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TOP Microbiology MCQS Questions
Q.
Bacterial spores are destroyed by_______________?
Disinfection by hypochlorite solution
Pasteurisation
Autoclave
Boiling at 100
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The interaction of antigens with antibodies on the surface of a mast cel leads to degranulation and anaphylaxis. The mast cell granules produce anaphylaxis because they contain________________?
Proteolytic enzymes
Vasoactive mediators
Lymphotoxins
Lysosomes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vasoactive mediators
Q.
Bacteria with potent exotoxin is_______________?
Clostridium tetani
Klebsiella
Pseudomonas
Shigella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani
Q.
True about prions________________?
Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Viruses which are genetically deficient
Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective
Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Q.
The best skin disinfectant is________________?
Alcohol
Chlorhexdine
None of the above
Savlon
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chlorhexdine
Q.
Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates_____________?
Late convalescence
Simple carriers
Carrier status
High infectivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: High infectivity
Q.
The facultative anaerobic bacteria are those who are_______________?
Unable to grow in the presence of oxygen
Unable to grow in the absence of oxygen
Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Able to grow in the presence of carbon dioxide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Q.
A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium malaria
Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Erysipelas is caused by________________?
Group B staphylococci
Group A steptococci
Gonococci
Pneumococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B staphylococci
Q.
True about immune response of hepatitis B is__________________?
Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
CMI disappears soon after recover
Antibody to HBC is not protective
Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Q.
Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria______________?
Mc Conkey
Loefflers serum slope
Saborauds agar
Lowenstein Jensen Medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Loefflers serum slope
Q.
A full course of immunization agianst. Telanus with 3 doses to Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how many years ?
5
20
10
15
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 10
Q.
Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?
Polymers chain reaction
Western blot followed by ELISA
Virus isolation
ELISA followed by western blot technique
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA followed by western blot technique
Q.
Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-5m in size, multi-septate, chestnut, brown color is characteristic of________________?
Chromoblastomycosis
Rhinosporodiosis
Histoplasmosis
Phaeohypomycosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chromoblastomycosis
Q.
The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell
Haemagglutination inhibition test
Haemagglutination test
Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Q.
An oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod which produces a bluish-green pigment has been grown in culture from a swab obtained from an infected burn wound. This organism is susceptible to gentamicin, ticarcillin and tobramicin, but resistant to all the other antibiotics which of the following organisms is it likely to be ?
Proteus miribilis
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Escherichia coli
Klebsiella pnemoniae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q.
Exaltation is________________?
Decreased virulence
Increased Virulence
No change
None
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increased Virulence
Q.
Which of the following is not true of boiling water_____________?
Can kill vegetative bacterial cells
Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis
Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
It can kill hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Q.
The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is_______________?
IgM
IgD
IgA
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Germ tubes are formed mainly by_______________?
Candida pseudotropicalls
Candida stellatoidea
Candida tropicalis
Candida albicans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
The best method of sterilization of dressing powder is_____________?
Hot air oven
Autoclaving
Tyndallization
Inspissation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with______________?
IgA antibodies
IgM antibodies
Mast cells
Lysozyme
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA antibodies
Q.
Loss of capsule in bacteria is generally associated with______________?
Inability to spread through tissue
increase in invasiveness
Decease in virulence
Loss of infectivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Decease in virulence
Q.
Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify______________?
Mycoplasma
Rickettsiae
Chlamydiae
Spirochaetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochaetes
Q.
Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_____________?
Cryptococcosis
Aspergilosis
Candidiasis
Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candidiasis
Q.
Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans_________________?
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Hot air oven is used for sterilization of all EXCEPT__________________?
Rubber tubes
Glassware
Liquid paraffin
Sharp instrument
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubber tubes
Q.
Which worm is longest________________?
T. Saginata
A. Lumbricoides
Hook worm
T. Solium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T. Saginata
Q.
Malignant pustule is referred to_________________?
Infected squamous cell carcinoma
None of the above
Facio-cervical actinomycosis
Cutaneous anthrax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cutaneous anthrax
Q.
In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started________________?
Poliomyelitis
Herpes
Rabies
Influenza
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabies
Q.
True about VDRL test________________?
All of the above
Slide flocculation test
Non
Best followed for drug therapy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is_____________?
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis A virus
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis C virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
Lancefields classification of B hemolytic streptococcus is based on______________?
Type of lipid in cell membrane
Physiological properties
Polysaccharide C antigen
M Protein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Polysaccharide C antigen
Q.
Virulence of Gonococcus is due to___________________?
Cell Membrane
Pili
Cytolytic enzymes
Its intracellular location
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
Which of the following fulfil all the criterias of kich
Mycobacterium leprae
N. gonorrhoeae
None of the above
Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: None of the above
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria grow_______________?
in the presence of oxygen
differential media
in the absence of oxygen
in the presence of nitrogen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in the absence of oxygen
Q.
Which of the following is an acid-fast bacillus_____________?
All of the above
Treponema pallidum
Mycobacterium bacilli
Neisseria gonorrhea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium bacilli
Q.
Which of the following is obligate aerobe ?
diphtheria
Proteus
Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Q.
Malaria pigment is________________?
Haematin-globin pigment
Haemoglobin
Iron
Bilurubin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haematin-globin pigment
Q.
The key cell types involved in the acquired immunity include all EXCEPT________________?
Erythrocytes
Antigen presenting cells (APC
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythrocytes
Q.
Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor_____________?
Streptolysin 0
Carbohydrate cell wall
M protein
Pyrogenic exotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pyrogenic exotoxin
Q.
The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as_____________?
Paratope
Epitope
Clone
Idiotope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epitope
Q.
Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose_______________?
Arthus reaction
Contact dermatitis
Anaphylaxis
Serum sickness
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Immunoglobulin consists of________________?
1 heavy, 2 light chains
3 light, 1 heavy chain
1 light, 1 heavy chain
2 light, 2 heavy chains
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2 light, 2 heavy chains
Q.
Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in________________?
Artificial media
Rabbit testis only
Chick embryos
Tissue culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabbit testis only
Q.
Which of the following characteristics of bacteria is not true?
Having either DNA or RNA
Unicellular
Free living
Cell wall containing muramic acid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Having either DNA or RNA
Q.
A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT________________?
Linezolid
Imipenem
Vancomycin
Teichoplanin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Imipenem
Q.
The overall effect of HIV is to gradually impair the immune system by interference with______________?
Macrophages
Plasma cells
Natural killer cells
Helper T lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes
Q.
Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?
Surface antigen
Core antibody
Core antigen
Surface antibody
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Surface antigen
Q.
Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies_____________?
Rabies
Measles
Chicken pox
Small pox
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles
Q.
Prozone phenomenon is due to______________?
Excess antigen
Disproportionate antigen antibody levels
Excess antibody
Hyper immune reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Excess antibody
Q.
Actinomycosis is a_________________?
Anaerobic fungal disease
Aerobic fungal disease
Aerobic bacterial disease
Anaerobic bacterial disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic bacterial disease
Q.
HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except________________?
Sexual intercourse
Saliva
Needle prick injury
Blood transmission
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saliva
Q.
Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_______________?
Simple structure
All of the above
Presence of either DNA or RNA
Complex multiplication
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
False +ve for VDRL is seen in______________?
Malaria
Yaws
All of the above
Lepromatous Leprosy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Most fungi of medical importance belongs to__________________?
Basidiomycetes
Zygomycetes
Deuteromycetes
Ascomycetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deuteromycetes
Q.
Most of the drug resistances occurs due to_____________?
conjugation
Transformation
Transduction
Mutation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: conjugation
Q.
