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TOP Microbiology MCQS Questions
Q.
Bacterial spores are destroyed by_______________?
Autoclave
Disinfection by hypochlorite solution
Pasteurisation
Boiling at 100
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The interaction of antigens with antibodies on the surface of a mast cel leads to degranulation and anaphylaxis. The mast cell granules produce anaphylaxis because they contain________________?
Vasoactive mediators
Lysosomes
Proteolytic enzymes
Lymphotoxins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vasoactive mediators
Q.
Bacteria with potent exotoxin is_______________?
Shigella
Clostridium tetani
Klebsiella
Pseudomonas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani
Q.
True about prions________________?
Viruses which are genetically deficient
Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective
Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Q.
The best skin disinfectant is________________?
Savlon
None of the above
Alcohol
Chlorhexdine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chlorhexdine
Q.
Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates_____________?
Simple carriers
Carrier status
Late convalescence
High infectivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: High infectivity
Q.
The facultative anaerobic bacteria are those who are_______________?
Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Unable to grow in the absence of oxygen
Able to grow in the presence of carbon dioxide
Unable to grow in the presence of oxygen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Q.
A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium malaria
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Erysipelas is caused by________________?
Group B staphylococci
Group A steptococci
Gonococci
Pneumococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B staphylococci
Q.
True about immune response of hepatitis B is__________________?
CMI disappears soon after recover
Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Antibody to HBC is not protective
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Q.
Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria______________?
Lowenstein Jensen Medium
Loefflers serum slope
Saborauds agar
Mc Conkey
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Loefflers serum slope
Q.
A full course of immunization agianst. Telanus with 3 doses to Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how many years ?
5
20
15
10
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 10
Q.
Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?
ELISA followed by western blot technique
Western blot followed by ELISA
Polymers chain reaction
Virus isolation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA followed by western blot technique
Q.
Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-5m in size, multi-septate, chestnut, brown color is characteristic of________________?
Phaeohypomycosis
Chromoblastomycosis
Rhinosporodiosis
Histoplasmosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chromoblastomycosis
Q.
The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell
Haemagglutination test
Haemagglutination inhibition test
Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Q.
An oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod which produces a bluish-green pigment has been grown in culture from a swab obtained from an infected burn wound. This organism is susceptible to gentamicin, ticarcillin and tobramicin, but resistant to all the other antibiotics which of the following organisms is it likely to be ?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Klebsiella pnemoniae
Escherichia coli
Proteus miribilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q.
Exaltation is________________?
Increased Virulence
Decreased virulence
No change
None
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increased Virulence
Q.
Which of the following is not true of boiling water_____________?
It can kill hepatitis B virus
Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis
Can kill vegetative bacterial cells
Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Q.
The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is_______________?
IgA
IgG
IgD
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Germ tubes are formed mainly by_______________?
Candida albicans
Candida stellatoidea
Candida tropicalis
Candida pseudotropicalls
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
The best method of sterilization of dressing powder is_____________?
Autoclaving
Inspissation
Tyndallization
Hot air oven
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with______________?
IgA antibodies
IgM antibodies
Lysozyme
Mast cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA antibodies
Q.
Loss of capsule in bacteria is generally associated with______________?
Loss of infectivity
increase in invasiveness
Inability to spread through tissue
Decease in virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Decease in virulence
Q.
Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify______________?
Rickettsiae
Chlamydiae
Spirochaetes
Mycoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochaetes
Q.
Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_____________?
Aspergilosis
Candidiasis
Tuberculosis
Cryptococcosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candidiasis
Q.
Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans_________________?
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Hot air oven is used for sterilization of all EXCEPT__________________?
Rubber tubes
Glassware
Sharp instrument
Liquid paraffin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubber tubes
Q.
Which worm is longest________________?
T. Solium
T. Saginata
Hook worm
A. Lumbricoides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T. Saginata
Q.
Malignant pustule is referred to_________________?
None of the above
Infected squamous cell carcinoma
Facio-cervical actinomycosis
Cutaneous anthrax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cutaneous anthrax
Q.
