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TOP Microbiology MCQS Questions
Q.
Bacterial spores are destroyed by_______________?
Boiling at 100
Pasteurisation
Disinfection by hypochlorite solution
Autoclave
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The interaction of antigens with antibodies on the surface of a mast cel leads to degranulation and anaphylaxis. The mast cell granules produce anaphylaxis because they contain________________?
Lymphotoxins
Vasoactive mediators
Lysosomes
Proteolytic enzymes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vasoactive mediators
Q.
Bacteria with potent exotoxin is_______________?
Shigella
Clostridium tetani
Klebsiella
Pseudomonas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani
Q.
True about prions________________?
Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective
Viruses which are genetically deficient
Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Q.
The best skin disinfectant is________________?
None of the above
Savlon
Alcohol
Chlorhexdine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chlorhexdine
Q.
Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates_____________?
Simple carriers
Carrier status
Late convalescence
High infectivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: High infectivity
Q.
The facultative anaerobic bacteria are those who are_______________?
Unable to grow in the presence of oxygen
Able to grow in the presence of carbon dioxide
Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Unable to grow in the absence of oxygen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Q.
A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?
Plasmodium malaria
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium ovale
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Erysipelas is caused by________________?
Gonococci
Pneumococci
Group B staphylococci
Group A steptococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B staphylococci
Q.
True about immune response of hepatitis B is__________________?
Antibody to HBC is not protective
Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
CMI disappears soon after recover
Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Q.
Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria______________?
Loefflers serum slope
Lowenstein Jensen Medium
Mc Conkey
Saborauds agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Loefflers serum slope
Q.
A full course of immunization agianst. Telanus with 3 doses to Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how many years ?
15
5
20
10
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 10
Q.
Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?
Polymers chain reaction
Western blot followed by ELISA
ELISA followed by western blot technique
Virus isolation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA followed by western blot technique
Q.
Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-5m in size, multi-septate, chestnut, brown color is characteristic of________________?
Rhinosporodiosis
Histoplasmosis
Phaeohypomycosis
Chromoblastomycosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chromoblastomycosis
Q.
The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell
Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Haemagglutination inhibition test
Haemagglutination test
Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Q.
An oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod which produces a bluish-green pigment has been grown in culture from a swab obtained from an infected burn wound. This organism is susceptible to gentamicin, ticarcillin and tobramicin, but resistant to all the other antibiotics which of the following organisms is it likely to be ?
Klebsiella pnemoniae
Proteus miribilis
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Escherichia coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q.
Exaltation is________________?
None
Increased Virulence
No change
Decreased virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increased Virulence
Q.
Which of the following is not true of boiling water_____________?
It can kill hepatitis B virus
Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis
Can kill vegetative bacterial cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Q.
The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is_______________?
IgA
IgM
IgG
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Germ tubes are formed mainly by_______________?
Candida pseudotropicalls
Candida tropicalis
Candida stellatoidea
Candida albicans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
The best method of sterilization of dressing powder is_____________?
Autoclaving
Hot air oven
Inspissation
Tyndallization
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with______________?
IgA antibodies
IgM antibodies
Lysozyme
Mast cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA antibodies
Q.
Loss of capsule in bacteria is generally associated with______________?
increase in invasiveness
Loss of infectivity
Decease in virulence
Inability to spread through tissue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Decease in virulence
Q.
Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify______________?
Chlamydiae
Rickettsiae
Spirochaetes
Mycoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochaetes
Q.
Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_____________?
Cryptococcosis
Aspergilosis
Tuberculosis
Candidiasis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candidiasis
Q.
Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans_________________?
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Hot air oven is used for sterilization of all EXCEPT__________________?
Glassware
Rubber tubes
Sharp instrument
Liquid paraffin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubber tubes
Q.
Which worm is longest________________?
A. Lumbricoides
T. Solium
T. Saginata
Hook worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T. Saginata
Q.
Malignant pustule is referred to_________________?
Cutaneous anthrax
None of the above
Facio-cervical actinomycosis
Infected squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cutaneous anthrax
Q.
In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started________________?
Poliomyelitis
Herpes
Rabies
Influenza
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabies
Q.
True about VDRL test________________?
Non
All of the above
Best followed for drug therapy
Slide flocculation test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is_____________?
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis A virus
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis C virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
Lancefields classification of B hemolytic streptococcus is based on______________?
Polysaccharide C antigen
Physiological properties
Type of lipid in cell membrane
M Protein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Polysaccharide C antigen
Q.
Virulence of Gonococcus is due to___________________?
Its intracellular location
Cell Membrane
Pili
Cytolytic enzymes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
Which of the following fulfil all the criterias of kich
None of the above
Mycobacterium leprae
Treponema pallidum
N. gonorrhoeae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: None of the above
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria grow_______________?
in the presence of nitrogen
differential media
in the absence of oxygen
in the presence of oxygen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in the absence of oxygen
Q.
Which of the following is an acid-fast bacillus_____________?
Treponema pallidum
Neisseria gonorrhea
All of the above
Mycobacterium bacilli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium bacilli
Q.
Which of the following is obligate aerobe ?
Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Proteus
diphtheria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Q.
Malaria pigment is________________?
Haematin-globin pigment
Bilurubin
Haemoglobin
Iron
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haematin-globin pigment
Q.
The key cell types involved in the acquired immunity include all EXCEPT________________?
Erythrocytes
B lymphocytes
Antigen presenting cells (APC
T lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythrocytes
Q.
Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor_____________?
Carbohydrate cell wall
M protein
Pyrogenic exotoxin
Streptolysin 0
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pyrogenic exotoxin
Q.
The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as_____________?
Clone
Epitope
Idiotope
Paratope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epitope
Q.
Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose_______________?
Arthus reaction
Anaphylaxis
Contact dermatitis
Serum sickness
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Immunoglobulin consists of________________?
1 light, 1 heavy chain
1 heavy, 2 light chains
2 light, 2 heavy chains
3 light, 1 heavy chain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2 light, 2 heavy chains
Q.
Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in________________?
Artificial media
Chick embryos
Tissue culture
Rabbit testis only
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabbit testis only
Q.
Which of the following characteristics of bacteria is not true?
Unicellular
Having either DNA or RNA
Free living
Cell wall containing muramic acid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Having either DNA or RNA
Q.
A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT________________?
Vancomycin
Imipenem
Linezolid
Teichoplanin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Imipenem
Q.
The overall effect of HIV is to gradually impair the immune system by interference with______________?
Natural killer cells
Helper T lymphocytes
Macrophages
Plasma cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes
Q.
Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?
Core antigen
Core antibody
Surface antigen
Surface antibody
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Surface antigen
Q.
Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies_____________?
Chicken pox
Rabies
Measles
Small pox
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles
Q.
Prozone phenomenon is due to______________?
Hyper immune reaction
Disproportionate antigen antibody levels
Excess antigen
Excess antibody
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Excess antibody
Q.
Actinomycosis is a_________________?
Anaerobic fungal disease
Aerobic fungal disease
Anaerobic bacterial disease
Aerobic bacterial disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic bacterial disease
Q.
HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except________________?
Blood transmission
Sexual intercourse
Saliva
Needle prick injury
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saliva
Q.
Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_______________?
Simple structure
All of the above
Presence of either DNA or RNA
Complex multiplication
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
False +ve for VDRL is seen in______________?
All of the above
Yaws
Lepromatous Leprosy
Malaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Most fungi of medical importance belongs to__________________?
Deuteromycetes
Ascomycetes
Basidiomycetes
Zygomycetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deuteromycetes
Q.
Most of the drug resistances occurs due to_____________?