The bacterial cell wall has all of the following properties except______________?
It is a unique flexible plastic structure
It consists of a mixed polymer called peptidoglycon
It is the structure principally responsible for the reaction of gram staining
It contains D-isomers of amino acids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It is a unique flexible plastic structure
Q.
The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is_____________?
Tuberculosis
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Herpetic gingivostomatitis
Apthous stomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Q.
Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in which of the following viruses_____________?
Measles virus
Hepatitis B virus
Pox virus
HIV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is______________?
Hemophilia ducreya
Donovania granulomatis
Bartonella henselae
Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bartonella henselae
Q.
Which of the following is not a feature of anaphylaxis ?
passive transfer by serum
None of the above
Immediate reaction
Delayed reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Delayed reaction
Q.
DNA covering material in a virus is called as________________?
Capsid
Nucleocapsid
Envelope
Capsomere
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Capsid
Q.
ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______________?
Less sensitive, more specific
More sensitive, more specific
Less sensitive less specific
More sensitive, less specific
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: More sensitive, less specific
Q.
Who first introduced solid media_______________?
Robert koch
Hensen
Louis pasteur
Ogston
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robert koch
Q.
cAMP reaction is shown by which streptococci ?
Group D
Group A
Group B
Group C
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B
Q.
Widal test is specific for____________?
Pemhigoid
Plague
Leprosy
Typhoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid
Q.
Which of the following is not a koch
When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue
Pure cultures can be obtained
Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the experimental animals
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Q.
All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_________________?
gingivalis
histolytica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: gingivalis
Q.
When horse serum is injected intravenoulsy in to a rabbit and again in to the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs as the site of the second injection________________?
Anaphylaxis
Serum sickness
Atopy
Arthus phenomenon
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus phenomenon
Q.
Fimbriae are demonstrated by ___________________?
Haemagglutination test
Gram stain
Culture
Biochemical reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haemagglutination test
Q.
The following is not true of Candida albicans______________?
Forms Chlamydospores
Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them
Yeast like fungus
Blastomeres seen in isolates
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blastomeres seen in isolates
Q.
The temperature required for cultivating mycobacterium________________?
0 degree
37 degrees
27 degrees
2 degree
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 37 degrees
Q.
All are true about bordetella pertussis except______________?
Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Most common cause is B. Petrussis
It may occur in children and young adult after vaccination
Bacteria culture from nasopharyngeal swab is the definitive diagnosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Q.
Causative organism of Kalahazar is_______________?
Toxoplasma
Plasmodium ovaie
Entamoeba histolytica
Leishman donovani
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leishman donovani
Q.
Interferon interferes with replication of virus at the time of_____________?
Protein synthesis
When virus enters the cell
Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule
DNA/RNA replication
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein synthesis
Q.
Rideal Walker test is used to determine the efficiency of the_____________?
Dry heat sterilization
Moist heat sterilisation
Disinfectant
Antibiotics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Disinfectant
Q.
The difference between sterilization and disinfection is that_______________?
Sterilization involves chemicals and disinfection involves physical methods
Sterilization is easier to achieve
Disinfection kills all spores but sterilization does not
Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Q.
The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is_______________?
Translation
Conjugation
Lysogeny
Transformation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysogeny
Q.
For uniform staining reaction, morphology and biochemical activity it is advisable to study bacterial cultures during the_____________?
Logarithmic phase
Stationary phase
Death phase
Lag phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Logarithmic phase
Q.
The structure in involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface is_______________?
None of the above
Fimbria
Capsule
Flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fimbria
Q.
Vibrio cholera was discovered by_________________?
John snow
Koch
Medintoff
Virchow
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Koch
Q.
Noguchi
Brucella
None of the above
Bordetella
Borrelia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia
Q.
Donovanosis, true is___________________?
Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Characterized by painful genital ulcers
Penicillin is drug of choice
Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Q.
Which of the following statement about P24 antigen of HIV is Not True ?
Virus load parallel P24 titre
It can be detected during the window period
Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:
It remains during asymptomatic phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It remains during asymptomatic phase
Q.
A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?
Autograft
Isograft
Xenograft
Allograft
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Isograft
Q.
In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_______________?
Hypnozoite
Gametocyte
Sporozoite
Merozoite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sporozoite
Q.
Virus infected cell is killed by________________?
Neutrophils
Interferons
Autolysis
Macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Interferons
Q.
In small intestine, cholera toxin acts by______________?
Activation of GTPase
ADP
Active absorption of NaCI
Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ADP
Q.
Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by_____________?
Haemolytic streptococci
Nisseria
Streptococcus viridans
Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus viridans
Q.
Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by______________?
Autoclaving
Hot air oven
Inspissation
UV-Radiation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Candida is most often implicated in causation___________________?
Tenea capitis
Desert rheumatism
Thrush
Conjunctivitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thrush
Q.
Diphtheria is pathogenic only when infected with______________?
Beta phage
Lambda K12
Alfa phage
Delta Phage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Beta phage
Q.
The antigen used in Weil Felix test is obtained from________________?
coli
Staphylococcus
Proteus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to______________?
NK
B
CD4 T-cells
CD8 T-cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4 T-cells
Q.
Actinomycosis is caused by______________?
Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Acid fast, non-motile bacillus
Fungus
Retrovirus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Q.
The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route________________?
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis D virus
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis C virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______________?
ELISA IS
Western Blot is
PCR is
Both are
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both are
Q.
Lepromin test is useful for________________?
Prognosis
Diagnosis
Epidemiology
Treatment plan
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prognosis
Q.
Staphylococci typically occur in_________________?
Pairs
Irregular clusters
Tetrads
Chains
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Irregular clusters
Q.
The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the________________?
VL domian
CH2 domian
CH1 domian
CL domian
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CH2 domian
Q.
Multiple drug resistance of bacteria depends on which of the following_______________?
Colicigenic factor (Col)
Fertility factor (F+)
Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Q.
Immunity that is conferred to the foetus by transfer of IgG and IgA antibodies is called as______________?
Natural active immunity
Passive acquired immunity
Passive natural immunity
Active acquired immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Passive natural immunity
Q.
Viron is defined as______________?
Smallest virus
None of the above
A smallest particle similar to virus
Extracellular infectious virus particle
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Extracellular infectious virus particle
Q.
Cough plate method is used to identify________________?
Pertussis
Mycoplasma
Y. pestis
M-Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pertussis
Q.
Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functional of the cell______________?
wall
membrane
Capsule
nucleus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: membrane
Q.
A dentist suffred from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is_____________?
Convalscent carrier
Healthy carrier
Inactive carrier
Paradoxical carrier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Convalscent carrier
Q.
Sunlight acts as sterilizing agent because_________________?
short wave lenght
Heat
Ozone
Long wavelength
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: short wave lenght
Q.
Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in______________?
9 weeks
2 weeks
12 weeks
4 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4 weeks
Q.
What is the sequence which a retro virus follows on entering a host cell ?
DNA-RNA
DNA-RNA-DNA
RNA-DNA
RNA -DNA-RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: RNA -DNA-RNA
Q.
Nagglers reaction detects________________?
None of the above
Hyaluronidase
Coagulase
Lecithinase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Man is the only reservoir for_______________?
Camphylobacter jejuni
Y. enterocolitica
histolytica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: histolytica
Q.
Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_________________?
Lecithinase
Desmolase
Cytokinin
Theta toxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except___________________?
Though plasmids
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through bacteriophages
through conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is__________________?
Hepatitis vaccination
Immune blood transfusion
Gamma globulin injection
Placental transfer of antibodies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Placental transfer of antibodies
Q.
All are true about legionella pneumophilia except______________?