In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started________________?
Herpes
Poliomyelitis
Influenza
Rabies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabies
Q.
True about VDRL test________________?
All of the above
Slide flocculation test
Best followed for drug therapy
Non
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is_____________?
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis A virus
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis E virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
Lancefields classification of B hemolytic streptococcus is based on______________?
Physiological properties
Polysaccharide C antigen
Type of lipid in cell membrane
M Protein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Polysaccharide C antigen
Q.
Virulence of Gonococcus is due to___________________?
Pili
Cell Membrane
Its intracellular location
Cytolytic enzymes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
Which of the following fulfil all the criterias of kich
Mycobacterium leprae
None of the above
N. gonorrhoeae
Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: None of the above
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria grow_______________?
in the absence of oxygen
in the presence of oxygen
in the presence of nitrogen
differential media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in the absence of oxygen
Q.
Which of the following is an acid-fast bacillus_____________?
Mycobacterium bacilli
All of the above
Neisseria gonorrhea
Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium bacilli
Q.
Which of the following is obligate aerobe ?
Proteus
diphtheria
Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Q.
Malaria pigment is________________?
Bilurubin
Haemoglobin
Iron
Haematin-globin pigment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haematin-globin pigment
Q.
The key cell types involved in the acquired immunity include all EXCEPT________________?
T lymphocytes
Erythrocytes
B lymphocytes
Antigen presenting cells (APC
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythrocytes
Q.
Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor_____________?
Carbohydrate cell wall
Streptolysin 0
M protein
Pyrogenic exotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pyrogenic exotoxin
Q.
The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as_____________?
Epitope
Paratope
Idiotope
Clone
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epitope
Q.
Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose_______________?
Contact dermatitis
Serum sickness
Anaphylaxis
Arthus reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Immunoglobulin consists of________________?
2 light, 2 heavy chains
1 heavy, 2 light chains
3 light, 1 heavy chain
1 light, 1 heavy chain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2 light, 2 heavy chains
Q.
Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in________________?
Artificial media
Chick embryos
Rabbit testis only
Tissue culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabbit testis only
Q.
Which of the following characteristics of bacteria is not true?
Free living
Unicellular
Cell wall containing muramic acid
Having either DNA or RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Having either DNA or RNA
Q.
A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT________________?
Vancomycin
Teichoplanin
Imipenem
Linezolid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Imipenem
Q.
The overall effect of HIV is to gradually impair the immune system by interference with______________?
Macrophages
Helper T lymphocytes
Natural killer cells
Plasma cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes
Q.
Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?
Surface antigen
Core antibody
Surface antibody
Core antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Surface antigen
Q.
Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies_____________?
Measles
Rabies
Chicken pox
Small pox
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles
Q.
Prozone phenomenon is due to______________?
Excess antigen
Hyper immune reaction
Disproportionate antigen antibody levels
Excess antibody
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Excess antibody
Q.
Actinomycosis is a_________________?
Aerobic bacterial disease
Anaerobic fungal disease
Aerobic fungal disease
Anaerobic bacterial disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic bacterial disease
Q.
HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except________________?
Needle prick injury
Blood transmission
Saliva
Sexual intercourse
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saliva
Q.
Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_______________?
Complex multiplication
Simple structure
Presence of either DNA or RNA
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
False +ve for VDRL is seen in______________?
All of the above
Lepromatous Leprosy
Yaws
Malaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Most fungi of medical importance belongs to__________________?
Zygomycetes
Ascomycetes
Basidiomycetes
Deuteromycetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deuteromycetes
Q.
Most of the drug resistances occurs due to_____________?
conjugation
Mutation
Transformation
Transduction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: conjugation
Q.
The bacterial cell wall has all of the following properties except______________?
It consists of a mixed polymer called peptidoglycon
It is a unique flexible plastic structure
It contains D-isomers of amino acids
It is the structure principally responsible for the reaction of gram staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It is a unique flexible plastic structure
Q.
The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is_____________?
