certain viruses have been isolated in crytalline form and have been found to be_____________?
Scleroproteins
Phospholipids
Nucleotides
Nucleoproteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleoproteins
Q.
Fungal infection of human beings is called as_____________?
Mycosis
Fungosis
Micromia
Mucorsis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycosis
Q.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa_________________?
Causes Shangai fever
Produces heat stable enterotoxin
Does not produce any pigment
Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Causes Shangai fever
Q.
The world german measles is applied for_____________?
Herpetic ginglvostomatitis
Rubella
Herpes simplex
Rubeola
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Which of the following provides best gurantee for sterlization in the heat sterilizer ?
Recording a temperature/ pressure readings from sterilizer guage
Using chemical indicator strip or pouch
Determining the ability of a sterilizer to kill the hepatitis B virus
Using a bacterial spore test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Using a bacterial spore test
Q.
Active artificial immunization is induced by the administration of all of the following EXCEPT______________?
Toxoids
Vaccines
Antitoxins
Bacterial products
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antitoxins
Q.
Plaque test is used routinely in virology lab
Identification of viral disease
To prepare vaccines
To separate specific clone of virus
To maintain certain viral culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Identification of viral disease
Q.
The commonest method of detection of diptheria carriers is_______________?
Dick test
Charles
Schick test
Casoni
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Schick test
Q.
Most common tumor associated with AIDS is______________?
Kaposi
Carcinoma
Ewing
Melanoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kaposi
Q.
Which of the following is a RNA virus ?
Adeno virus
Measles virus
Papavo virus
Herpes Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
A 6 year old boy comes with abdominal pain, vomiting after consuming mild products within 6 hours. The most likely organism responsible is______________?
Salmonella
Clostridium botulinum
B.Cereus
Staph. aureus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staph. aureus
Q.
The medium of choice for growing most fungi is_______________?
Thioglycollate medium
Tissue culture
Blood agar
Sabouraud
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
Hydatid cyst is__________________?
Congenital
Fungal
Viral
Parasitic in nature
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parasitic in nature
Q.
Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called______________?
Opsonisation
Chemotaxis
CFT
De coding
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Opsonisation
Q.
The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is___________________?
10%
5%
15%
2%
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2%
Q.
Selective media for MYCOBACTERIUM _____________?
Sabourauds medium
Loefflers serum slope
Agar
Lowenstein Jensen medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lowenstein Jensen medium
Q.
A sporangium contains_______________?
Chlamydospores
Oidia
porangiospores
Spherules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: porangiospores
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria can be cultured in__________________?
Loefflers medium
Sabourauds agar
L-J medium
Robertson cooked meat medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robertson cooked meat medium
Q.
All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except________________?
Cysts are 4 nucleated
Trophozoites colonise in the colon
Cysts are 8 nucleated
The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cysts are 8 nucleated
Q.
Gram -ve bacteria stain during gram staining____________?
Colorless
Green
Blue color
Red color
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Red color
Q.
The optimal time and temperature required for sterilization in an autoclave is___________________?
121
121
140
121
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 121
Q.
Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus ?
Verruca vulgaris
Condyloma acuminatum
Keratoacanthoma
Focal epithelial hyperplasia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Keratoacanthoma
Q.
IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by______________?
Activated macrophages
Platelet
Lymphocytes
Plasma cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Activated macrophages
Q.
The major intestinal pathogens which are non-lactose fermenters are_________________?
Paracolons
Klebsiella
Salmonella
Escherichia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salmonella
Q.
Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by________________?
Direct microscopy
DNA probe
Culture
ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Culture
Q.
Which component of the cell wall is responsible________________?
Boivin antigen
Region III
Region I
Region II
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Region III
Q.
In patients with asthma due to an allergic cause the serum levels of which immunoglobulin increase____________________?
IgA
IgE
IgD
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Which regards to temperature requirement, most pathogenic bacteria are_____________?
Mesophiles
Cryophiles
Thermophiles
Psychrophiles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mesophiles
Q.
Negative phase is seen in ________ immunity?
Passive
Herd
Local
Active
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active
Q.
Bacterial cell does not possess___________________?
Ribosome
Cell wall
Mitochondria
dna
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mitochondria
Q.
Australian antigen is_______________?
HB Ag
None of the above
HBV
HBs AG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBs AG
Q.