Urine test is a reliable method
It can replicate in amoeba
Aquatic bodies are main habitat
Person to person transmission
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Person to person transmission
Q.
Smith noguchi
Spirochetes
Klebsiella
Bacillus
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
Tyndallisation is carried out for________________?
60 minutes
Two successive days
One day
Three successive days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Three successive days
Q.
Prions true is____________?
Contains DNA/ RNA
Sensitive to most chemical sterilization
Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Evokes strong immunogenic reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Q.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which of the following________________?
B-cells
Active T cells
Plasma cells
NK cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active T cells
Q.
All are oncogenic except________________?
Culex
Aedes
Anopheles
Mansoni
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aedes
Q.
Which of the following viruses appears to be involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi
Human Herpes Virus 1
Human Herpes Virus 3
Human Herpes Virus 8
Human Herpes Virus 4
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Human Herpes Virus 4
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Vincent
Caused due to malnutrition
A symbiotic infection
Caused by leptospira interrogans
Ulcerative gingivostomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by leptospira interrogans
Q.
Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores can be achieved with_______________?
KOH wet mount
Hematoxylin and Eosin
Grocott Gomori Methenamine silver
Peri-iodic Acid Schiff
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: KOH wet mount
Q.
The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum ?
IgG1
IgG3
IgG2
IgG4
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG1
Q.
Cytopathic effect is shown by_____________?
Virus
Spirochete
Anaerobe
Bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
Methods for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infection________________?
All of the above
Microscopic examination of skin scrapings
KOH staining
Wood light examination
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Culture medium used for Bordatella pertussis is_________________?
Wilson Blair medium
Robertson cooked meat medium
Bile broth
Bordet Gengou medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bordet Gengou medium
Q.
Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_____________________?
only after one year
no antibodies are present in primary HSV
antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis
in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
Q.
Graft versus host reaction is caused by_________________?
Monocytes
Leukocytes
T-lymphocytes
B-Lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T-lymphocytes
Q.
Black pigmented anaerobes include all of the following except______________?
Buccae
Porphyromonas
Tannerella
Prevotella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Buccae
Q.
A protoplast is best characterized as a bacterial cell______________?
containing a cell wall and a capsule
with a cell wall but free of a capsule
Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Uniquely sensitive to penicillin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Q.
Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes______________?
NK Cells
B cells
Memory B cells
Cytotoxic T cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NK Cells
Q.
Grape bunch shaped colonies are seen in______________?
Streptococcus
Gonococci
E.coli
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staphylococcus
Q.
The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is_______________?
EB virus
Parvo virus
Hepatitis
Adeno
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parvo virus
Q.
Most antibodies are produced in the________________?
Heart and the liver
Brain and the meninges
Spleen and the lymph nodes
Thymus and the appendix
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spleen and the lymph nodes
Q.
Post streptococcal acute glomerulo nephritis is an example of________________?
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type III hypersensitivity
Q.
Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups ?
Herpes viruses
Flavi viruses
Picorna viruses
Hepadana viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi viruses
Q.
Phase contrast microscopy is based on principle of__________________?
Light attenuation
Light scattering
Different reflective indices of object
Different refractive indices of object
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Different refractive indices of object
Q.
The medium of choice for culturing yeast from of dimorphic fungi is_________________?
Any medium incubated at 35-37
Sabouraud
Sabouraud
Brain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
The diagnosis of gonorrhea is established by_____________?
Compliment fixation tests
All of the above tests
Pili agglutination tests
Haemagglutination tests
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above tests
Q.
Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to______________?
Thread worm
Hook worm
Ascaris
Guinea worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hook worm
Q.
Candida albicans causes all of the following except______________?
Mycetoma
Oral thrush
Meningitis
Endocarditis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycetoma
Q.
CD4 count in normal healthy adult is_______________?
200
1000
500
300
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1000
Q.
A darkfield microscope would be useful in examining blood for_______________?
Treponema
Streptococcus
Actinomyces
Mycobacterium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema
Q.
Immunoglobulins ar secreted by______________?
T-cells
Plasma cells
Macrophages
Neutrophils
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasma cells
Q.
Haptane is_______________?
None of the above
Carrier required for specific antibody production
Same as epitopes
High molecular protein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Carrier required for specific antibody production
Q.
Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by______________?
IgM antibodies in serum
Isolation form stool
Isolation from bile
Culture from blood
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM antibodies in serum
Q.
VDRL is a________________?
Slide flocculation test
Tube agglutination test
Tube flocculation test
Latex agglutination test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Slide flocculation test
Q.
One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is____________?
Viral interference
Permutation
Mutation
Supervision
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Viral interference
Q.
The difference between gram positive and negative bacteria lies in their_______________?
cell membrane
Nuclear material
cell wall
Mesosomes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cell wall
Q.
The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are______________?
Mycoplasma
Gram negative organisms
Virus infections
Gram positive organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram negative organisms
Q.
Endotoxins differ from exotoxins in that endotoxins______________?
activate complement by the alternate pathway
are highly antigenic
are proteins
are heat labile
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: activate complement by the alternate pathway
Q.
The Dane particle is the______________?
Delta Virus
HBV
IgG anti HAV
HBC Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBV
Q.
Tuberculin test screens for_____________?
Phagocyte dysfunction
Hemoral immunity
Complement function
Cell mediated immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell mediated immunity
Q.
Endoscopes are sterilized by using_______________?
Cidex
Gamma radiation
Boiling
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Boiling
Q.
One of the following statement about statements about sterilization is not true_______________?
Flash pasteurization of milk ? 72
Liquid paraffin ? Dry heat
Glass syringes ? Boiling at 169
Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Q.
Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?
Lipids
Proteins
Adjuvant
Polysaccharides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteins
Q.
IgG antibodies have a half-life of approximately_______________?
1 day
1 week
1 Month
1 hour
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 Month
Q.
Exotoxins are____________________?
None
Protein compound
Lipid-polysaccharide complex
Lipoprotein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein compound
Q.
Following is a retrovirus_____________?
Influenza
Immunodeficiency virus
Hepatitis virus
Polio virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immunodeficiency virus
Q.
The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement_________________?
IgA
IgE
IgM
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
The reaginic antibody is________________?
IgG
IgA
IgD
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Kaposi
Between 1000-2000
Above 600
Below 200
Above 2000
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Below 200
Q.
All are not true for cultivation of anaerobic organisms except_______________?
Incubator
anaerobic jar
Refrigerator
Centrifuge
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: anaerobic jar
Q.
Each of the following can cause food poisoning except________________?
Cl. welchii
Staphylococcus
Cl. botulinum
Cl. difficile
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. difficile
Q.
Which of the following does not go into chronic hepatitis stage ?
HCV
HEV
HDV
HBV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HEV
Q.
Physical sterilization was discovered by__________________?
Joeph Lister
Alexander flemings
Robert Koch
John Hunter
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Joeph Lister
Q.
Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito______________?
Sporozoite
Gametocyte
Zygote
Merozoite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gametocyte
Q.
Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with_______________?
Giemsa stain
Kin Young stain
Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Ziel Nelson
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Q.
Which of the following are correctly matched ?
Antigenic stimulus given by vaccine (polio) is artificial active immunity
All of the above
Transfer of antibody from mother to child is through colostrum and acquired passive immunity naturally
Injection of antibodies (Hepatitis) is artificially acquired passive immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which is type II hypersensitivity ?
Immune complex mediated
Anaphylaxis
Delayed hypersensitivity
Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Q.
By using phase contrast microscope_______________?
External capsule formation can be observed
Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Internal metabolic activities can be observed
Internal structures are differentiated in dead cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Q.