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Apthous stomatitis
Herpetic gingivostomatitis
Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Q.
Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in which of the following viruses_____________?
Hepatitis B virus
HIV
Pox virus
Measles virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is______________?
Hemophilia ducreya
Donovania granulomatis
Bartonella henselae
Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bartonella henselae
Q.
Which of the following is not a feature of anaphylaxis ?
None of the above
Delayed reaction
passive transfer by serum
Immediate reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Delayed reaction
Q.
DNA covering material in a virus is called as________________?
Capsid
Nucleocapsid
Capsomere
Envelope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Capsid
Q.
ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______________?
More sensitive, more specific
More sensitive, less specific
Less sensitive, more specific
Less sensitive less specific
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: More sensitive, less specific
Q.
Who first introduced solid media_______________?
Hensen
Robert koch
Louis pasteur
Ogston
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robert koch
Q.
cAMP reaction is shown by which streptococci ?
Group C
Group D
Group A
Group B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B
Q.
Widal test is specific for____________?
Pemhigoid
Plague
Leprosy
Typhoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid
Q.
Which of the following is not a koch
The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue
Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the experimental animals
Pure cultures can be obtained
When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Q.
All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_________________?
histolytica
gingivalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: gingivalis
Q.
When horse serum is injected intravenoulsy in to a rabbit and again in to the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs as the site of the second injection________________?
Serum sickness
Anaphylaxis
Atopy
Arthus phenomenon
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus phenomenon
Q.
Fimbriae are demonstrated by ___________________?
Biochemical reaction
Haemagglutination test
Culture
Gram stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haemagglutination test
Q.
The following is not true of Candida albicans______________?
Yeast like fungus
Forms Chlamydospores
Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them
Blastomeres seen in isolates
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blastomeres seen in isolates
Q.
The temperature required for cultivating mycobacterium________________?
0 degree
2 degree
27 degrees
37 degrees
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 37 degrees
Q.
All are true about bordetella pertussis except______________?
It may occur in children and young adult after vaccination
Most common cause is B. Petrussis
Bacteria culture from nasopharyngeal swab is the definitive diagnosis
Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Q.
Causative organism of Kalahazar is_______________?
Entamoeba histolytica
Plasmodium ovaie
Leishman donovani
Toxoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leishman donovani
Q.
Interferon interferes with replication of virus at the time of_____________?
When virus enters the cell
DNA/RNA replication
Protein synthesis
Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein synthesis
Q.
Rideal Walker test is used to determine the efficiency of the_____________?
Disinfectant
Moist heat sterilisation
Dry heat sterilization
Antibiotics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Disinfectant
Q.
The difference between sterilization and disinfection is that_______________?
Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Sterilization involves chemicals and disinfection involves physical methods
Sterilization is easier to achieve
Disinfection kills all spores but sterilization does not
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Q.
The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is_______________?
Transformation
Conjugation
Lysogeny
Translation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysogeny
Q.
For uniform staining reaction, morphology and biochemical activity it is advisable to study bacterial cultures during the_____________?
Stationary phase
Lag phase
Death phase
Logarithmic phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Logarithmic phase
Q.
The structure in involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface is_______________?
Flagella
None of the above
Capsule
Fimbria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fimbria
Q.
Vibrio cholera was discovered by_________________?
Virchow
John snow
Koch
Medintoff
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Koch
Q.
Noguchi
Borrelia
None of the above
Brucella
Bordetella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia
Q.
Donovanosis, true is___________________?
Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic
Characterized by painful genital ulcers
Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Penicillin is drug of choice
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Q.
Which of the following statement about P24 antigen of HIV is Not True ?
Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:
Virus load parallel P24 titre
It remains during asymptomatic phase
It can be detected during the window period
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It remains during asymptomatic phase
Q.
A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?
Isograft
Allograft
Xenograft
Autograft
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Isograft
Q.
In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_______________?
Sporozoite
Merozoite
Hypnozoite
Gametocyte
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sporozoite
Q.
Virus infected cell is killed by________________?