Mutation
conjugation
Transformation
Transduction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: conjugation
Q.
The bacterial cell wall has all of the following properties except______________?
It consists of a mixed polymer called peptidoglycon
It is a unique flexible plastic structure
It contains D-isomers of amino acids
It is the structure principally responsible for the reaction of gram staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It is a unique flexible plastic structure
Q.
The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is_____________?
Apthous stomatitis
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Herpetic gingivostomatitis
Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Q.
Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in which of the following viruses_____________?
Measles virus
Hepatitis B virus
HIV
Pox virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is______________?
Donovania granulomatis
Chlamydia trachomatis
Hemophilia ducreya
Bartonella henselae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bartonella henselae
Q.
Which of the following is not a feature of anaphylaxis ?
Immediate reaction
passive transfer by serum
Delayed reaction
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Delayed reaction
Q.
DNA covering material in a virus is called as________________?
Capsid
Capsomere
Nucleocapsid
Envelope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Capsid
Q.
ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______________?
Less sensitive less specific
Less sensitive, more specific
More sensitive, less specific
More sensitive, more specific
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: More sensitive, less specific
Q.
Who first introduced solid media_______________?
Hensen
Ogston
Robert koch
Louis pasteur
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robert koch
Q.
cAMP reaction is shown by which streptococci ?
Group A
Group D
Group C
Group B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B
Q.
Widal test is specific for____________?
Plague
Leprosy
Pemhigoid
Typhoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid
Q.
Which of the following is not a koch
When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the experimental animals
Pure cultures can be obtained
The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Q.
All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_________________?
gingivalis
histolytica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: gingivalis
Q.
When horse serum is injected intravenoulsy in to a rabbit and again in to the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs as the site of the second injection________________?
Serum sickness
Arthus phenomenon
Anaphylaxis
Atopy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus phenomenon
Q.
Fimbriae are demonstrated by ___________________?
Culture
Haemagglutination test
Biochemical reaction
Gram stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haemagglutination test
Q.
The following is not true of Candida albicans______________?
Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them
Yeast like fungus
Forms Chlamydospores
Blastomeres seen in isolates
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blastomeres seen in isolates
Q.
The temperature required for cultivating mycobacterium________________?
0 degree
27 degrees
37 degrees
2 degree
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 37 degrees
Q.
All are true about bordetella pertussis except______________?
Bacteria culture from nasopharyngeal swab is the definitive diagnosis
Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Most common cause is B. Petrussis
It may occur in children and young adult after vaccination
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Q.
Causative organism of Kalahazar is_______________?
Plasmodium ovaie
Entamoeba histolytica
Toxoplasma
Leishman donovani
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leishman donovani
Q.
Interferon interferes with replication of virus at the time of_____________?
Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule
When virus enters the cell
DNA/RNA replication
Protein synthesis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein synthesis
Q.
Rideal Walker test is used to determine the efficiency of the_____________?
Antibiotics
Moist heat sterilisation
Disinfectant
Dry heat sterilization
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Disinfectant
Q.
The difference between sterilization and disinfection is that_______________?
Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Sterilization is easier to achieve
Disinfection kills all spores but sterilization does not
Sterilization involves chemicals and disinfection involves physical methods
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Q.
The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is_______________?
Conjugation
Translation
Transformation
Lysogeny
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysogeny
Q.
For uniform staining reaction, morphology and biochemical activity it is advisable to study bacterial cultures during the_____________?
Death phase
Lag phase
Logarithmic phase
Stationary phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Logarithmic phase
Q.
The structure in involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface is_______________?
None of the above
Capsule
Flagella
Fimbria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fimbria
Q.
Vibrio cholera was discovered by_________________?
Virchow
John snow
Koch
Medintoff
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Koch
Q.
Noguchi
Brucella
None of the above
Bordetella
Borrelia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia
Q.
Donovanosis, true is___________________?
Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic
Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Penicillin is drug of choice
Characterized by painful genital ulcers
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Q.
Which of the following statement about P24 antigen of HIV is Not True ?
Virus load parallel P24 titre
It can be detected during the window period
Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:
It remains during asymptomatic phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It remains during asymptomatic phase
Q.
A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?
Isograft
Xenograft
Autograft
Allograft
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Isograft
Q.
In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_______________?
Merozoite
Hypnozoite
Sporozoite
Gametocyte
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sporozoite
Q.
Virus infected cell is killed by________________?
Interferons
Neutrophils
Macrophages
Autolysis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Interferons
Q.
In small intestine, cholera toxin acts by______________?
Activation of GTPase
Active absorption of NaCI
Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
ADP
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ADP
Q.
Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by_____________?
Nisseria
Streptococcus viridans
Haemolytic streptococci
Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus viridans
Q.
Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by______________?
UV-Radiation
Inspissation
Hot air oven
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Candida is most often implicated in causation___________________?
Conjunctivitis
Thrush
Tenea capitis
Desert rheumatism
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thrush
Q.
Diphtheria is pathogenic only when infected with______________?
Alfa phage
Beta phage
Delta Phage
Lambda K12
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Beta phage
Q.
The antigen used in Weil Felix test is obtained from________________?
Proteus
coli
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to______________?
CD4 T-cells
NK
B
CD8 T-cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4 T-cells
Q.
Actinomycosis is caused by______________?
Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Acid fast, non-motile bacillus
Fungus
Retrovirus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Q.
The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route________________?
Hepatitis D virus
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______________?
ELISA IS
PCR is
Both are
Western Blot is
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both are
Q.
Lepromin test is useful for________________?
Treatment plan
Diagnosis
Epidemiology
Prognosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prognosis
Q.
Staphylococci typically occur in_________________?
Irregular clusters
Tetrads
Chains
Pairs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Irregular clusters
Q.
The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the________________?
CL domian
CH2 domian
VL domian
CH1 domian
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CH2 domian
Q.
Multiple drug resistance of bacteria depends on which of the following_______________?
Colicigenic factor (Col)
All of the above
Fertility factor (F+)
Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Q.
Immunity that is conferred to the foetus by transfer of IgG and IgA antibodies is called as______________?
Active acquired immunity
Passive acquired immunity
Passive natural immunity
Natural active immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Passive natural immunity
Q.
Viron is defined as______________?
None of the above
A smallest particle similar to virus
Smallest virus
Extracellular infectious virus particle
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Extracellular infectious virus particle
Q.
Cough plate method is used to identify________________?
M-Tuberculosis
Pertussis
Mycoplasma
Y. pestis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pertussis
Q.
Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functional of the cell______________?
membrane
nucleus
Capsule
wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: membrane
Q.
A dentist suffred from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is_____________?
Convalscent carrier
Healthy carrier
Inactive carrier
Paradoxical carrier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Convalscent carrier
Q.
Sunlight acts as sterilizing agent because_________________?
Ozone
Long wavelength
short wave lenght
Heat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: short wave lenght
Q.
Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in______________?
2 weeks
12 weeks
4 weeks
9 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4 weeks
Q.
What is the sequence which a retro virus follows on entering a host cell ?
DNA-RNA-DNA
RNA -DNA-RNA
DNA-RNA
RNA-DNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: RNA -DNA-RNA
Q.
Nagglers reaction detects________________?
None of the above
Coagulase
Lecithinase
Hyaluronidase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Man is the only reservoir for_______________?
Camphylobacter jejuni
Y. enterocolitica
histolytica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: histolytica
Q.
Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_________________?
Lecithinase
Cytokinin
Desmolase
Theta toxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except___________________?
Through bacteriophages
Though plasmids
Incorporating part of host DNA
through conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is__________________?
Immune blood transfusion
Hepatitis vaccination
Gamma globulin injection
Placental transfer of antibodies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Placental transfer of antibodies
Q.