One of the following is a treponemal test for diagnosis of syphilis_____________?
Kahn test
Wasserman test
FTAB
Widal test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: FTAB
Q.
Which of the following have the capability to produce extra cellular polysaccharides______________?
Enterococcus
Peptostreptococcus
Strep. pyogenes
Strep. Mutans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strep. Mutans
Q.
Opportunistic infection is caused by___________________?
Mucor
Aspergillus
All of the above
Penicillium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The minimum time required for the sterilization of surgical instruments by moist heat at 134
15 minutes
60 minutes
30 minutes
3 minutes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3 minutes
Q.
Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti_________________?
Body is slender and long
Causes filariasis
Terminal nuclei absent
Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Q.
Granules in the corynebacterium diphtheria are called by following names, except______________?
Refractile granules
Metachromatic granules
Voluntin granules
Babes Ernst granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile granules
Q.
Neurotoxin of tetanus acts on______________?
Muscle
Brain
Synapse
Spinal card
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spinal card
Q.
Sporulation occurs in__________________?
Lag phase
Stationary phase
Decline phase
Log phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
True about HIV are all except______________?
DNA virus
Decrease CD4 count in late stages
Macrophages are the reservoir
Attacks CD4 cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: DNA virus
Q.
IgG has subclasses_______________?
1
3
4
2
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4
Q.
Anti HBsAB indicates______________?
Resistance to hepatitis B
Good prognosis
Acute infection
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Good prognosis
Q.
Causative agents of Vincent
Borrelia recurrents and bateroides
Leptospira and Treponema pallidum
Borrelia burgoloferi and lactobacillus
Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Q.
Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______________?
Transfusion reaction
Serum sickness
Atopic allergy
Contact dermatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is________________?
Counter immune electroporesis
ELISA
Indirect hemagglutination
Microscopy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA
Q.
Test for differentiating virulent form non-virulent tubercular bacilli_____________?
Neutral red test
Aryl sulphatase test
Niacin test
Catalase peroxidase test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neutral red test
Q.
Rickettsiae__________________?
Respond to tetracycline therapy
All of the above
Transmitted by arthropod vectors
Multiply within living cell
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Virus is cultured in_______________?
Nonembryonated egg
Rogosa medium
Embryonated egg
Saubourd
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Embryonated egg
Q.
Disinfection frees the surface from______________?
None of the above
Spore forms
Both of the above
Vegetative forms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vegetative forms
Q.
Human immunoglobulins are divided based on_____________?
Structural differences
Functional differences
Complemented fixation
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Structural differences
Q.
Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to__________________?
Capsule
Invasion
Endotoxin
Exotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Exotoxin
Q.
Chemotactic cytokine is_________________?
IL-6
TNF
IL-1
IL-8
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IL-8
Q.
The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in vivo from one bacterium to another by_____________?
Rarefaction
Conjugation
Transduction
Transformation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
The culture media for fungus is__________________?
Sabourauds medium
Chocolate agar medium
Tellurite medium
NNN medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabourauds medium
Q.
Immunoglobin, Which is produced first by the fetus in response to infection_______________?
IgA
IgD
IgM
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Which of the following is an enrichment medium________________?
Selenite F Broth
Nutrient Broth
Mac Conkey agar
Blood agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Selenite F Broth
Q.
What is the transport medium for cholera___________________?
Venkatraman
Cary Blair Medium
Tellurite Medium
B & C
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: B & C
Q.
A type of immediately occuring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called_____________?
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type I hypersensitivity
Q.
Same or closely related antigens present in different biological species are known as________________?
Haptens
Heterophile antigens
Isoantigens
Suquestrated antigens
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Heterophile antigens
Q.
One of the following is an agglutination test in the diagnosis of typhoid___________?
Mantoux test
Widal test
Wasserman test
Eleks test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
Sterilization is a process in which_________________?
Kill all non-pathogenic micro-organisms in the environment
Deactivate all pathogens not spores
Kill all pathogenic micro-organisms
Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Q.
Human immune deficiency virus is ________________ virus?
Retro
Flavi
Rheo
Rhabdo
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Retro
Q.
A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned in to an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis______________?
Calcoflour White
Trichrome Methylene blue
Carbol Fuschin
Acid Fast Stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trichrome Methylene blue
Q.
Half-life of free HIV in plasma is________________?
6 hours
3 months
24 hours
12 hours
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 6 hours
Q.
Among The infectious diseases transmitted by food, one is___________________?
Diptheria
Typhoid fever
Viral stomatitis
Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid fever
Q.
Moist heat kills all of the following EXCEPT_______________?
Mycobacterium
Coxiella burnetti
Brucella
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coxiella burnetti
Q.
The Ig found in exocrine secretions is_____________?
IgD
IgM
IgA
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Operation theatres are sterilized by_____________?
Washing with soap and water
ETO gas
Carbolic acid spraying
Formaldehyde fumigation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Formaldehyde fumigation
Q.
Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci________________?
Sarcina
Staphylococcus
Aerococcus
Micrococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sarcina
Q.
About Bacteroids True are all Except_______________?
Present mainly in mixed infections
Most common species is B fragilis
Susceptible to many antibiotics
Bile resistant anerobes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Susceptible to many antibiotics
Q.
Encapsulation in bacteria helps in__________________?
Prevent their phagocytosis
Spore formation
Oxygen effect
Decreased virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prevent their phagocytosis
Q.
In initial stages of tyhoid, salmonella can be detected in________________?
Urine
Feacus
Blood
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood
Q.
All of the following are true of streptococcus except_____________?
Most common in humans
Most common is animals
It
Shows adherence to dental enamel
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It
Q.
Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phase of the bacterial growth curve______________?
Stationary phase
Lag
Decline
Exponential growth
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
Viruses can be cultured in all except_______________?
Cell culture
Guinea pigs
Blood agar
Chick embryo
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood agar
Q.
Kolmer test is a screening test done for_________________?
Gonorrhea
Lymphoma
Syphilis
Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Function of T-lymphocyte is/are________________?
Production of interferon
All of the above
Rosette formation
Lymphokine production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The following are applicable to bacterial genoms except________________?
It doe not contain histones
Its DNA has both introns and extrons
It is composed of DNA
It is circular
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Q.
EBV causes all except_________________?
Papilloma
Carcinoma of nasopharynx
Burkitt
Infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma
Q.
Which of the following is not used as disinfectant________________?
2% Lysol
1-2% cetrimide
100% alcohol
5% chloroxylene
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 100% alcohol
Q.
Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by_______________?
M. ulcerans
M. chelonae
M. smegmatis
M. Kansasii
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. chelonae
Q.
All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except____________?
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis E
HIV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Which of the following correctly indicates the infectivity of hepatitis virus in human ?
Anti-HBS
HBCAg
HBeAg
Anti-HBC
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBeAg
Q.
In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except__________________?
Malabsorption
Spleen sequestration
Bone marrow depression
Hemolysis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Malabsorption
Q.
Which of the following is not a pox virus ?
Cowpox
Molluscum contagiosum
chicken pox
Small pox
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: chicken pox
Q.
A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is______________?
Pyte-ferraco stain
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Methanamine silver stain
India ink preparation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
Staphylococcal food poisoning includes the following features_______________?
Incubation period of 24 hours
Heat labile enterotoxin
Common with dairy products
Requires immediate antibiotics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Common with dairy products
Q.
Causative organism for gas gangrene_______________?
Clostridium welchii
Strep. Faecalis
Coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Streptococcus is classified based on__________________?