Macrophages
Autolysis
Neutrophils
Interferons
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Interferons
Q.
In small intestine, cholera toxin acts by______________?
ADP
Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
Active absorption of NaCI
Activation of GTPase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ADP
Q.
Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by_____________?
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus viridans
Nisseria
Haemolytic streptococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus viridans
Q.
Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by______________?
Inspissation
Autoclaving
Hot air oven
UV-Radiation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Candida is most often implicated in causation___________________?
Tenea capitis
Desert rheumatism
Conjunctivitis
Thrush
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thrush
Q.
Diphtheria is pathogenic only when infected with______________?
Delta Phage
Beta phage
Lambda K12
Alfa phage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Beta phage
Q.
The antigen used in Weil Felix test is obtained from________________?
Proteus
coli
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to______________?
NK
CD8 T-cells
B
CD4 T-cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4 T-cells
Q.
Actinomycosis is caused by______________?
Acid fast, non-motile bacillus
Retrovirus
Fungus
Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Q.
The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route________________?
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis D virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______________?
ELISA IS
PCR is
Western Blot is
Both are
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both are
Q.
Lepromin test is useful for________________?
Treatment plan
Diagnosis
Epidemiology
Prognosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prognosis
Q.
Staphylococci typically occur in_________________?
Irregular clusters
Tetrads
Pairs
Chains
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Irregular clusters
Q.
The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the________________?
CL domian
CH1 domian
CH2 domian
VL domian
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CH2 domian
Q.
Multiple drug resistance of bacteria depends on which of the following_______________?
Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Fertility factor (F+)
Colicigenic factor (Col)
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Q.
Immunity that is conferred to the foetus by transfer of IgG and IgA antibodies is called as______________?
Passive natural immunity
Natural active immunity
Active acquired immunity
Passive acquired immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Passive natural immunity
Q.
Viron is defined as______________?
Extracellular infectious virus particle
None of the above
Smallest virus
A smallest particle similar to virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Extracellular infectious virus particle
Q.
Cough plate method is used to identify________________?
M-Tuberculosis
Y. pestis
Mycoplasma
Pertussis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pertussis
Q.
Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functional of the cell______________?
nucleus
Capsule
wall
membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: membrane
Q.
A dentist suffred from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is_____________?
Convalscent carrier
Paradoxical carrier
Inactive carrier
Healthy carrier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Convalscent carrier
Q.
Sunlight acts as sterilizing agent because_________________?
Heat
short wave lenght
Ozone
Long wavelength
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: short wave lenght
Q.
Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in______________?
4 weeks
2 weeks
9 weeks
12 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4 weeks
Q.
What is the sequence which a retro virus follows on entering a host cell ?
DNA-RNA
DNA-RNA-DNA
RNA-DNA
RNA -DNA-RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: RNA -DNA-RNA
Q.
Nagglers reaction detects________________?
Coagulase
Hyaluronidase
None of the above
Lecithinase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Man is the only reservoir for_______________?
Camphylobacter jejuni
histolytica
Y. enterocolitica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: histolytica
Q.
Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_________________?
Theta toxin
Lecithinase
Desmolase
Cytokinin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except___________________?
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through bacteriophages
Though plasmids
through conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is__________________?
Hepatitis vaccination
Gamma globulin injection
Placental transfer of antibodies
Immune blood transfusion
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Placental transfer of antibodies
Q.
All are true about legionella pneumophilia except______________?
Urine test is a reliable method
Aquatic bodies are main habitat
It can replicate in amoeba
Person to person transmission
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Person to person transmission
Q.
Smith noguchi
Klebsiella
Bacillus
Salmonella
Spirochetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
Tyndallisation is carried out for________________?
One day
60 minutes
Two successive days
Three successive days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Three successive days
Q.
Prions true is____________?
Contains DNA/ RNA
Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Evokes strong immunogenic reaction
Sensitive to most chemical sterilization
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Q.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which of the following________________?
Active T cells
Plasma cells
B-cells
NK cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active T cells
Q.
All are oncogenic except________________?