All are true about legionella pneumophilia except______________?
Urine test is a reliable method
Person to person transmission
Aquatic bodies are main habitat
It can replicate in amoeba
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Person to person transmission
Q.
Smith noguchi
Klebsiella
Bacillus
Salmonella
Spirochetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
Tyndallisation is carried out for________________?
Three successive days
One day
Two successive days
60 minutes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Three successive days
Q.
Prions true is____________?
Evokes strong immunogenic reaction
Sensitive to most chemical sterilization
Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Contains DNA/ RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Q.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which of the following________________?
Plasma cells
Active T cells
NK cells
B-cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active T cells
Q.
All are oncogenic except________________?
Culex
Anopheles
Aedes
Mansoni
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aedes
Q.
Which of the following viruses appears to be involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi
Human Herpes Virus 8
Human Herpes Virus 1
Human Herpes Virus 3
Human Herpes Virus 4
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Human Herpes Virus 4
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Vincent
Ulcerative gingivostomatitis
Caused due to malnutrition
A symbiotic infection
Caused by leptospira interrogans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by leptospira interrogans
Q.
Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores can be achieved with_______________?
Peri-iodic Acid Schiff
KOH wet mount
Hematoxylin and Eosin
Grocott Gomori Methenamine silver
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: KOH wet mount
Q.
The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum ?
IgG1
IgG2
IgG3
IgG4
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG1
Q.
Cytopathic effect is shown by_____________?
Virus
Anaerobe
Bacteria
Spirochete
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
Methods for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infection________________?
All of the above
Wood light examination
Microscopic examination of skin scrapings
KOH staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Culture medium used for Bordatella pertussis is_________________?
Robertson cooked meat medium
Bordet Gengou medium
Wilson Blair medium
Bile broth
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bordet Gengou medium
Q.
Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_____________________?
only after one year
in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis
no antibodies are present in primary HSV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
Q.
Graft versus host reaction is caused by_________________?
B-Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Leukocytes
T-lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T-lymphocytes
Q.
Black pigmented anaerobes include all of the following except______________?
Prevotella
Buccae
Tannerella
Porphyromonas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Buccae
Q.
A protoplast is best characterized as a bacterial cell______________?
Uniquely sensitive to penicillin
with a cell wall but free of a capsule
containing a cell wall and a capsule
Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Q.
Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes______________?
NK Cells
Memory B cells
Cytotoxic T cells
B cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NK Cells
Q.
Grape bunch shaped colonies are seen in______________?
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
E.coli
Gonococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staphylococcus
Q.
The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is_______________?
Parvo virus
Adeno
EB virus
Hepatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parvo virus
Q.
Most antibodies are produced in the________________?
Heart and the liver
Brain and the meninges
Spleen and the lymph nodes
Thymus and the appendix
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spleen and the lymph nodes
Q.
Post streptococcal acute glomerulo nephritis is an example of________________?
Type I hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type III hypersensitivity
Q.
Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups ?
Hepadana viruses
Herpes viruses
Flavi viruses
Picorna viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi viruses
Q.
Phase contrast microscopy is based on principle of__________________?
Different reflective indices of object
Different refractive indices of object
Light scattering
Light attenuation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Different refractive indices of object
Q.
The medium of choice for culturing yeast from of dimorphic fungi is_________________?
Sabouraud
Any medium incubated at 35-37
Brain
Sabouraud
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
The diagnosis of gonorrhea is established by_____________?
Pili agglutination tests
All of the above tests
Haemagglutination tests
Compliment fixation tests
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above tests
Q.
Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to______________?
Hook worm
Ascaris
Guinea worm
Thread worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hook worm
Q.
Candida albicans causes all of the following except______________?
Oral thrush
Endocarditis
Mycetoma
Meningitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycetoma
Q.
CD4 count in normal healthy adult is_______________?
300
200
1000
500
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1000
Q.
A darkfield microscope would be useful in examining blood for_______________?
Treponema
Mycobacterium
Streptococcus
Actinomyces
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema
Q.
Immunoglobulins ar secreted by______________?
Neutrophils
Macrophages
Plasma cells
T-cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasma cells
Q.
Haptane is_______________?
Same as epitopes
None of the above
Carrier required for specific antibody production
High molecular protein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Carrier required for specific antibody production
Q.
Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by______________?
Isolation from bile
Culture from blood
Isolation form stool
IgM antibodies in serum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM antibodies in serum
Q.
VDRL is a________________?
Tube agglutination test
Slide flocculation test
Latex agglutination test
Tube flocculation test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Slide flocculation test
Q.
One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is____________?
Viral interference
Permutation
Supervision
Mutation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Viral interference
Q.
The difference between gram positive and negative bacteria lies in their_______________?
Mesosomes
Nuclear material
cell wall
cell membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cell wall
Q.
The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are______________?
Mycoplasma
Virus infections
Gram negative organisms
Gram positive organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram negative organisms
Q.
Endotoxins differ from exotoxins in that endotoxins______________?
are proteins
activate complement by the alternate pathway
are highly antigenic
are heat labile
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: activate complement by the alternate pathway
Q.
The Dane particle is the______________?
HBC Ag
HBV
Delta Virus
IgG anti HAV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBV
Q.
Tuberculin test screens for_____________?
Cell mediated immunity
Hemoral immunity
Complement function
Phagocyte dysfunction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell mediated immunity
Q.
Endoscopes are sterilized by using_______________?
Boiling
Cidex
Gamma radiation
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Boiling
Q.
One of the following statement about statements about sterilization is not true_______________?
Liquid paraffin ? Dry heat
Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Flash pasteurization of milk ? 72
Glass syringes ? Boiling at 169
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Q.
Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?
Lipids
Proteins
Polysaccharides
Adjuvant
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteins
Q.
IgG antibodies have a half-life of approximately_______________?
1 week
1 hour
1 day
1 Month
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 Month
Q.
Exotoxins are____________________?
None
Lipoprotein
Protein compound
Lipid-polysaccharide complex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein compound
Q.
Following is a retrovirus_____________?
Hepatitis virus
Influenza
Polio virus
Immunodeficiency virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immunodeficiency virus
Q.
The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement_________________?
IgE
IgA
IgM
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
The reaginic antibody is________________?
IgE
IgA
IgD
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Kaposi
Between 1000-2000
Below 200
Above 2000
Above 600
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Below 200
Q.
All are not true for cultivation of anaerobic organisms except_______________?
Incubator
anaerobic jar
Refrigerator
Centrifuge
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: anaerobic jar
Q.
Each of the following can cause food poisoning except________________?
Cl. welchii
Staphylococcus
Cl. difficile
Cl. botulinum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. difficile
Q.
Which of the following does not go into chronic hepatitis stage ?
HEV
HDV
HCV
HBV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HEV
Q.
Physical sterilization was discovered by__________________?
John Hunter
Alexander flemings
Joeph Lister
Robert Koch
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Joeph Lister
Q.
Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito______________?
Gametocyte
Zygote
Merozoite
Sporozoite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gametocyte
Q.
Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with_______________?
Giemsa stain
Kin Young stain
Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Ziel Nelson
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Q.
Which of the following are correctly matched ?
All of the above
Transfer of antibody from mother to child is through colostrum and acquired passive immunity naturally
Antigenic stimulus given by vaccine (polio) is artificial active immunity
Injection of antibodies (Hepatitis) is artificially acquired passive immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which is type II hypersensitivity ?
Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Delayed hypersensitivity
Anaphylaxis
Immune complex mediated
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Q.
By using phase contrast microscope_______________?
Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
External capsule formation can be observed
Internal metabolic activities can be observed
Internal structures are differentiated in dead cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Q.