M Protein
Cell wall carbohydrate
Bile Solubility
Cultural characteristics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall carbohydrate
Q.
compared with autoclave, use of a dry heat over for sterilization has the following disadvantages______________?
Causes instruments to rust
Time-consuming
Less effective
Causes sharp instruments to dull
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Time-consuming
Q.
Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces?
Flagella
Mesosomes
Pili
Capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except_____________?
Salmonella typhi
Streptococcus pyogenes
Legionella pneumophila
Neisseria meningitides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus pyogenes
Q.
The best sterilization method for a hand-piece is________________?
dry heat
chemical vapour
All of the above
Ethylene oxide gas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ethylene oxide gas
Q.
Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is____________?
Histidine rich proteins
Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Sialoperoxidase
Secretory IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Q.
Sleeping sickness is caused by_______________?
Tick
House fly
Reduvid bug
Sand fly
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reduvid bug
Q.
The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_____________?
Alopecia areata
Pilomatrixoma
Tenia incognito
Kerison
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kerison
Q.
Steam under pressure in used in ________ sterilization?
Autoclave
Kochs sterilizer
hot air oven
Pasteurization
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The small nonparticulate protein leading to enhanced replication of HBV as well as HIV is______________?
HBs Ag
HBx Ag
Hbe Ag
HBc Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBx Ag
Q.
T cells multiplication is stimulated by_______________?
Phytohaemagglutinin
Heat
Macrolin
Bovine serum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Phytohaemagglutinin
Q.
Bacteria reproduce mainly by______________?
Budding
Binary fission
Bacterial components produced by host cells
Sporing
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Binary fission
Q.
The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine doses not play a major role is______________?
Anaphylaxis
Arthus reaction
Asthma
Urticaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus reaction
Q.
Robertsons cooked meat medium is best suited for cultivation of_______________?
Clostridia
Choleria
Mycobacterium
S. epidermidis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridia
Q.
A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates________________?
Carrier state
Acute infection
Prodromal phase
Convalescence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acute infection
Q.
Which of the following organisms does NOT react with gram
Candida albicans
Streptococcus mutan
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Actinomyces israelii
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q.
Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins ?
IgM
IgA
IgE
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Disinfection of the rooms can be done by using_______________?
High efficiency particle arrestors
20% phenol
Chlorine gas
40% formaldehyde vapour
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 40% formaldehyde vapour
Q.
Negative staining is used to demonstrate________________?
Bacterial spore
Bacterial Flagella
Bacterial fimbriae
Bacterial capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacterial fimbriae
Q.
Which is not true about vibrio cholera_________________?
Man is the only natural host
Grows on simple media
Cannot survive in extracellular environment
It is non-halophilic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Q.
Group A carbohydrate of Str. pyogenes cross reacts with human_________________?
Myocardium
Cardiac valves
Synovial fluid
Vascular intima
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiac valves
Q.
Pneumococus can be differentiated from streptococcus by________________?
Gram staining
Type of hemolysis
Growth characteristics
Bile solubility
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bile solubility
Q.
Phage conversion is required for________________?
Tularemia
Diptheria
Gonorrhoea
All o f the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Diptheria
Q.
parasitic inflammation would show predominantly____________________?
Basophils
Eosinophils
Neutrophilis
Lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Eosinophils
Q.
Pseudohphae are seen in____________?
Candida albicans
Alternaria
Aspergillus
Osporium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?
Trench fever
Epidemic typhus
Relapsing fever
Q fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Q fever
Q.
The causative organism of syphilis is___________?
Borrelia burgolorferi
Chalamydia trachomatis
Leptospira interrogans
Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema pallidum
Q.
Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except______________?
Strongyloides
Ascaris lumbriocoides
Entamoeba
Giardia lambia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strongyloides
Q.
Toxoids are_________________?
non-antigenic and toxic
antigenic and non-toxic
non-antigenic and non-toxic
antigenic and toxic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: antigenic and non-toxic
Q.
Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000_________________?
H chain
L chain
Secretory piece
J piece
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: H chain
Q.
IL-1 is produced by_________________?
Macrophages
Helper B cells
Helper T cells
Monocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Macrophages
Q.
In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by_____________?
Widal test
Urine culture
Blood culture
Stool culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except__________________?
All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Found exclusively in human beings.
Most common cause of urethritis is male
Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Q.
Pigs are important source of_____________?
Yellow fever
Rabies
Kuru
Japanese encephalitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Japanese encephalitis
Q.
A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains and haemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism ?
Cataslase positive
Bile solubility
Optochin sensitivity
Bacitracin sensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacitracin sensitivity
Q.
Organ of locomotion in bacteria is________________?
Capsule
Fimbria
Flagella
Cell wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flagella
Q.
All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except______________?
Colony morphology on saliva agar
Gram staining
Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide
Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram staining
Q.
Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in______________?
Ascariasis and tapeworm
Ascariasis
Tapeworm
Hood worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ascariasis
Q.
Bacteria with tuft of flagella at one end are called_______________?
Peritrichate
Bipolar
Lophotrichate
Monotrichate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lophotrichate
Q.
Certain viruses have been isolated in crytalline form and have been found to be_____________?
Phospholipids
Nucleoproteins
Scleroproteins
Nucleotides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleoproteins
Q.
Fungal infection of human beings is called as_____________?
Mucorsis
Micromia
Fungosis
Mycosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycosis
Q.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa_________________?
Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.
Produces heat stable enterotoxin
Causes Shangai fever
Does not produce any pigment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Causes Shangai fever
Q.
The world german measles is applied for_____________?
Rubeola
Herpetic ginglvostomatitis
Herpes simplex
Rubella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Which of the following provides best gurantee for sterlization in the heat sterilizer ?
Using chemical indicator strip or pouch
Determining the ability of a sterilizer to kill the hepatitis B virus
Using a bacterial spore test
Recording a temperature/ pressure readings from sterilizer guage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Using a bacterial spore test
Q.
Active artificial immunization is induced by the administration of all of the following EXCEPT______________?
Toxoids
Antitoxins
Vaccines
Bacterial products
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antitoxins
Q.
Plaque test is used routinely in virology lab
To prepare vaccines
Identification of viral disease
To maintain certain viral culture
To separate specific clone of virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Identification of viral disease
Q.
The commonest method of detection of diptheria carriers is_______________?
Casoni
Dick test
Schick test
Charles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Schick test
Q.
Most common tumor associated with AIDS is______________?
Kaposi
Melanoma
Ewing
Carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kaposi
Q.
Which of the following is a RNA virus ?
Measles virus
Adeno virus
Herpes Virus
Papavo virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
A 6 year old boy comes with abdominal pain, vomiting after consuming mild products within 6 hours. The most likely organism responsible is______________?
Salmonella
Clostridium botulinum
Staph. aureus
B.Cereus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staph. aureus
Q.
The medium of choice for growing most fungi is_______________?
Tissue culture
Thioglycollate medium
Blood agar
Sabouraud
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
Hydatid cyst is__________________?
Fungal
Viral
Parasitic in nature
Congenital
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parasitic in nature
Q.
Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called______________?
Opsonisation
CFT
Chemotaxis
De coding
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Opsonisation
Q.
The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is___________________?
2%
5%
15%
10%
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2%
Q.
Selective media for MYCOBACTERIUM _____________?
Loefflers serum slope
Lowenstein Jensen medium
Agar
Sabourauds medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lowenstein Jensen medium
Q.
A sporangium contains_______________?
porangiospores
Oidia
Chlamydospores
Spherules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: porangiospores
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria can be cultured in__________________?
Robertson cooked meat medium
Sabourauds agar
L-J medium
Loefflers medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robertson cooked meat medium
Q.