Culex
Mansoni
Aedes
Anopheles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aedes
Q.
Which of the following viruses appears to be involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi
Human Herpes Virus 8
Human Herpes Virus 3
Human Herpes Virus 4
Human Herpes Virus 1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Human Herpes Virus 4
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Vincent
Caused by leptospira interrogans
A symbiotic infection
Ulcerative gingivostomatitis
Caused due to malnutrition
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by leptospira interrogans
Q.
Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores can be achieved with_______________?
Peri-iodic Acid Schiff
Grocott Gomori Methenamine silver
KOH wet mount
Hematoxylin and Eosin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: KOH wet mount
Q.
The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum ?
IgG4
IgG2
IgG1
IgG3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG1
Q.
Cytopathic effect is shown by_____________?
Virus
Spirochete
Anaerobe
Bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
Methods for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infection________________?
All of the above
Wood light examination
KOH staining
Microscopic examination of skin scrapings
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Culture medium used for Bordatella pertussis is_________________?
Wilson Blair medium
Robertson cooked meat medium
Bordet Gengou medium
Bile broth
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bordet Gengou medium
Q.
Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_____________________?
in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
no antibodies are present in primary HSV
only after one year
antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
Q.
Graft versus host reaction is caused by_________________?
T-lymphocytes
Monocytes
B-Lymphocytes
Leukocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T-lymphocytes
Q.
Black pigmented anaerobes include all of the following except______________?
Tannerella
Prevotella
Porphyromonas
Buccae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Buccae
Q.
A protoplast is best characterized as a bacterial cell______________?
Uniquely sensitive to penicillin
containing a cell wall and a capsule
Free of a cell wall and a capsule
with a cell wall but free of a capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Q.
Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes______________?
NK Cells
Cytotoxic T cells
B cells
Memory B cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NK Cells
Q.
Grape bunch shaped colonies are seen in______________?
Gonococci
Staphylococcus
E.coli
Streptococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staphylococcus
Q.
The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is_______________?
Hepatitis
Parvo virus
EB virus
Adeno
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parvo virus
Q.
Most antibodies are produced in the________________?
Heart and the liver
Brain and the meninges
Thymus and the appendix
Spleen and the lymph nodes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spleen and the lymph nodes
Q.
Post streptococcal acute glomerulo nephritis is an example of________________?
Type II hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type III hypersensitivity
Q.
Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups ?
Hepadana viruses
Herpes viruses
Flavi viruses
Picorna viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi viruses
Q.
Phase contrast microscopy is based on principle of__________________?
Different reflective indices of object
Light attenuation
Light scattering
Different refractive indices of object
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Different refractive indices of object
Q.
The medium of choice for culturing yeast from of dimorphic fungi is_________________?
Brain
Any medium incubated at 35-37
Sabouraud
Sabouraud
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
The diagnosis of gonorrhea is established by_____________?
Compliment fixation tests
Haemagglutination tests
Pili agglutination tests
All of the above tests
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above tests
Q.
Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to______________?
Guinea worm
Hook worm
Ascaris
Thread worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hook worm
Q.
Candida albicans causes all of the following except______________?
Meningitis
Oral thrush
Endocarditis
Mycetoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycetoma
Q.
CD4 count in normal healthy adult is_______________?
200
300
1000
500
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1000
Q.
A darkfield microscope would be useful in examining blood for_______________?
Actinomyces
Mycobacterium
Streptococcus
Treponema
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema
Q.
Immunoglobulins ar secreted by______________?
Neutrophils
Plasma cells
T-cells
Macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasma cells
Q.
Haptane is_______________?
High molecular protein
Carrier required for specific antibody production
Same as epitopes
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Carrier required for specific antibody production
Q.
Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by______________?
IgM antibodies in serum
Isolation from bile
Isolation form stool
Culture from blood
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM antibodies in serum
Q.
VDRL is a________________?
Tube flocculation test
Latex agglutination test
Tube agglutination test
Slide flocculation test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Slide flocculation test
Q.