One of the following is a treponemal test for diagnosis of syphilis_____________?
Widal test
Kahn test
Wasserman test
FTAB
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: FTAB
Q.
Which of the following have the capability to produce extra cellular polysaccharides______________?
Strep. pyogenes
Peptostreptococcus
Enterococcus
Strep. Mutans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strep. Mutans
Q.
Opportunistic infection is caused by___________________?
Aspergillus
Penicillium
All of the above
Mucor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The minimum time required for the sterilization of surgical instruments by moist heat at 134
60 minutes
30 minutes
15 minutes
3 minutes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3 minutes
Q.
Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti_________________?
Terminal nuclei absent
Causes filariasis
Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Body is slender and long
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Q.
Granules in the corynebacterium diphtheria are called by following names, except______________?
Metachromatic granules
Voluntin granules
Babes Ernst granules
Refractile granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile granules
Q.
Neurotoxin of tetanus acts on______________?
Brain
Synapse
Spinal card
Muscle
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spinal card
Q.
Sporulation occurs in__________________?
Log phase
Decline phase
Stationary phase
Lag phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
True about HIV are all except______________?
Decrease CD4 count in late stages
DNA virus
Macrophages are the reservoir
Attacks CD4 cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: DNA virus
Q.
IgG has subclasses_______________?
2
4
1
3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4
Q.
Anti HBsAB indicates______________?
Good prognosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Acute infection
Resistance to hepatitis B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Good prognosis
Q.
Causative agents of Vincent
Borrelia recurrents and bateroides
Borrelia burgoloferi and lactobacillus
Leptospira and Treponema pallidum
Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Q.
Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______________?
Atopic allergy
Serum sickness
Contact dermatitis
Transfusion reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is________________?
ELISA
Counter immune electroporesis
Microscopy
Indirect hemagglutination
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA
Q.
Test for differentiating virulent form non-virulent tubercular bacilli_____________?
Niacin test
Neutral red test
Catalase peroxidase test
Aryl sulphatase test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neutral red test
Q.
Rickettsiae__________________?
Transmitted by arthropod vectors
All of the above
Multiply within living cell
Respond to tetracycline therapy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Virus is cultured in_______________?
Rogosa medium
Saubourd
Embryonated egg
Nonembryonated egg
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Embryonated egg
Q.
Disinfection frees the surface from______________?
Both of the above
Vegetative forms
None of the above
Spore forms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vegetative forms
Q.
Human immunoglobulins are divided based on_____________?
Structural differences
None of the above
Complemented fixation
Functional differences
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Structural differences
Q.
Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to__________________?
Capsule
Invasion
Exotoxin
Endotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Exotoxin
Q.
Chemotactic cytokine is_________________?
IL-8
IL-6
IL-1
TNF
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IL-8
Q.
The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in vivo from one bacterium to another by_____________?
Transduction
Transformation
Rarefaction
Conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
The culture media for fungus is__________________?
Sabourauds medium
Tellurite medium
Chocolate agar medium
NNN medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabourauds medium
Q.
Immunoglobin, Which is produced first by the fetus in response to infection_______________?
IgM
IgA
IgG
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Which of the following is an enrichment medium________________?
Nutrient Broth
Selenite F Broth
Blood agar
Mac Conkey agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Selenite F Broth
Q.
What is the transport medium for cholera___________________?
B & C
Tellurite Medium
Venkatraman
Cary Blair Medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: B & C
Q.
A type of immediately occuring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called_____________?
Type II hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type I hypersensitivity
Q.
Same or closely related antigens present in different biological species are known as________________?
Heterophile antigens
Isoantigens
Suquestrated antigens
Haptens
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Heterophile antigens
Q.
One of the following is an agglutination test in the diagnosis of typhoid___________?
Mantoux test
Widal test
Wasserman test
Eleks test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
Sterilization is a process in which_________________?
Kill all pathogenic micro-organisms
Kill all non-pathogenic micro-organisms in the environment
Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Deactivate all pathogens not spores
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Q.
Human immune deficiency virus is ________________ virus?
Retro
Rhabdo
Flavi
Rheo
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Retro
Q.
A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned in to an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis______________?
Carbol Fuschin
Acid Fast Stain
Trichrome Methylene blue
Calcoflour White
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trichrome Methylene blue
Q.
Half-life of free HIV in plasma is________________?
6 hours
24 hours
12 hours
3 months
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 6 hours
Q.
Among The infectious diseases transmitted by food, one is___________________?
Diptheria
Tuberculosis
Viral stomatitis
Typhoid fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid fever
Q.
Moist heat kills all of the following EXCEPT_______________?
Coxiella burnetti
Brucella
Salmonella
Mycobacterium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coxiella burnetti
Q.
The Ig found in exocrine secretions is_____________?
IgD
IgG
IgA
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Operation theatres are sterilized by_____________?
Carbolic acid spraying
ETO gas
Washing with soap and water
Formaldehyde fumigation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Formaldehyde fumigation
Q.
Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci________________?
Staphylococcus
Aerococcus
Sarcina
Micrococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sarcina
Q.
About Bacteroids True are all Except_______________?
Most common species is B fragilis
Present mainly in mixed infections
Bile resistant anerobes
Susceptible to many antibiotics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Susceptible to many antibiotics
Q.
Encapsulation in bacteria helps in__________________?
Prevent their phagocytosis
Oxygen effect
Spore formation
Decreased virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prevent their phagocytosis
Q.
In initial stages of tyhoid, salmonella can be detected in________________?
Feacus
Blood
Urine
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood
Q.
All of the following are true of streptococcus except_____________?
Most common is animals
Shows adherence to dental enamel
Most common in humans
It
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It
Q.
Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phase of the bacterial growth curve______________?
Decline
Lag
Exponential growth
Stationary phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
Viruses can be cultured in all except_______________?
Blood agar
Guinea pigs
Chick embryo
Cell culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood agar
Q.
Kolmer test is a screening test done for_________________?
Lymphoma
Syphilis
Tuberculosis
Gonorrhea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Function of T-lymphocyte is/are________________?
Production of interferon
Lymphokine production
All of the above
Rosette formation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The following are applicable to bacterial genoms except________________?
It is composed of DNA
It is circular
It doe not contain histones
Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Q.
EBV causes all except_________________?
Burkitt
Carcinoma of nasopharynx
Papilloma
Infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma
Q.
Which of the following is not used as disinfectant________________?
5% chloroxylene
2% Lysol
100% alcohol
1-2% cetrimide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 100% alcohol
Q.
Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by_______________?
M. ulcerans
M. chelonae
M. Kansasii
M. smegmatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. chelonae
Q.
All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except____________?
Hepatitis C
HIV
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis E
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Which of the following correctly indicates the infectivity of hepatitis virus in human ?
Anti-HBS
HBeAg
HBCAg
Anti-HBC
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBeAg
Q.
In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except__________________?
Bone marrow depression
Hemolysis
Spleen sequestration
Malabsorption
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Malabsorption
Q.
Which of the following is not a pox virus ?
Small pox
Cowpox
chicken pox
Molluscum contagiosum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: chicken pox
Q.
A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is______________?
India ink preparation
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Methanamine silver stain
Pyte-ferraco stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
Staphylococcal food poisoning includes the following features_______________?
Common with dairy products
Heat labile enterotoxin
Incubation period of 24 hours
Requires immediate antibiotics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Common with dairy products
Q.
Causative organism for gas gangrene_______________?
Coli
Clostridium welchii
Strep. Faecalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Streptococcus is classified based on__________________?