All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except________________?
Cysts are 4 nucleated
The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides
Cysts are 8 nucleated
Trophozoites colonise in the colon
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cysts are 8 nucleated
Q.
Gram -ve bacteria stain during gram staining____________?
Colorless
Blue color
Red color
Green
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Red color
Q.
The optimal time and temperature required for sterilization in an autoclave is___________________?
121
121
140
121
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 121
Q.
Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus ?
Focal epithelial hyperplasia
Keratoacanthoma
Condyloma acuminatum
Verruca vulgaris
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Keratoacanthoma
Q.
IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by______________?
Plasma cells
Lymphocytes
Activated macrophages
Platelet
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Activated macrophages
Q.
The major intestinal pathogens which are non-lactose fermenters are_________________?
Salmonella
Klebsiella
Paracolons
Escherichia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salmonella
Q.
Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by________________?
ELISA
Culture
Direct microscopy
DNA probe
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Culture
Q.
Which component of the cell wall is responsible________________?
Region I
Region III
Region II
Boivin antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Region III
Q.
In patients with asthma due to an allergic cause the serum levels of which immunoglobulin increase____________________?
IgD
IgM
IgE
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Which regards to temperature requirement, most pathogenic bacteria are_____________?
Psychrophiles
Cryophiles
Thermophiles
Mesophiles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mesophiles
Q.
Negative phase is seen in ________ immunity?
Local
Active
Herd
Passive
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active
Q.
Bacterial cell does not possess___________________?
Ribosome
Cell wall
dna
Mitochondria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mitochondria
Q.
Australian antigen is_______________?
None of the above
HBs AG
HB Ag
HBV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBs AG
Q.
Which does not have a viral etiology______________?
Carcinoma Cervix
Lymphoma
Hepatoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Endotoxins are produced by________________?
Fungi
Virus
Gram +ve bacteria
Gram -ve bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram -ve bacteria
Q.
EBV is responsible for all except______________?
Burkitt
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Infectious mononucleosis
Hepatoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Complement factor through which common pathway begins___________________?
C2
C5
Protein B
C3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C3
Q.
Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is___________________?
Brain
Liver
Spleen
Lungs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Liver
Q.
The time gap between appearance of Koplik
10 days
24 Hrs
2 weeks
3-4 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3-4 days
Q.
CD4 cells recognize the antigens in association with_____________?
MHC III
B-cell receptor
MHC II
MHC I
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: MHC II
Q.
Each of the following viruses possesses an outer lipoprotein envelope except_____________?
Varicella Zoster Virus
Influenza Virus
Human immunodeficiency virus
Papilloma Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma Virus
Q.
Mark true in following ?
None of the above
Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Q.
First released immunoglobulin after primary immunization_______________?
IgM
IgG
IgD
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is_________________?
Escherichia coli
Streptococcus fecalis
T-strain mycoplasma
Neisseria gonorrhea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Escherichia coli
Q.
Black water fever is caused by______________?
Leishmania donovani
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax
Microfilaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______________?
Comma
Banana
Dot
Sickle
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sickle
Q.
Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____________?
6 week
1 week
6 months
3 months
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 week
Q.
About Psedomonas. All are true except________________?
Most common organism is burn patient
Can grow in disinfectants in hospital
Strick aerobes
Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except_______________?
Through plasmids
Through bacteriophages
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____________?
6,8,11
3,10,19
Type 6,12,18
16,18,31
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 16,18,31
Q.
Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except_______________?
Tissue culture
Chemically defined media
Animals
Embryonated eggs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chemically defined media
Q.
Type of receptor present on T-cells are__________________?
Ig A
Ig G
CD4
Prostaglandins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4
Q.
All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_____________?
Chromatid bars
Eccentric nucleus
Refractile nucleus
Glycogen mass
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile nucleus
Q.
Leprosy bacilli can be grown in_________________?
Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Testes of albino rats
Tail of guinea pig
Testes of guinea pig
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Q.
Group A B-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the pharynx may be followed in some by_____________?
Syphilis
Rheumatic fever
Typhoid fever
Diphtheria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatic fever
Q.
Secretory Ig is_______________?
IgM
IgE
IgA
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Which of the following viruses does not infect salivary glands ?
Echo virus
Orthomyxovirus
HIV
Hepatitis C
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxovirus
Q.
Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following________________?
Sabin
Salk vaccine
Tetanus toxoid
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salk vaccine
Q.
True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by_______________?
cats
Dogs
Rats
Cow
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cats
Q.
Candidal hyphae can be stained using_______________?
Masson Trichrome stain
Van Gieson
Toluidine blue stain
Periodic acid schiff stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Periodic acid schiff stain
Q.
The prototype of Type II hypersensitivity reaction is__________________?
SLE
Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Contact dermatitis
Arthus reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Q.
The earliest identifiable cells of T-Cell lineage during maturation are_______________?
CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
CD8+ Pro-T-Cells
CD8+ Pre-T-Cells
CD5+ Pre-T-Cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
Q.
Dengue virus belongs to______________?
Reoviridae
Togaviridae
Flavi virus
Rhabdoviridae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi virus
Q.
T cell matures in______________?
Thymus
Payers patch
Busra of Fabricius
Lymph node
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thymus
Q.
The presence of Which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility ?
Lipids
Enzymes
Protein coat
Polysaccharide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein coat
Q.
Wasserman test test is diagnostic of__________________?
Gonorrhea
TB
Tyhoid
Syphilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Glasswares are sterilised by______________?
Autoclaving
Formaldehyde
Incineration
Hot air oven
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by which of the following_____________?
All of the above
Cidex
Ethanol
Boiling
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affets_______________?
Red blood cells
Fibroblasts
Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Mast cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Q.
Which of the following enzyme is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot pathogenic staphylococci_____________?
S protein
Lysozyme
Fibrinolysin
Coagulase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coagulase
Q.
Secondary response is mediated by_______________?
IgG
IgE
IgA
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Bacterial species which is protective or beneficial to the host is_______________?
Spirochetes
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Streptococcus sanguis
Treponema denticola
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus sanguis
Q.
Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve________________?
Caecum and large intestine
Duodenum
Jejunum and Ileum
Stomach
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caecum and large intestine
Q.
A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents________________?
Auto
Allo
Xeno
ISO
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Allo
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical mycobacteria by______________?
Pas staining
None of the above
Niacin test
AFB staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Niacin test
Q.
The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by____________?
Translation
Transduction
Conjugation
Cell fusion
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
Sterilisation control for moist heat is
Using chemical indicator
Using methylene blue
using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Using non-pathogenic strain of clostridium tetani
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Q.
Complement binding immunoglobin via the classical pathway is_______________?
IgG & igM
IgD & IgE
IgG & IgD
IgG & IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG & igM
Q.
Commonest mycobacterial infection in tropical countries_______________?
M. avium intracellulare
Kansasi
M. leprae
M. tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. tuberculosis
Q.
Sterilisation is______________?
Pathogens killed but spores are not affected
Only pathogenic micro-organisms killed
All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Non-pathogenic killed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Q.
Killer and Helper cells are part of_______________?
T cells
Macrophage
Monocytes
B cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T cells
Q.
Bacteriophage was discovered by_________________?
Twort and d
Menkin
Robert koch
Metchinkoff
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Twort and d
Q.
Growth factor needed for Salmonella_________________?
B-12
Niacin
Tryptophan
Citrate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Tryptophan
Q.
Louis Pasteur is not associated with_______________?
Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Discovery of Rabies Vaccine
Disproved spontaneous regression theory
Introduction of complex media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Q.
Synthesis of antibodies in plasma cells occurs in_________________?