Which does not have a viral etiology______________?
Hepatoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Carcinoma Cervix
Lymphoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Endotoxins are produced by________________?
Virus
Gram +ve bacteria
Gram -ve bacteria
Fungi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram -ve bacteria
Q.
EBV is responsible for all except______________?
Infectious mononucleosis
Burkitt
Hepatoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Complement factor through which common pathway begins___________________?
C2
Protein B
C5
C3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C3
Q.
Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is___________________?
Spleen
Brain
Liver
Lungs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Liver
Q.
The time gap between appearance of Koplik
10 days
24 Hrs
3-4 days
2 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3-4 days
Q.
CD4 cells recognize the antigens in association with_____________?
MHC III
B-cell receptor
MHC I
MHC II
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: MHC II
Q.
Each of the following viruses possesses an outer lipoprotein envelope except_____________?
Papilloma Virus
Varicella Zoster Virus
Influenza Virus
Human immunodeficiency virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma Virus
Q.
Mark true in following ?
Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
None of the above
Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Q.
First released immunoglobulin after primary immunization_______________?
IgD
IgG
IgM
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is_________________?
Escherichia coli
Neisseria gonorrhea
T-strain mycoplasma
Streptococcus fecalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Escherichia coli
Q.
Black water fever is caused by______________?
Leishmania donovani
Microfilaria
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______________?
Sickle
Comma
Dot
Banana
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sickle
Q.
Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____________?
6 week
1 week
6 months
3 months
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 week
Q.
About Psedomonas. All are true except________________?
Can grow in disinfectants in hospital
Most common organism is burn patient
Strick aerobes
Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except_______________?
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through plasmids
Through conjugation
Through bacteriophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____________?
16,18,31
6,8,11
Type 6,12,18
3,10,19
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 16,18,31
Q.
Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except_______________?
Tissue culture
Embryonated eggs
Chemically defined media
Animals
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chemically defined media
Q.
Type of receptor present on T-cells are__________________?
Ig G
Ig A
Prostaglandins
CD4
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4
Q.
All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_____________?
Chromatid bars
Eccentric nucleus
Refractile nucleus
Glycogen mass
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile nucleus
Q.
Leprosy bacilli can be grown in_________________?
Tail of guinea pig
Testes of guinea pig
Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Testes of albino rats
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Q.
Group A B-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the pharynx may be followed in some by_____________?
Typhoid fever
Diphtheria
Rheumatic fever
Syphilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatic fever
Q.
Secretory Ig is_______________?
IgE
IgD
IgM
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Which of the following viruses does not infect salivary glands ?
Hepatitis C
Orthomyxovirus
Echo virus
HIV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxovirus
Q.
Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following________________?
Salk vaccine
Tetanus toxoid
All of the above
Sabin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salk vaccine
Q.
True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by_______________?
Dogs
cats
Rats
Cow
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cats
Q.
Candidal hyphae can be stained using_______________?
Toluidine blue stain
Masson Trichrome stain
Van Gieson
Periodic acid schiff stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Periodic acid schiff stain
Q.
The prototype of Type II hypersensitivity reaction is__________________?
SLE
Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Contact dermatitis
Arthus reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Q.
The earliest identifiable cells of T-Cell lineage during maturation are_______________?
CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
CD8+ Pre-T-Cells
CD8+ Pro-T-Cells
CD5+ Pre-T-Cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
Q.
Dengue virus belongs to______________?
Reoviridae
Togaviridae
Rhabdoviridae
Flavi virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi virus
Q.
T cell matures in______________?
Lymph node
Busra of Fabricius
Payers patch
Thymus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thymus
Q.
The presence of Which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility ?
Lipids
Polysaccharide
Enzymes
Protein coat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein coat
Q.
Wasserman test test is diagnostic of__________________?
TB
Gonorrhea
Syphilis
Tyhoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Glasswares are sterilised by______________?
Hot air oven
Formaldehyde
Incineration
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by which of the following_____________?
Cidex
All of the above
Boiling
Ethanol
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affets_______________?
Red blood cells
Mast cells
Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Fibroblasts
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Q.
Which of the following enzyme is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot pathogenic staphylococci_____________?
Fibrinolysin
S protein
Lysozyme
Coagulase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coagulase
Q.
Secondary response is mediated by_______________?