M Protein
Cell wall carbohydrate
Bile Solubility
Cultural characteristics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall carbohydrate
Q.
compared with autoclave, use of a dry heat over for sterilization has the following disadvantages______________?
Time-consuming
Less effective
Causes instruments to rust
Causes sharp instruments to dull
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Time-consuming
Q.
Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces?
Capsule
Flagella
Mesosomes
Pili
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except_____________?
Legionella pneumophila
Salmonella typhi
Streptococcus pyogenes
Neisseria meningitides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus pyogenes
Q.
The best sterilization method for a hand-piece is________________?
All of the above
chemical vapour
dry heat
Ethylene oxide gas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ethylene oxide gas
Q.
Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is____________?
Histidine rich proteins
Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Secretory IgA
Sialoperoxidase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Q.
Sleeping sickness is caused by_______________?
House fly
Reduvid bug
Tick
Sand fly
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reduvid bug
Q.
The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_____________?
Tenia incognito
Alopecia areata
Pilomatrixoma
Kerison
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kerison
Q.
Steam under pressure in used in ________ sterilization?
Pasteurization
Autoclave
Kochs sterilizer
hot air oven
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The small nonparticulate protein leading to enhanced replication of HBV as well as HIV is______________?
HBc Ag
Hbe Ag
HBs Ag
HBx Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBx Ag
Q.
T cells multiplication is stimulated by_______________?
Heat
Phytohaemagglutinin
Bovine serum
Macrolin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Phytohaemagglutinin
Q.
Bacteria reproduce mainly by______________?
Sporing
Budding
Binary fission
Bacterial components produced by host cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Binary fission
Q.
The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine doses not play a major role is______________?
Urticaria
Asthma
Arthus reaction
Anaphylaxis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus reaction
Q.
Robertsons cooked meat medium is best suited for cultivation of_______________?
Mycobacterium
Clostridia
S. epidermidis
Choleria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridia
Q.
A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates________________?
Convalescence
Acute infection
Carrier state
Prodromal phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acute infection
Q.
Which of the following organisms does NOT react with gram
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Actinomyces israelii
Candida albicans
Streptococcus mutan
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q.
Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins ?
IgG
IgE
IgA
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Disinfection of the rooms can be done by using_______________?
40% formaldehyde vapour
Chlorine gas
High efficiency particle arrestors
20% phenol
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 40% formaldehyde vapour
Q.
Negative staining is used to demonstrate________________?
Bacterial capsule
Bacterial spore
Bacterial fimbriae
Bacterial Flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacterial fimbriae
Q.
Which is not true about vibrio cholera_________________?
Man is the only natural host
It is non-halophilic
Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Grows on simple media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Q.
Group A carbohydrate of Str. pyogenes cross reacts with human_________________?
Vascular intima
Cardiac valves
Synovial fluid
Myocardium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiac valves
Q.
Pneumococus can be differentiated from streptococcus by________________?
Gram staining
Growth characteristics
Bile solubility
Type of hemolysis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bile solubility
Q.
Phage conversion is required for________________?
Tularemia
Gonorrhoea
Diptheria
All o f the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Diptheria
Q.
parasitic inflammation would show predominantly____________________?
Lymphocytes
Eosinophils
Neutrophilis
Basophils
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Eosinophils
Q.
Pseudohphae are seen in____________?
Aspergillus
Alternaria
Osporium
Candida albicans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?
Relapsing fever
Epidemic typhus
Q fever
Trench fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Q fever
Q.
The causative organism of syphilis is___________?
Chalamydia trachomatis
Treponema pallidum
Borrelia burgolorferi
Leptospira interrogans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema pallidum
Q.
Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except______________?
Ascaris lumbriocoides
Strongyloides
Giardia lambia
Entamoeba
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strongyloides
Q.
Toxoids are_________________?
non-antigenic and toxic
antigenic and toxic
antigenic and non-toxic
non-antigenic and non-toxic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: antigenic and non-toxic
Q.
Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000_________________?
L chain
H chain
J piece
Secretory piece
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: H chain
Q.
IL-1 is produced by_________________?
Helper T cells
Macrophages
Helper B cells
Monocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Macrophages
Q.
In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by_____________?
Stool culture
Urine culture
Blood culture
Widal test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except__________________?
Found exclusively in human beings.
Most common cause of urethritis is male
Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection
All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Q.
Pigs are important source of_____________?
Kuru
Yellow fever
Rabies
Japanese encephalitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Japanese encephalitis
Q.
A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains and haemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism ?
Optochin sensitivity
Cataslase positive
Bacitracin sensitivity
Bile solubility
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacitracin sensitivity
Q.
Organ of locomotion in bacteria is________________?
Flagella
Capsule
Fimbria
Cell wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flagella
Q.
All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except______________?
Gram staining
Colony morphology on saliva agar
Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital
Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram staining
Q.
Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in______________?
Hood worm
Ascariasis and tapeworm
Ascariasis
Tapeworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ascariasis
Q.
Bacteria with tuft of flagella at one end are called_______________?
Peritrichate
Bipolar
Lophotrichate
Monotrichate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lophotrichate
Q.
Certain viruses have been isolated in crytalline form and have been found to be_____________?
Nucleotides
Phospholipids
Nucleoproteins
Scleroproteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleoproteins
Q.
Fungal infection of human beings is called as_____________?
Micromia
Mycosis
Fungosis
Mucorsis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycosis
Q.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa_________________?
Does not produce any pigment
Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.
Produces heat stable enterotoxin
Causes Shangai fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Causes Shangai fever
Q.
The world german measles is applied for_____________?
Rubeola
Herpetic ginglvostomatitis
Herpes simplex
Rubella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Which of the following provides best gurantee for sterlization in the heat sterilizer ?
Using a bacterial spore test
Using chemical indicator strip or pouch
Recording a temperature/ pressure readings from sterilizer guage
Determining the ability of a sterilizer to kill the hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Using a bacterial spore test
Q.
Active artificial immunization is induced by the administration of all of the following EXCEPT______________?
Toxoids
Vaccines
Bacterial products
Antitoxins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antitoxins
Q.
Plaque test is used routinely in virology lab
To prepare vaccines
Identification of viral disease
To maintain certain viral culture
To separate specific clone of virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Identification of viral disease
Q.
The commonest method of detection of diptheria carriers is_______________?
Schick test
Charles
Casoni
Dick test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Schick test
Q.
Most common tumor associated with AIDS is______________?
Melanoma
Kaposi
Carcinoma
Ewing
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kaposi
Q.
Which of the following is a RNA virus ?
Papavo virus
Herpes Virus
Adeno virus
Measles virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
A 6 year old boy comes with abdominal pain, vomiting after consuming mild products within 6 hours. The most likely organism responsible is______________?
B.Cereus
Clostridium botulinum
Staph. aureus
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staph. aureus
Q.
The medium of choice for growing most fungi is_______________?
Tissue culture
Sabouraud
Blood agar
Thioglycollate medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
Hydatid cyst is__________________?
Fungal
Parasitic in nature
Congenital
Viral
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parasitic in nature
Q.
Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called______________?
Chemotaxis
De coding
Opsonisation
CFT
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Opsonisation
Q.
The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is___________________?
5%
10%
2%
15%
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2%
Q.
Selective media for MYCOBACTERIUM _____________?
Lowenstein Jensen medium
Agar
Loefflers serum slope
Sabourauds medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lowenstein Jensen medium
Q.
A sporangium contains_______________?
Spherules
Chlamydospores
porangiospores
Oidia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: porangiospores
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria can be cultured in__________________?
Loefflers medium
Sabourauds agar
L-J medium
Robertson cooked meat medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robertson cooked meat medium
Q.
All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except________________?