One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is____________?
Viral interference
Mutation
Permutation
Supervision
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Viral interference
Q.
The difference between gram positive and negative bacteria lies in their_______________?
cell wall
Mesosomes
Nuclear material
cell membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cell wall
Q.
The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are______________?
Gram positive organisms
Gram negative organisms
Mycoplasma
Virus infections
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram negative organisms
Q.
Endotoxins differ from exotoxins in that endotoxins______________?
are proteins
activate complement by the alternate pathway
are heat labile
are highly antigenic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: activate complement by the alternate pathway
Q.
The Dane particle is the______________?
Delta Virus
HBC Ag
IgG anti HAV
HBV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBV
Q.
Tuberculin test screens for_____________?
Complement function
Hemoral immunity
Cell mediated immunity
Phagocyte dysfunction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell mediated immunity
Q.
Endoscopes are sterilized by using_______________?
Gamma radiation
Boiling
Autoclaving
Cidex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Boiling
Q.
One of the following statement about statements about sterilization is not true_______________?
Flash pasteurization of milk ? 72
Liquid paraffin ? Dry heat
Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Glass syringes ? Boiling at 169
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Q.
Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?
Proteins
Adjuvant
Lipids
Polysaccharides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteins
Q.
IgG antibodies have a half-life of approximately_______________?
1 hour
1 Month
1 week
1 day
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 Month
Q.
Exotoxins are____________________?
Lipid-polysaccharide complex
Lipoprotein
None
Protein compound
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein compound
Q.
Following is a retrovirus_____________?
Immunodeficiency virus
Hepatitis virus
Polio virus
Influenza
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immunodeficiency virus
Q.
The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement_________________?
IgA
IgM
IgG
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
The reaginic antibody is________________?
IgG
IgA
IgD
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Kaposi
Above 600
Between 1000-2000
Below 200
Above 2000
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Below 200
Q.
All are not true for cultivation of anaerobic organisms except_______________?
Incubator
Refrigerator
anaerobic jar
Centrifuge
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: anaerobic jar
Q.
Each of the following can cause food poisoning except________________?
Staphylococcus
Cl. welchii
Cl. botulinum
Cl. difficile
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. difficile
Q.
Which of the following does not go into chronic hepatitis stage ?
HBV
HDV
HEV
HCV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HEV
Q.
Physical sterilization was discovered by__________________?
Joeph Lister
John Hunter
Alexander flemings
Robert Koch
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Joeph Lister
Q.
Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito______________?
Sporozoite
Gametocyte
Zygote
Merozoite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gametocyte
Q.
Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with_______________?
Ziel Nelson
Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Giemsa stain
Kin Young stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Q.
Which of the following are correctly matched ?
Injection of antibodies (Hepatitis) is artificially acquired passive immunity
Transfer of antibody from mother to child is through colostrum and acquired passive immunity naturally
All of the above
Antigenic stimulus given by vaccine (polio) is artificial active immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which is type II hypersensitivity ?
Anaphylaxis
Delayed hypersensitivity
Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Immune complex mediated
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Q.
By using phase contrast microscope_______________?
External capsule formation can be observed
Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Internal structures are differentiated in dead cells
Internal metabolic activities can be observed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Q.
One of the following is a treponemal test for diagnosis of syphilis_____________?
Widal test
Kahn test
Wasserman test
FTAB
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: FTAB
Q.
Which of the following have the capability to produce extra cellular polysaccharides______________?
Strep. pyogenes
Peptostreptococcus
Strep. Mutans
Enterococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strep. Mutans
Q.
Opportunistic infection is caused by___________________?
Penicillium
Aspergillus
Mucor
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The minimum time required for the sterilization of surgical instruments by moist heat at 134
30 minutes
15 minutes
60 minutes
3 minutes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3 minutes
Q.
Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti_________________?
Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Terminal nuclei absent
Body is slender and long
Causes filariasis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Q.
Granules in the corynebacterium diphtheria are called by following names, except______________?