IgM
IgG
IgE
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Bacterial species which is protective or beneficial to the host is_______________?
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Treponema denticola
Streptococcus sanguis
Spirochetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus sanguis
Q.
Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve________________?
Jejunum and Ileum
Caecum and large intestine
Stomach
Duodenum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caecum and large intestine
Q.
A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents________________?
ISO
Auto
Allo
Xeno
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Allo
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical mycobacteria by______________?
Pas staining
None of the above
AFB staining
Niacin test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Niacin test
Q.
The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by____________?
Translation
Conjugation
Cell fusion
Transduction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
Sterilisation control for moist heat is
Using non-pathogenic strain of clostridium tetani
Using chemical indicator
Using methylene blue
using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Q.
Complement binding immunoglobin via the classical pathway is_______________?
IgG & igM
IgG & IgA
IgG & IgD
IgD & IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG & igM
Q.
Commonest mycobacterial infection in tropical countries_______________?
Kansasi
M. leprae
M. tuberculosis
M. avium intracellulare
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. tuberculosis
Q.
Sterilisation is______________?
Non-pathogenic killed
Only pathogenic micro-organisms killed
All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Pathogens killed but spores are not affected
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Q.
Killer and Helper cells are part of_______________?
B cells
T cells
Macrophage
Monocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T cells
Q.
Bacteriophage was discovered by_________________?
Robert koch
Twort and d
Metchinkoff
Menkin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Twort and d
Q.
Growth factor needed for Salmonella_________________?
Tryptophan
Niacin
Citrate
B-12
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Tryptophan
Q.
Louis Pasteur is not associated with_______________?
Discovery of Rabies Vaccine
Disproved spontaneous regression theory
Introduction of complex media
Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Q.
Synthesis of antibodies in plasma cells occurs in_________________?
Mitochondria
Nucleus
Golgi body
Endoplasmic reticulum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.
Leishmania is cultured in ________________ media?
Tellurite
Chocolate agar
Sabourauds
NNN
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NNN
Q.
Purpose of Sterilization is to eliminate________________?
Viruses
Bacteria
Fungus
Spore formers
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spore formers
Q.
The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to_____________?
Kill mircobes
Dehydrate microbial cells
Inhibit microbial growth
Remove microbes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Remove microbes
Q.
The only virus, which has double stranded RNA, is______________?
Bunya virus
Calci virus
Rhabdo virus
Reo virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reo virus
Q.
Culture media of candida is_________________?
Pingolevin
Methylene blue dextrose agar
Saboraud
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saboraud
Q.
L.D bodies are seen in_______________?
Sleeping sickness
Kalahazar
Malaria
Toxoplasmosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kalahazar
Q.
Schuffner
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium malariae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium vivax
Q.
Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus infection during window period ?
HBs Ag
IgM anti
None of the above
Anti HBs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM anti
Q.
Delhi boil refer to_______________?
Venereal ulcer
L. Tropica sore
Malignant pustule
Solar Keratosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: L. Tropica sore
Q.
Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except________________?
All are true
50% chances to have AIDS
Have infections
Failure to thrive
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 50% chances to have AIDS
Q.
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to_______________?
T lymphocytes
Histiocytes
Monocytes
B lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T lymphocytes
Q.
The cell wall deficient bacteria_______________?
Mycoplasma
Chlamydiae
Ehrlichiae
Rickettsiae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycoplasma
Q.
Pasteur developed the vaccine for_______________?
Cholera
Rabies
Anthrax
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Borrelia vincenti is always associated with______________?
Treponema vincenti
Fusiform bacilli
Spirochaetes
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fusiform bacilli
Q.
The Manufacturing unit of surgical needle & sutures are sterilized by ________________?
Autoclaving
Boiling
X-Rays
Gamma-Rays
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma-Rays
Q.
Glutaraldehyde is preferred more than formaldehyde because______________?
It has got more bactericidal activity
It has got more bacteriostatic activity
Its application is easier
It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Q.
The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is_____________?
Robertoson
Chocolate agar
Chorio allantoic membrane
Sabourad
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chorio allantoic membrane
Q.
Rh incompatibility is which type of hyper sensitivity reaction ?
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Type I
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Silver impregnation method of staining is useful to demonstrate_____________?