Endoplasmic reticulum
Nucleus
Mitochondria
Golgi body
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.
Leishmania is cultured in ________________ media?
Tellurite
NNN
Sabourauds
Chocolate agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NNN
Q.
Purpose of Sterilization is to eliminate________________?
Fungus
Spore formers
Bacteria
Viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spore formers
Q.
The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to_____________?
Remove microbes
Inhibit microbial growth
Dehydrate microbial cells
Kill mircobes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Remove microbes
Q.
The only virus, which has double stranded RNA, is______________?
Reo virus
Rhabdo virus
Calci virus
Bunya virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reo virus
Q.
Culture media of candida is_________________?
All of the above
Pingolevin
Saboraud
Methylene blue dextrose agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saboraud
Q.
L.D bodies are seen in_______________?
Toxoplasmosis
Malaria
Sleeping sickness
Kalahazar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kalahazar
Q.
Schuffner
Plasmodium malariae
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium vivax
Q.
Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus infection during window period ?
Anti HBs
None of the above
IgM anti
HBs Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM anti
Q.
Delhi boil refer to_______________?
Venereal ulcer
Malignant pustule
L. Tropica sore
Solar Keratosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: L. Tropica sore
Q.
Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except________________?
Failure to thrive
Have infections
50% chances to have AIDS
All are true
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 50% chances to have AIDS
Q.
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to_______________?
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
Histiocytes
Monocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T lymphocytes
Q.
The cell wall deficient bacteria_______________?
Mycoplasma
Ehrlichiae
Rickettsiae
Chlamydiae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycoplasma
Q.
Pasteur developed the vaccine for_______________?
Cholera
Rabies
Anthrax
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Borrelia vincenti is always associated with______________?
None of the above
Treponema vincenti
Fusiform bacilli
Spirochaetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fusiform bacilli
Q.
The Manufacturing unit of surgical needle & sutures are sterilized by ________________?
X-Rays
Boiling
Gamma-Rays
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma-Rays
Q.
Glutaraldehyde is preferred more than formaldehyde because______________?
It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
It has got more bacteriostatic activity
It has got more bactericidal activity
Its application is easier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Q.
The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is_____________?
Robertoson
Chocolate agar
Chorio allantoic membrane
Sabourad
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chorio allantoic membrane
Q.
Rh incompatibility is which type of hyper sensitivity reaction ?
Type IV
Type III
Type I
Type II
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Silver impregnation method of staining is useful to demonstrate_____________?
Spirochetes
Both of the above
Bacterial flagella
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both of the above
Q.
Which of the following would you consider to be general properties of viruses______________?
Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Contain DNA but no RNA
Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids
New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Q.
Dematophytes are fungi infecting________________?
Nails, hair and skin
Subcutaneous tissue
Superficial skin and deep tissue
Systemic organs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nails, hair and skin
Q.
Chlamydia causes all of the following except________________?
Pneumonia
Non-gonococcal urethritis
Parotitis
Trachoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parotitis
Q.
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (SSS syndrome) is due to______________?
Enterotoxin A
Enterotoxin D
Enterotoxin F
Enterotoxin B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterotoxin F
Q.
Leprosy bacilli are transmitted from person to person by all except______________?
Through breast milk
Dischange from nasal mucosa
From open sore
Through intact skin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Through breast milk
Q.
ASO (Antistreptolysin 0) test is uesd for the diagnosis of________________?
Rickettsial fever
Typhoid fever
Rheumatie fever
Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatie fever
Q.
Actinomycetes is______________?
Gram negative bacteria
A yeast like form
Gram positive bacteria
Fungus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is_____________?
Blue stain
Ninhydrin stain
Haemotoxin stain
Eosin stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ninhydrin stain
Q.
Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by_____________?
Virus
Bacteria
Bacteria superadded on virus
Parasite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
The term animalcules to oral microorganisms is given by__________________?
Leumenhoek
Robertson
Socranci
Wd miller
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leumenhoek
Q.
Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly_______________?
Nasal mucosa
Gastrointestinal tract
Skin
Lung
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gastrointestinal tract
Q.
Phospholipid used to investigate syphilis by the reagin test is________________?
Palmityl lecithin
Plasminogen
Serine
Cardiolipin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiolipin
Q.
Cleavage of IgG molecule by Papin gives rise to:One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments_______________?
Two Fc fragments and two Fab fragments
One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Two Fc fragment and one Fab fragment
One Fc fragment and four Fab fragments
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Q.
Following reaction are produced by heterophil antigens except_____________?
Forssman antigen antibody reaction
Paul bunnel reaction
Widal reaction
Weil-Felix reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal reaction
Q.
The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______________?
IgD
IgG
IgA
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV irradiation_______________?
Carbohydrates
Nucleic acids
Lipids
Inorganic salts
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleic acids
Q.
Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by________________?
Dextran
Epithelial cells
Bacteria
Sucrose
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dextran
Q.
The anaphylaxis should be treated first with_____________?
Epinephrine
Antibiotics
Anti histamines
Steroids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epinephrine
Q.
Dorset
Gonococcus
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Mycobacterium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best demonstrated by_________________?
Gram
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
H & E stain
PAS stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Q.
The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is______________?
Borrelia burgdorferi
Treponema pallidum
Treponjema pertenue
Borrelia vincenti
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti
Q.
Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is ________________?
Aspergillus
Rhizopus
Mucor
Penicillium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus
Q.
Best method of sterilizing disposable syringes_______________?
U.V. rays
Boiling
Hot air oven
Gamma rays
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma rays
Q.
Anaphylaxis refers to the________________?
Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens
Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions
State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________________?
Basidiomycetes yeast
Causes meningitis
Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Melanin production related to virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Q.
The Process of attenuation can be achieved by all except___________________?
Growing bacteria in adverse environment
Serial passage in an experimental host
Repeated cultures in artificial media
Growing bacteria in unconventional host
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serial passage in an experimental host
Q.
Probiotic organism used_________________?
Salmonella
Bifido bacteria
E coli
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bifido bacteria
Q.
Staphylococcus does not causes_______________?
Pneumonia
Scarlet fever
Osteomyelitis
Abscess
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Scarlet fever
Q.
Oil and Grease are sterilized by________________?
Auto claving
Ethylene dioxide
Hot air oven
Irradiation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Most sensitive test for antigen detection is_______________?
ELISA
Passive hemaglutination
Immunoflourescence
Radioimmuno Assay
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Radioimmuno Assay
Q.
Antigen combining site of the antibody is____________________?
Epitope
Hapten
Idiotope
Paratope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Paratope
Q.
The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______________?
Vasculitis
Induration
Necrosis
Erythema
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythema
Q.
The most common site where organisms are present in a typhoid carrier is______________?
Liver
Spleen
Salivary gland
Gall Bladder
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gall Bladder
Q.
Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause foetal defect ?
Mumps
Herpes Simplex
Rubella
Papilloma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Babu, a 28 year old male comes with compaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by____________?
Western blot
ELISA
Lymph node biopsy
P24 antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: P24 antigen
Q.
The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is ________________?
exotoxin production
hypersensitivity
lecithinase production
Coagulase production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: hypersensitivity
Q.
In T.B cell mediated immunity is by_______________?
CD 4*
CD 8*
B
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD 4*
Q.
Australia antigen is associated with________________?
Basal cell carcinoma
Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
AIDS
Chronic leukemia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Q.
Incubation pariod of herpes zoster is________________?
1 months
7-14 days
3-6 months
1-2 years
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 7-14 days
Q.
Salmonella typhi can be isolated at different times from______________?