Refractile granules
Voluntin granules
Metachromatic granules
Babes Ernst granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile granules
Q.
Neurotoxin of tetanus acts on______________?
Spinal card
Synapse
Muscle
Brain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spinal card
Q.
Sporulation occurs in__________________?
Lag phase
Stationary phase
Log phase
Decline phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
True about HIV are all except______________?
Attacks CD4 cells
Decrease CD4 count in late stages
DNA virus
Macrophages are the reservoir
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: DNA virus
Q.
IgG has subclasses_______________?
4
1
2
3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4
Q.
Anti HBsAB indicates______________?
Resistance to hepatitis B
Good prognosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Acute infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Good prognosis
Q.
Causative agents of Vincent
Borrelia burgoloferi and lactobacillus
Leptospira and Treponema pallidum
Borrelia recurrents and bateroides
Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Q.
Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______________?
Contact dermatitis
Atopic allergy
Serum sickness
Transfusion reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is________________?
Indirect hemagglutination
Microscopy
ELISA
Counter immune electroporesis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA
Q.
Test for differentiating virulent form non-virulent tubercular bacilli_____________?
Aryl sulphatase test
Niacin test
Catalase peroxidase test
Neutral red test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neutral red test
Q.
Rickettsiae__________________?
Respond to tetracycline therapy
All of the above
Multiply within living cell
Transmitted by arthropod vectors
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Virus is cultured in_______________?
Saubourd
Embryonated egg
Rogosa medium
Nonembryonated egg
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Embryonated egg
Q.
Disinfection frees the surface from______________?
None of the above
Both of the above
Spore forms
Vegetative forms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vegetative forms
Q.
Human immunoglobulins are divided based on_____________?
Functional differences
Structural differences
Complemented fixation
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Structural differences
Q.
Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to__________________?
Endotoxin
Capsule
Invasion
Exotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Exotoxin
Q.
Chemotactic cytokine is_________________?
IL-6
IL-1
TNF
IL-8
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IL-8
Q.
The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in vivo from one bacterium to another by_____________?
Conjugation
Transformation
Rarefaction
Transduction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
The culture media for fungus is__________________?
Tellurite medium
Chocolate agar medium
NNN medium
Sabourauds medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabourauds medium
Q.
Immunoglobin, Which is produced first by the fetus in response to infection_______________?
IgA
IgG
IgD
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Which of the following is an enrichment medium________________?
Nutrient Broth
Blood agar
Selenite F Broth
Mac Conkey agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Selenite F Broth
Q.
What is the transport medium for cholera___________________?
Venkatraman
B & C
Tellurite Medium
Cary Blair Medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: B & C
Q.
A type of immediately occuring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called_____________?
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type I hypersensitivity
Q.
Same or closely related antigens present in different biological species are known as________________?
Haptens
Heterophile antigens
Suquestrated antigens
Isoantigens
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Heterophile antigens
Q.
One of the following is an agglutination test in the diagnosis of typhoid___________?
Widal test
Eleks test
Mantoux test
Wasserman test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
Sterilization is a process in which_________________?
Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Kill all non-pathogenic micro-organisms in the environment
Kill all pathogenic micro-organisms
Deactivate all pathogens not spores
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Q.
Human immune deficiency virus is ________________ virus?
Rheo
Retro
Rhabdo
Flavi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Retro
Q.
A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned in to an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis______________?
Carbol Fuschin
Trichrome Methylene blue
Acid Fast Stain
Calcoflour White
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trichrome Methylene blue
Q.
Half-life of free HIV in plasma is________________?
12 hours
6 hours
3 months
24 hours
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 6 hours
Q.
Among The infectious diseases transmitted by food, one is___________________?
Viral stomatitis
Tuberculosis
Typhoid fever
Diptheria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid fever
Q.
Moist heat kills all of the following EXCEPT_______________?
Brucella
Mycobacterium
Salmonella
Coxiella burnetti
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coxiella burnetti
Q.
The Ig found in exocrine secretions is_____________?
IgA
IgG
IgD
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Operation theatres are sterilized by_____________?