Spirochetes
Both of the above
None of the above
Bacterial flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both of the above
Q.
Which of the following would you consider to be general properties of viruses______________?
New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses
Contain DNA but no RNA
Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids
Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Q.
Dematophytes are fungi infecting________________?
Subcutaneous tissue
Superficial skin and deep tissue
Systemic organs
Nails, hair and skin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nails, hair and skin
Q.
Chlamydia causes all of the following except________________?
Non-gonococcal urethritis
Trachoma
Pneumonia
Parotitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parotitis
Q.
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (SSS syndrome) is due to______________?
Enterotoxin F
Enterotoxin B
Enterotoxin A
Enterotoxin D
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterotoxin F
Q.
Leprosy bacilli are transmitted from person to person by all except______________?
From open sore
Dischange from nasal mucosa
Through intact skin
Through breast milk
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Through breast milk
Q.
ASO (Antistreptolysin 0) test is uesd for the diagnosis of________________?
Typhoid fever
Rickettsial fever
Rheumatie fever
Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatie fever
Q.
Actinomycetes is______________?
A yeast like form
Fungus
Gram positive bacteria
Gram negative bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is_____________?
Ninhydrin stain
Eosin stain
Haemotoxin stain
Blue stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ninhydrin stain
Q.
Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by_____________?
Bacteria
Virus
Parasite
Bacteria superadded on virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
The term animalcules to oral microorganisms is given by__________________?
Wd miller
Socranci
Robertson
Leumenhoek
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leumenhoek
Q.
Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly_______________?
Nasal mucosa
Lung
Skin
Gastrointestinal tract
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gastrointestinal tract
Q.
Phospholipid used to investigate syphilis by the reagin test is________________?
Serine
Cardiolipin
Palmityl lecithin
Plasminogen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiolipin
Q.
Cleavage of IgG molecule by Papin gives rise to:One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments_______________?
One Fc fragment and four Fab fragments
Two Fc fragments and two Fab fragments
Two Fc fragment and one Fab fragment
One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Q.
Following reaction are produced by heterophil antigens except_____________?
Widal reaction
Paul bunnel reaction
Forssman antigen antibody reaction
Weil-Felix reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal reaction
Q.
The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______________?
IgG
IgE
IgD
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV irradiation_______________?
Carbohydrates
Inorganic salts
Nucleic acids
Lipids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleic acids
Q.
Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by________________?
Bacteria
Sucrose
Epithelial cells
Dextran
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dextran
Q.
The anaphylaxis should be treated first with_____________?
Antibiotics
Anti histamines
Steroids
Epinephrine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epinephrine
Q.
Dorset
Mycobacterium
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Gonococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best demonstrated by_________________?
PAS stain
H & E stain
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Gram
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Q.
The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is______________?
Borrelia vincenti
Treponema pallidum
Treponjema pertenue
Borrelia burgdorferi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti
Q.
Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is ________________?
Mucor
Penicillium
Rhizopus
Aspergillus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus
Q.
Best method of sterilizing disposable syringes_______________?
Gamma rays
Hot air oven
Boiling
U.V. rays
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma rays
Q.
Anaphylaxis refers to the________________?
Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions
State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________________?
Causes meningitis
Melanin production related to virulence
Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Basidiomycetes yeast
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Q.
The Process of attenuation can be achieved by all except___________________?
Repeated cultures in artificial media
Serial passage in an experimental host
Growing bacteria in adverse environment
Growing bacteria in unconventional host
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serial passage in an experimental host
Q.
Probiotic organism used_________________?
Bifido bacteria
Salmonella
E coli
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bifido bacteria
Q.
Staphylococcus does not causes_______________?
Abscess
Osteomyelitis
Scarlet fever
Pneumonia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Scarlet fever
Q.
Oil and Grease are sterilized by________________?
Ethylene dioxide
Auto claving
Irradiation
Hot air oven
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Most sensitive test for antigen detection is_______________?
Immunoflourescence
ELISA
Radioimmuno Assay
Passive hemaglutination
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Radioimmuno Assay
Q.
Antigen combining site of the antibody is____________________?
Paratope
Epitope
Hapten
Idiotope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Paratope
Q.
The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______________?
Necrosis
Erythema
Vasculitis
Induration
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythema
Q.
The most common site where organisms are present in a typhoid carrier is______________?