Feaces
Blood
Urine
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which of the following antibacterial substance is present in eggs and saliva ?
Lysozyme
Secretozyme
Albumin
Isozyme
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysozyme
Q.
Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection_________________?
Giardia lambella
Balantidium coli
Taenia solium
Isopora belli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Taenia solium
Q.
Electron microscopic examination of the bacterial flora of necrotising ulcerative gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are______________?
Bacteriophages
Filamentous rods
Spirochetes
Cocci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
The most frequently encountered clostridial species in gas gangrene is______________?
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium welchii
Clostridium tetani
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Q fever is caused by________________?
R. prowozekii
C. burnetti
R. quintana
Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C. burnetti
Q.
Mesophilic organisms are those that grow best at temperature of______________?
55
25
-20
-7
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 25
Q.
An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry cough, sputum culture showed growth on charcoal yeast Extract Medium, theorganism is______________?
H. influenza
Burkholderia cepacia
Moraxella catarrhalis
Legionella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Legionella
Q.
Techoic acid is present in_____________?
Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram negative organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram positive organisms
Cell wall of Gram negative organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Q.
Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?
Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously
The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission
Causes positive Nagler reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Q.
Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by_________________?
Fish tapeworm
Dog tapeworm
Hookworm
Threadworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fish tapeworm
Q.
Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?
Prions
Coccidia
Mycobacteria
Spore
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prions
Q.
Blood agar is________________?
Differential media
Simple media
Enriched media
Transport media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enriched media
Q.
Signs of tyhoid fever is/are_____________________?
All of the above
Haemorrhage
Osteomyelitis
perforation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by ___________________?
Cryptococcus
Aspergillus
Candida albicans
Mucor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction______________?
Staphylococcus
Haemophilus
E.coli
Proteus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?
Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity
Immediately wash wound with soap and water
Give ARV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Q.
One of the following is a zoonotic disease_____________?
Bacillary dysentery
Cholera
Typhoid
Anthrax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anthrax
Q.
Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of______________?
Gas gangrene
Malaria
Wool sorters disease
Whooping cough
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gas gangrene
Q.
Which of the following is a live vaccine_____________?
Salk
HDCV
Hepatitis
17 D
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HDCV
Q.
The function of IgD is______________?
Compliment activation
Antigen recognition by B cells
Localization protection in external secretion
Reagin activity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antigen recognition by B cells
Q.
The following statement is true regarding fungal infection__________________?
albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals
Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man
Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal
Candida infection is usually endogenous
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida infection is usually endogenous
Q.
One of the following staining methods is an example of negative staining_______________?
Zheil-Neilson
India ink preparation
Fontana
Gram
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
All are true about widel test except________________________?
High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative
H antigen cannot differentiate between subtypes
O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Base lines differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Q.
The virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhea include all of the following except____________?
Outer membrane proteins
IgA Protease
Pili
M-Proteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M-Proteins
Q.
Characteristic feature of retrovirus is_____________?
Reverse transcriptase
DNA polymerase
Restriction endonuclease
Ribonuclease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reverse transcriptase
Q.
Serum sickness syndrome is an example of________________?
Anaphylactic
Systemic arthus reaction
Angioneurotic edema
Cell-mediated immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Systemic arthus reaction
Q.
The Window period in HIV infection means______________?
The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS
The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
None of the above
The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
Q.
Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to________________?
reduce the toxigenicity
Increase antigenicity
Reduce the antigenicity
Increase toxigenicity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increase antigenicity
Q.
Which of the following is true about amoebic liver disease ?
Left lobe of liver is commonly involved
Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Non-suppurative form is the serious form of extra intestinal amoebiasis
Portal system is the main filtration system
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Q.
Teichoic acid is present in cell walls of_________________?
Gram positive bacteria
Protozoa
Gram negative bacteria
Yeast
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Grave
Type IV
Type III
Type II
Type I
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Madura mycosis produces______________?
Red granules
Brown to black granules
No granules
White to yellow granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: White to yellow granules
Q.
A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?
Brucella spp
Bartonella spp
Francisella spp
Pasturella spp
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Brucella spp
Q.
Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a_______________?
Western Blot
RIPA
Immunodot
ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Western Blot
Q.
Rabies virus________________?
Cytotropic
Dermatotropic
Chromophilic
Neurotropic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neurotropic
Q.
Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is_______________?
IgE
IgG
IgA
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
B.C.G untrue is_____________?
Orally administered
All of the above
T.B vaccine
live vaccine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orally administered
Q.
In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a_______________?
Super antigen
Toxin
Carrier
Hapten
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hapten
Q.
Thread worm is______________?
Ascaris
Necator
Ancylostoma
Enterobius
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterobius
Q.
Endotoxin have all but one of the properties given below_______________?
Cannot be toxoided
Produced by gram positive bacteria
Not secreted outside the cell
Produced by gram negative bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Produced by gram positive bacteria
Q.
The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is___________?
The catalase test
Detection of coagulase
Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes
Mannitol fermentation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Detection of coagulase
Q.
Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus is due to ________________________?
Pleomorphism
Lack of nucleic acid in the cell wall
Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Penicillin analogue production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Q.
Influenza is caused by_____________?
Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Q.
Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is_________________?
2:1
1:3
3:1
1:2
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2:1
Q.
On a stained slide, clostridium tetani has the appearance of a__________________?
Bunch of a
Drum stick
Safely pin
Chain of beads
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Drum stick
Q.
Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine ?
Typhoid
Varicella Zoster virus
Cholera
Tuberculosis (BCG)
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cholera
Q.
which of the following is anaerobic_______________?
Bacteroides
Pseudomonas
Klebsiella
E.coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacteroides
Q.
Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstratig________________?
Cysts in the sterile pus
Cysts in the intestine
Trophozoites in the feces
Trophozoites in the pus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites in the pus
Q.
The urine sample of a patient has been sent to the laboratory to look for Leptospira. The specimen is to be screened by use of the__________________?
Electron microscope
Inverted microscope
Scanning microscope
Dark ground microscope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dark ground microscope
Q.
Function of Ig A is________________?
Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Circulating antibody
Activates macrophages
Kills virus infected cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Q.
Aflatoxins are produced by________________?
Aspergillus fumigatus
Aspergillus flavus
All of the above
Aspergillus niger
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus flavus
Q.
The chemotactic factor is______________?
C5a
C2a
C4a
C3b
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C5a
Q.
Characters of exotoxin include all, except_______________?
Has specific tissue affinity
Protein polysaccharide complex
Heat labile
Highly potent
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein polysaccharide complex
Q.
Leptospirosis, all are true except______________?
It is sensitive to penicillin
Onset of IgM in 2 days
Faeces & urine of rodents is the cause
Incubation period is 10 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Onset of IgM in 2 days
Q.
Which of the following belongs to cell fraction derived vaccine______________?
Hepatitis B
Mumps
Measles
Rubella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B
Q.
The killer cells are associated with immunologic response___________________?
Type III
Type IV
Type I
Type II
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
The term epitope refers to________________?
Hapten
complete antigen molecule
Immunogen
Smallest antigenic determinant
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Smallest antigenic determinant
Q.
Drumstick appearance is seen in______________?
Cl. tetani
Cl. tetanomorphum
All of the above
Cl. sphenoids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. tetani
Q.
The commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercie bacilli________________?
Thioglavin
Acridine orange
Auramine and Rhodamine
Congo red
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine and Rhodamine
Q.
Common name for Trichuris trichura________________?
Whip worm
Tape worm
Round worm
Seat woman
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Whip worm
Q.
Herpes virus_____________?
Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane
Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Q.
The specific test for Treponema pallidum is___________?