Cysts are 4 nucleated
The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides
Cysts are 8 nucleated
Trophozoites colonise in the colon
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cysts are 8 nucleated
Q.
Gram -ve bacteria stain during gram staining____________?
Colorless
Blue color
Green
Red color
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Red color
Q.
The optimal time and temperature required for sterilization in an autoclave is___________________?
121
140
121
121
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 121
Q.
Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus ?
Keratoacanthoma
Condyloma acuminatum
Focal epithelial hyperplasia
Verruca vulgaris
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Keratoacanthoma
Q.
IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by______________?
Platelet
Activated macrophages
Plasma cells
Lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Activated macrophages
Q.
The major intestinal pathogens which are non-lactose fermenters are_________________?
Salmonella
Paracolons
Klebsiella
Escherichia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salmonella
Q.
Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by________________?
DNA probe
Direct microscopy
Culture
ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Culture
Q.
Which component of the cell wall is responsible________________?
Region I
Region III
Boivin antigen
Region II
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Region III
Q.
In patients with asthma due to an allergic cause the serum levels of which immunoglobulin increase____________________?
IgD
IgE
IgM
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Which regards to temperature requirement, most pathogenic bacteria are_____________?
Mesophiles
Thermophiles
Psychrophiles
Cryophiles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mesophiles
Q.
Negative phase is seen in ________ immunity?
Herd
Active
Passive
Local
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active
Q.
Bacterial cell does not possess___________________?
dna
Cell wall
Ribosome
Mitochondria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mitochondria
Q.
Australian antigen is_______________?
None of the above
HB Ag
HBs AG
HBV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBs AG
Q.
Which does not have a viral etiology______________?
Hepatoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Lymphoma
Carcinoma Cervix
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Endotoxins are produced by________________?
Gram +ve bacteria
Virus
Fungi
Gram -ve bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram -ve bacteria
Q.
EBV is responsible for all except______________?
Infectious mononucleosis
Hepatoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Burkitt
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Complement factor through which common pathway begins___________________?
C3
Protein B
C2
C5
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C3
Q.
Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is___________________?
Lungs
Spleen
Brain
Liver
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Liver
Q.
The time gap between appearance of Koplik
10 days
24 Hrs
3-4 days
2 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3-4 days
Q.
CD4 cells recognize the antigens in association with_____________?
MHC III
MHC II
B-cell receptor
MHC I
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: MHC II
Q.
Each of the following viruses possesses an outer lipoprotein envelope except_____________?
Influenza Virus
Human immunodeficiency virus
Papilloma Virus
Varicella Zoster Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma Virus
Q.
Mark true in following ?
Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
None of the above
Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Q.
First released immunoglobulin after primary immunization_______________?
IgM
IgG
IgE
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is_________________?
Neisseria gonorrhea
T-strain mycoplasma
Escherichia coli
Streptococcus fecalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Escherichia coli
Q.
Black water fever is caused by______________?
Leishmania donovani
Plasmodium falciparum
Microfilaria
Plasmodium vivax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______________?
Dot
Comma
Banana
Sickle
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sickle
Q.
Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____________?
6 week
6 months
1 week
3 months
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 week
Q.
About Psedomonas. All are true except________________?
Can grow in disinfectants in hospital
Most common organism is burn patient
Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Strick aerobes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except_______________?
Through bacteriophages
Through conjugation
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through plasmids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____________?
16,18,31
Type 6,12,18
3,10,19
6,8,11
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 16,18,31
Q.
Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except_______________?
Chemically defined media
Animals
Tissue culture
Embryonated eggs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chemically defined media
Q.
Type of receptor present on T-cells are__________________?
Ig A
Ig G
Prostaglandins
CD4
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4
Q.
All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_____________?
Glycogen mass
Refractile nucleus
Eccentric nucleus
Chromatid bars
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile nucleus
Q.
Leprosy bacilli can be grown in_________________?
Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Testes of albino rats
Tail of guinea pig
Testes of guinea pig
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Q.
Group A B-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the pharynx may be followed in some by_____________?
Diphtheria
Typhoid fever
Rheumatic fever
Syphilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatic fever
Q.
Secretory Ig is_______________?
IgE
IgA
IgD
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Which of the following viruses does not infect salivary glands ?
Orthomyxovirus
HIV
Hepatitis C
Echo virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxovirus
Q.
Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following________________?
Tetanus toxoid
Sabin
Salk vaccine
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salk vaccine
Q.
True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by_______________?
Cow
cats
Rats
Dogs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cats
Q.
Candidal hyphae can be stained using_______________?
Toluidine blue stain
Periodic acid schiff stain
Van Gieson
Masson Trichrome stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Periodic acid schiff stain
Q.
The prototype of Type II hypersensitivity reaction is__________________?
Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Arthus reaction
Contact dermatitis
SLE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Q.
The earliest identifiable cells of T-Cell lineage during maturation are_______________?
CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
CD8+ Pre-T-Cells
CD8+ Pro-T-Cells
CD5+ Pre-T-Cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
Q.
Dengue virus belongs to______________?
Reoviridae
Togaviridae
Flavi virus
Rhabdoviridae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi virus
Q.
T cell matures in______________?
Payers patch
Busra of Fabricius
Lymph node
Thymus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thymus
Q.
The presence of Which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility ?
Lipids
Enzymes
Protein coat
Polysaccharide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein coat
Q.
Wasserman test test is diagnostic of__________________?
Gonorrhea
Tyhoid
Syphilis
TB
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Glasswares are sterilised by______________?
Incineration
Formaldehyde
Autoclaving
Hot air oven
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by which of the following_____________?
Ethanol
All of the above
Boiling
Cidex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affets_______________?
Red blood cells
Fibroblasts
Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Mast cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Q.
Which of the following enzyme is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot pathogenic staphylococci_____________?
Lysozyme
Fibrinolysin
Coagulase
S protein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coagulase
Q.
Secondary response is mediated by_______________?
IgM
IgG
IgA
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Bacterial species which is protective or beneficial to the host is_______________?
Treponema denticola
Streptococcus sanguis
Spirochetes
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus sanguis
Q.
Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve________________?
Stomach
Duodenum
Caecum and large intestine
Jejunum and Ileum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caecum and large intestine
Q.
A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents________________?
Allo
Xeno
Auto
ISO
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Allo
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical mycobacteria by______________?
None of the above
Niacin test
AFB staining
Pas staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Niacin test
Q.
The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by____________?
Transduction
Conjugation
Translation
Cell fusion
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
Sterilisation control for moist heat is
using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Using chemical indicator
Using non-pathogenic strain of clostridium tetani
Using methylene blue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Q.
Complement binding immunoglobin via the classical pathway is_______________?
IgG & igM
IgG & IgD
IgD & IgE
IgG & IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG & igM
Q.
Commonest mycobacterial infection in tropical countries_______________?
Kansasi
M. leprae
M. tuberculosis
M. avium intracellulare
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. tuberculosis
Q.
Sterilisation is______________?
Pathogens killed but spores are not affected
Only pathogenic micro-organisms killed
Non-pathogenic killed
All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Q.
Killer and Helper cells are part of_______________?
T cells
B cells
Macrophage
Monocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T cells
Q.
Bacteriophage was discovered by_________________?
Twort and d
Robert koch
Menkin
Metchinkoff
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Twort and d
Q.
Growth factor needed for Salmonella_________________?
Niacin
Citrate
B-12
Tryptophan
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Tryptophan
Q.
Louis Pasteur is not associated with_______________?
Discovery of Rabies Vaccine
Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Disproved spontaneous regression theory
Introduction of complex media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Q.
Synthesis of antibodies in plasma cells occurs in_________________?