Gall Bladder
Salivary gland
Liver
Spleen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gall Bladder
Q.
Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause foetal defect ?
Papilloma
Rubella
Herpes Simplex
Mumps
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Babu, a 28 year old male comes with compaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by____________?
Western blot
Lymph node biopsy
ELISA
P24 antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: P24 antigen
Q.
The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is ________________?
Coagulase production
hypersensitivity
lecithinase production
exotoxin production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: hypersensitivity
Q.
In T.B cell mediated immunity is by_______________?
None of the above
CD 4*
CD 8*
B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD 4*
Q.
Australia antigen is associated with________________?
AIDS
Basal cell carcinoma
Chronic leukemia
Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Q.
Incubation pariod of herpes zoster is________________?
3-6 months
7-14 days
1-2 years
1 months
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 7-14 days
Q.
Salmonella typhi can be isolated at different times from______________?
All of the above
Blood
Feaces
Urine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which of the following antibacterial substance is present in eggs and saliva ?
Secretozyme
Isozyme
Albumin
Lysozyme
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysozyme
Q.
Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection_________________?
Balantidium coli
Taenia solium
Giardia lambella
Isopora belli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Taenia solium
Q.
Electron microscopic examination of the bacterial flora of necrotising ulcerative gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are______________?
Spirochetes
Cocci
Bacteriophages
Filamentous rods
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
The most frequently encountered clostridial species in gas gangrene is______________?
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium welchii
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium tetani
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Q fever is caused by________________?
Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
C. burnetti
R. prowozekii
R. quintana
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C. burnetti
Q.
Mesophilic organisms are those that grow best at temperature of______________?
-7
-20
55
25
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 25
Q.
An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry cough, sputum culture showed growth on charcoal yeast Extract Medium, theorganism is______________?
Moraxella catarrhalis
Burkholderia cepacia
H. influenza
Legionella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Legionella
Q.
Techoic acid is present in_____________?
Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram negative organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram positive organisms
Cell wall of Gram negative organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Q.
Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?
The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission
Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously
Causes positive Nagler reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Q.
Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by_________________?
Hookworm
Threadworm
Dog tapeworm
Fish tapeworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fish tapeworm
Q.
Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?
Prions
Mycobacteria
Coccidia
Spore
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prions
Q.
Blood agar is________________?
Transport media
Differential media
Simple media
Enriched media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enriched media
Q.
Signs of tyhoid fever is/are_____________________?
perforation
Haemorrhage
Osteomyelitis
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by ___________________?
Aspergillus
Candida albicans
Cryptococcus
Mucor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction______________?
E.coli
Haemophilus
Proteus
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?
Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity
Give ARV
Immediately wash wound with soap and water
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Q.
One of the following is a zoonotic disease_____________?
Typhoid
Cholera
Anthrax
Bacillary dysentery
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anthrax
Q.
Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of______________?
Malaria
Wool sorters disease
Gas gangrene
Whooping cough
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gas gangrene
Q.
Which of the following is a live vaccine_____________?
Hepatitis
Salk
17 D
HDCV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HDCV
Q.
The function of IgD is______________?
Localization protection in external secretion
Compliment activation
Reagin activity
Antigen recognition by B cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antigen recognition by B cells
Q.
The following statement is true regarding fungal infection__________________?
Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man
Candida infection is usually endogenous
albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals
Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida infection is usually endogenous
Q.
One of the following staining methods is an example of negative staining_______________?
Fontana
India ink preparation
Zheil-Neilson
Gram
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
All are true about widel test except________________________?
High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative
Base lines differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
H antigen cannot differentiate between subtypes
O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Q.
The virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhea include all of the following except____________?
Pili
Outer membrane proteins
M-Proteins
IgA Protease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M-Proteins
Q.
Characteristic feature of retrovirus is_____________?
Ribonuclease
DNA polymerase
Restriction endonuclease
Reverse transcriptase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reverse transcriptase
Q.
Serum sickness syndrome is an example of________________?
Angioneurotic edema
Anaphylactic
Cell-mediated immunity
Systemic arthus reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Systemic arthus reaction
Q.
The Window period in HIV infection means______________?
The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab
The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS
The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
Q.
Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to________________?
Increase antigenicity
reduce the toxigenicity
Increase toxigenicity
Reduce the antigenicity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increase antigenicity
Q.