Endoplasmic reticulum
Mitochondria
Golgi body
Nucleus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.
Leishmania is cultured in ________________ media?
NNN
Tellurite
Chocolate agar
Sabourauds
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NNN
Q.
Purpose of Sterilization is to eliminate________________?
Spore formers
Bacteria
Viruses
Fungus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spore formers
Q.
The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to_____________?
Remove microbes
Dehydrate microbial cells
Inhibit microbial growth
Kill mircobes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Remove microbes
Q.
The only virus, which has double stranded RNA, is______________?
Reo virus
Bunya virus
Rhabdo virus
Calci virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reo virus
Q.
Culture media of candida is_________________?
All of the above
Pingolevin
Methylene blue dextrose agar
Saboraud
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saboraud
Q.
L.D bodies are seen in_______________?
Kalahazar
Malaria
Toxoplasmosis
Sleeping sickness
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kalahazar
Q.
Schuffner
Plasmodium malariae
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium ovale
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium vivax
Q.
Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus infection during window period ?
Anti HBs
None of the above
HBs Ag
IgM anti
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM anti
Q.
Delhi boil refer to_______________?
L. Tropica sore
Malignant pustule
Solar Keratosis
Venereal ulcer
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: L. Tropica sore
Q.
Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except________________?
Failure to thrive
50% chances to have AIDS
All are true
Have infections
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 50% chances to have AIDS
Q.
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to_______________?
T lymphocytes
Monocytes
B lymphocytes
Histiocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T lymphocytes
Q.
The cell wall deficient bacteria_______________?
Chlamydiae
Ehrlichiae
Mycoplasma
Rickettsiae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycoplasma
Q.
Pasteur developed the vaccine for_______________?
All of the above
Cholera
Anthrax
Rabies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Borrelia vincenti is always associated with______________?
Spirochaetes
Fusiform bacilli
Treponema vincenti
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fusiform bacilli
Q.
The Manufacturing unit of surgical needle & sutures are sterilized by ________________?
X-Rays
Boiling
Autoclaving
Gamma-Rays
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma-Rays
Q.
Glutaraldehyde is preferred more than formaldehyde because______________?
It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
It has got more bactericidal activity
It has got more bacteriostatic activity
Its application is easier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Q.
The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is_____________?
Sabourad
Robertoson
Chorio allantoic membrane
Chocolate agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chorio allantoic membrane
Q.
Rh incompatibility is which type of hyper sensitivity reaction ?
Type III
Type IV
Type II
Type I
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Silver impregnation method of staining is useful to demonstrate_____________?
Both of the above
Bacterial flagella
None of the above
Spirochetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both of the above
Q.
Which of the following would you consider to be general properties of viruses______________?
Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids
Contain DNA but no RNA
Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Q.
Dematophytes are fungi infecting________________?
Superficial skin and deep tissue
Subcutaneous tissue
Systemic organs
Nails, hair and skin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nails, hair and skin
Q.
Chlamydia causes all of the following except________________?
Pneumonia
Non-gonococcal urethritis
Parotitis
Trachoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parotitis
Q.
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (SSS syndrome) is due to______________?
Enterotoxin A
Enterotoxin D
Enterotoxin B
Enterotoxin F
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterotoxin F
Q.
Leprosy bacilli are transmitted from person to person by all except______________?
Through breast milk
Through intact skin
Dischange from nasal mucosa
From open sore
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Through breast milk
Q.
ASO (Antistreptolysin 0) test is uesd for the diagnosis of________________?
Rheumatie fever
Rheumatoid arthritis
Typhoid fever
Rickettsial fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatie fever
Q.
Actinomycetes is______________?
A yeast like form
Gram negative bacteria
Gram positive bacteria
Fungus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is_____________?
Haemotoxin stain
Eosin stain
Blue stain
Ninhydrin stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ninhydrin stain
Q.
Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by_____________?
Virus
Bacteria superadded on virus
Bacteria
Parasite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
The term animalcules to oral microorganisms is given by__________________?
Leumenhoek
Wd miller
Robertson
Socranci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leumenhoek
Q.
Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly_______________?
Nasal mucosa
Gastrointestinal tract
Skin
Lung
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gastrointestinal tract
Q.
Phospholipid used to investigate syphilis by the reagin test is________________?
Plasminogen
Serine
Cardiolipin
Palmityl lecithin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiolipin
Q.
Cleavage of IgG molecule by Papin gives rise to:One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments_______________?
One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Two Fc fragments and two Fab fragments
One Fc fragment and four Fab fragments
Two Fc fragment and one Fab fragment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Q.
Following reaction are produced by heterophil antigens except_____________?
Forssman antigen antibody reaction
Paul bunnel reaction
Widal reaction
Weil-Felix reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal reaction
Q.
The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______________?
IgA
IgD
IgE
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV irradiation_______________?
Nucleic acids
Lipids
Carbohydrates
Inorganic salts
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleic acids
Q.
Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by________________?
Dextran
Sucrose
Epithelial cells
Bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dextran
Q.
The anaphylaxis should be treated first with_____________?
Epinephrine
Steroids
Anti histamines
Antibiotics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epinephrine
Q.
Dorset
Gonococcus
Mycobacterium
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best demonstrated by_________________?
H & E stain
Gram
PAS stain
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Q.
The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is______________?
Treponjema pertenue
Borrelia vincenti
Treponema pallidum
Borrelia burgdorferi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti
Q.
Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is ________________?
Rhizopus
Mucor
Aspergillus
Penicillium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus
Q.
Best method of sterilizing disposable syringes_______________?
Gamma rays
Boiling
U.V. rays
Hot air oven
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma rays
Q.
Anaphylaxis refers to the________________?
Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens
Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions
State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________________?
Melanin production related to virulence
Basidiomycetes yeast
Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Causes meningitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Q.
The Process of attenuation can be achieved by all except___________________?
Repeated cultures in artificial media
Serial passage in an experimental host
Growing bacteria in adverse environment
Growing bacteria in unconventional host
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serial passage in an experimental host
Q.
Probiotic organism used_________________?
Salmonella
E coli
Staphylococcus
Bifido bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bifido bacteria
Q.
Staphylococcus does not causes_______________?
Osteomyelitis
Scarlet fever
Pneumonia
Abscess
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Scarlet fever
Q.
Oil and Grease are sterilized by________________?
Ethylene dioxide
Irradiation
Hot air oven
Auto claving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Most sensitive test for antigen detection is_______________?
Radioimmuno Assay
Immunoflourescence
Passive hemaglutination
ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Radioimmuno Assay
Q.
Antigen combining site of the antibody is____________________?
Hapten
Idiotope
Paratope
Epitope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Paratope
Q.
The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______________?
Vasculitis
Erythema
Necrosis
Induration
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythema
Q.
The most common site where organisms are present in a typhoid carrier is______________?
Gall Bladder
Spleen
Liver
Salivary gland
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gall Bladder
Q.
Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause foetal defect ?
Mumps
Papilloma
Rubella
Herpes Simplex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Babu, a 28 year old male comes with compaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by____________?
P24 antigen
ELISA
Western blot
Lymph node biopsy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: P24 antigen
Q.
The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is ________________?
hypersensitivity
Coagulase production
exotoxin production
lecithinase production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: hypersensitivity
Q.
In T.B cell mediated immunity is by_______________?
CD 4*
CD 8*
None of the above
B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD 4*
Q.
Australia antigen is associated with________________?
AIDS
Chronic leukemia
Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Basal cell carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Q.
Incubation pariod of herpes zoster is________________?
3-6 months
1-2 years
7-14 days
1 months
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 7-14 days
Q.
Salmonella typhi can be isolated at different times from______________?
Blood
Feaces
All of the above
Urine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which of the following antibacterial substance is present in eggs and saliva ?
Isozyme
Secretozyme
Lysozyme
Albumin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysozyme
Q.
Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection_________________?
Isopora belli
Taenia solium
Balantidium coli
Giardia lambella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Taenia solium
Q.
Electron microscopic examination of the bacterial flora of necrotising ulcerative gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are______________?
Spirochetes
Bacteriophages
Filamentous rods
Cocci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
The most frequently encountered clostridial species in gas gangrene is______________?
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium welchii
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium botulinum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Q fever is caused by________________?
Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
C. burnetti
R. prowozekii
R. quintana
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C. burnetti
Q.
Mesophilic organisms are those that grow best at temperature of______________?
55
-7
-20
25
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 25
Q.
An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry cough, sputum culture showed growth on charcoal yeast Extract Medium, theorganism is______________?
Moraxella catarrhalis
Legionella
Burkholderia cepacia
H. influenza
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Legionella
Q.
Techoic acid is present in_____________?
Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram negative organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram positive organisms
Cell wall of Gram negative organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Q.
Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?
The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission
The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously
Causes positive Nagler reaction
Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Q.
Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by_________________?
Dog tapeworm
Threadworm
Hookworm
Fish tapeworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fish tapeworm
Q.
Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?
Mycobacteria
Coccidia
Spore
Prions
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prions
Q.
Blood agar is________________?
Enriched media
Simple media
Transport media
Differential media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enriched media
Q.
Signs of tyhoid fever is/are_____________________?
All of the above
Osteomyelitis
perforation
Haemorrhage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by ___________________?
Cryptococcus
Mucor
Aspergillus
Candida albicans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction______________?
Haemophilus
Proteus
E.coli
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?
Give ARV
Immediately wash wound with soap and water
Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Q.
One of the following is a zoonotic disease_____________?
Cholera
Bacillary dysentery
Typhoid
Anthrax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anthrax
Q.
Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of______________?
Malaria
Wool sorters disease
Whooping cough
Gas gangrene
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gas gangrene
Q.
Which of the following is a live vaccine_____________?
17 D
Hepatitis
HDCV
Salk
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HDCV
Q.
The function of IgD is______________?
Antigen recognition by B cells
Localization protection in external secretion
Reagin activity
Compliment activation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antigen recognition by B cells
Q.
The following statement is true regarding fungal infection__________________?
Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal
albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals
Candida infection is usually endogenous
Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida infection is usually endogenous
Q.
One of the following staining methods is an example of negative staining_______________?
Gram
India ink preparation
Fontana
Zheil-Neilson
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
All are true about widel test except________________________?
Base lines differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
H antigen cannot differentiate between subtypes
High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative
O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Q.
The virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhea include all of the following except____________?
IgA Protease
M-Proteins
Pili
Outer membrane proteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M-Proteins
Q.
Characteristic feature of retrovirus is_____________?
Ribonuclease
Restriction endonuclease
DNA polymerase
Reverse transcriptase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reverse transcriptase
Q.
Serum sickness syndrome is an example of________________?
Angioneurotic edema
Systemic arthus reaction
Anaphylactic
Cell-mediated immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Systemic arthus reaction
Q.
The Window period in HIV infection means______________?
The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
None of the above
The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS
The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
Q.
Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to________________?
Increase toxigenicity
Reduce the antigenicity
Increase antigenicity
reduce the toxigenicity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increase antigenicity
Q.
Which of the following is true about amoebic liver disease ?
Non-suppurative form is the serious form of extra intestinal amoebiasis
Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Portal system is the main filtration system
Left lobe of liver is commonly involved
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Q.
Teichoic acid is present in cell walls of_________________?
Gram positive bacteria
Yeast
Protozoa
Gram negative bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Grave
Type III
Type I
Type IV
Type II
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Madura mycosis produces______________?
Red granules
Brown to black granules
No granules
White to yellow granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: White to yellow granules
Q.
A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?
Bartonella spp
Pasturella spp
Francisella spp
Brucella spp
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Brucella spp
Q.
Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a_______________?
Immunodot
ELISA
RIPA
Western Blot
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Western Blot
Q.
Rabies virus________________?
Chromophilic
Neurotropic
Dermatotropic
Cytotropic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neurotropic
Q.
Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is_______________?
IgG
IgA
IgE
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
B.C.G untrue is_____________?
T.B vaccine
live vaccine
Orally administered
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orally administered
Q.
In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a_______________?
Super antigen
Hapten
Toxin
Carrier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hapten
Q.
Thread worm is______________?
Enterobius
Necator
Ancylostoma
Ascaris
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterobius
Q.
Endotoxin have all but one of the properties given below_______________?
Cannot be toxoided
Produced by gram negative bacteria
Not secreted outside the cell
Produced by gram positive bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Produced by gram positive bacteria
Q.
The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is___________?
Mannitol fermentation
The catalase test
Detection of coagulase
Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Detection of coagulase
Q.
Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus is due to ________________________?
Lack of nucleic acid in the cell wall
Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Pleomorphism
Penicillin analogue production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Q.
Influenza is caused by_____________?
Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Q.
Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is_________________?
3:1
1:3
2:1
1:2
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2:1
Q.
On a stained slide, clostridium tetani has the appearance of a__________________?
Chain of beads
Bunch of a
Safely pin
Drum stick
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Drum stick
Q.
Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine ?
Cholera
Tuberculosis (BCG)
Varicella Zoster virus
Typhoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cholera
Q.
which of the following is anaerobic_______________?
Klebsiella
Bacteroides
E.coli
Pseudomonas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacteroides
Q.
Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstratig________________?
Cysts in the sterile pus
Cysts in the intestine
Trophozoites in the pus
Trophozoites in the feces
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites in the pus
Q.
The urine sample of a patient has been sent to the laboratory to look for Leptospira. The specimen is to be screened by use of the__________________?
Inverted microscope
Electron microscope
Dark ground microscope
Scanning microscope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dark ground microscope
Q.
Function of Ig A is________________?
Activates macrophages
Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Kills virus infected cells
Circulating antibody
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Q.
Aflatoxins are produced by________________?
Aspergillus fumigatus
Aspergillus flavus
All of the above
Aspergillus niger
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus flavus
Q.
The chemotactic factor is______________?
C3b
C4a
C2a
C5a
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C5a
Q.
Characters of exotoxin include all, except_______________?
Protein polysaccharide complex
Has specific tissue affinity
Highly potent
Heat labile
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein polysaccharide complex
Q.
Leptospirosis, all are true except______________?
Faeces & urine of rodents is the cause
Onset of IgM in 2 days
It is sensitive to penicillin
Incubation period is 10 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Onset of IgM in 2 days
Q.
Which of the following belongs to cell fraction derived vaccine______________?
Rubella
Hepatitis B
Measles
Mumps
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B
Q.
The killer cells are associated with immunologic response___________________?
Type II
Type I
Type III
Type IV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
The term epitope refers to________________?
Smallest antigenic determinant
complete antigen molecule
Hapten
Immunogen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Smallest antigenic determinant
Q.
Drumstick appearance is seen in______________?
Cl. tetanomorphum
All of the above
Cl. tetani
Cl. sphenoids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. tetani
Q.
The commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercie bacilli________________?
Thioglavin
Acridine orange
Congo red
Auramine and Rhodamine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine and Rhodamine
Q.
Common name for Trichuris trichura________________?
Round worm
Seat woman
Whip worm
Tape worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Whip worm
Q.
Herpes virus_____________?
Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane
Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane
Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Q.
The specific test for Treponema pallidum is___________?