Which of the following is true about amoebic liver disease ?
Left lobe of liver is commonly involved
Portal system is the main filtration system
Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Non-suppurative form is the serious form of extra intestinal amoebiasis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Q.
Teichoic acid is present in cell walls of_________________?
Gram negative bacteria
Protozoa
Yeast
Gram positive bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Grave
Type I
Type IV
Type III
Type II
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Madura mycosis produces______________?
No granules
Red granules
White to yellow granules
Brown to black granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: White to yellow granules
Q.
A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?
Francisella spp
Pasturella spp
Bartonella spp
Brucella spp
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Brucella spp
Q.
Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a_______________?
Immunodot
ELISA
Western Blot
RIPA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Western Blot
Q.
Rabies virus________________?
Dermatotropic
Neurotropic
Chromophilic
Cytotropic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neurotropic
Q.
Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is_______________?
IgE
IgG
IgA
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
B.C.G untrue is_____________?
All of the above
live vaccine
Orally administered
T.B vaccine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orally administered
Q.
In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a_______________?
Super antigen
Hapten
Carrier
Toxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hapten
Q.
Thread worm is______________?
Enterobius
Necator
Ancylostoma
Ascaris
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterobius
Q.
Endotoxin have all but one of the properties given below_______________?
Produced by gram negative bacteria
Cannot be toxoided
Produced by gram positive bacteria
Not secreted outside the cell
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Produced by gram positive bacteria
Q.
The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is___________?
The catalase test
Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes
Detection of coagulase
Mannitol fermentation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Detection of coagulase
Q.
Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus is due to ________________________?
Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Penicillin analogue production
Lack of nucleic acid in the cell wall
Pleomorphism
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Q.
Influenza is caused by_____________?
Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Q.
Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is_________________?
3:1
2:1
1:2
1:3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2:1
Q.
On a stained slide, clostridium tetani has the appearance of a__________________?
Drum stick
Bunch of a
Safely pin
Chain of beads
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Drum stick
Q.
Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine ?
Cholera
Typhoid
Tuberculosis (BCG)
Varicella Zoster virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cholera
Q.
which of the following is anaerobic_______________?
Klebsiella
E.coli
Bacteroides
Pseudomonas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacteroides
Q.
Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstratig________________?
Trophozoites in the pus
Cysts in the intestine
Cysts in the sterile pus
Trophozoites in the feces
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites in the pus
Q.
The urine sample of a patient has been sent to the laboratory to look for Leptospira. The specimen is to be screened by use of the__________________?
Inverted microscope
Dark ground microscope
Scanning microscope
Electron microscope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dark ground microscope
Q.
Function of Ig A is________________?
Circulating antibody
Kills virus infected cells
Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Activates macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Q.
Aflatoxins are produced by________________?
Aspergillus niger
Aspergillus flavus
Aspergillus fumigatus
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus flavus
Q.
The chemotactic factor is______________?
C5a
C3b
C4a
C2a
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C5a
Q.
Characters of exotoxin include all, except_______________?
Has specific tissue affinity
Highly potent
Heat labile
Protein polysaccharide complex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein polysaccharide complex
Q.
Leptospirosis, all are true except______________?
Faeces & urine of rodents is the cause
It is sensitive to penicillin
Incubation period is 10 days
Onset of IgM in 2 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Onset of IgM in 2 days
Q.
Which of the following belongs to cell fraction derived vaccine______________?
Measles
Rubella
Hepatitis B
Mumps
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B
Q.
The killer cells are associated with immunologic response___________________?
Type III
Type IV
Type I
Type II
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
The term epitope refers to________________?
Immunogen
Hapten
complete antigen molecule
Smallest antigenic determinant
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Smallest antigenic determinant
Q.
Drumstick appearance is seen in______________?
Cl. tetani
All of the above
Cl. sphenoids
Cl. tetanomorphum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. tetani
Q.
The commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercie bacilli________________?
Acridine orange
Auramine and Rhodamine
Thioglavin
Congo red
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine and Rhodamine
Q.
Common name for Trichuris trichura________________?
Tape worm
Round worm
Whip worm
Seat woman
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Whip worm
Q.
Herpes virus_____________?
Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane
Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Q.
The specific test for Treponema pallidum is___________?