Carbolic acid spraying
Washing with soap and water
Formaldehyde fumigation
ETO gas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Formaldehyde fumigation
Q.
Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci________________?
Staphylococcus
Aerococcus
Sarcina
Micrococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sarcina
Q.
About Bacteroids True are all Except_______________?
Most common species is B fragilis
Bile resistant anerobes
Present mainly in mixed infections
Susceptible to many antibiotics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Susceptible to many antibiotics
Q.
Encapsulation in bacteria helps in__________________?
Oxygen effect
Decreased virulence
Prevent their phagocytosis
Spore formation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prevent their phagocytosis
Q.
In initial stages of tyhoid, salmonella can be detected in________________?
All of the above
Urine
Blood
Feacus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood
Q.
All of the following are true of streptococcus except_____________?
Most common in humans
Most common is animals
It
Shows adherence to dental enamel
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It
Q.
Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phase of the bacterial growth curve______________?
Stationary phase
Exponential growth
Decline
Lag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
Viruses can be cultured in all except_______________?
Blood agar
Guinea pigs
Cell culture
Chick embryo
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood agar
Q.
Kolmer test is a screening test done for_________________?
Tuberculosis
Syphilis
Lymphoma
Gonorrhea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Function of T-lymphocyte is/are________________?
Lymphokine production
All of the above
Rosette formation
Production of interferon
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The following are applicable to bacterial genoms except________________?
It is circular
It is composed of DNA
It doe not contain histones
Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Q.
EBV causes all except_________________?
Burkitt
Carcinoma of nasopharynx
Papilloma
Infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma
Q.
Which of the following is not used as disinfectant________________?
1-2% cetrimide
100% alcohol
2% Lysol
5% chloroxylene
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 100% alcohol
Q.
Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by_______________?
M. ulcerans
M. Kansasii
M. smegmatis
M. chelonae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. chelonae
Q.
All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except____________?
HIV
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis E
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Which of the following correctly indicates the infectivity of hepatitis virus in human ?
HBCAg
Anti-HBC
Anti-HBS
HBeAg
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBeAg
Q.
In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except__________________?
Bone marrow depression
Hemolysis
Malabsorption
Spleen sequestration
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Malabsorption
Q.
Which of the following is not a pox virus ?
Cowpox
Molluscum contagiosum
Small pox
chicken pox
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: chicken pox
Q.
A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is______________?
Methanamine silver stain
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Pyte-ferraco stain
India ink preparation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
Staphylococcal food poisoning includes the following features_______________?
Heat labile enterotoxin
Incubation period of 24 hours
Common with dairy products
Requires immediate antibiotics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Common with dairy products
Q.
Causative organism for gas gangrene_______________?
Strep. Faecalis
Coli
Clostridium welchii
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Streptococcus is classified based on__________________?
Bile Solubility
Cultural characteristics
Cell wall carbohydrate
M Protein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall carbohydrate
Q.
compared with autoclave, use of a dry heat over for sterilization has the following disadvantages______________?
Time-consuming
Causes sharp instruments to dull
Causes instruments to rust
Less effective
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Time-consuming
Q.
Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces?
Capsule
Flagella
Mesosomes
Pili
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except_____________?
Streptococcus pyogenes
Legionella pneumophila
Neisseria meningitides
Salmonella typhi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus pyogenes
Q.
The best sterilization method for a hand-piece is________________?
All of the above
dry heat
Ethylene oxide gas
chemical vapour
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ethylene oxide gas
Q.
Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is____________?
Histidine rich proteins
Secretory IgA
Sialoperoxidase
Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Q.
Sleeping sickness is caused by_______________?
Reduvid bug
Sand fly
House fly
Tick
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reduvid bug
Q.
The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_____________?
Pilomatrixoma
Kerison
Alopecia areata
Tenia incognito
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kerison
Q.
Steam under pressure in used in ________ sterilization?
Autoclave
Kochs sterilizer
hot air oven
Pasteurization
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The small nonparticulate protein leading to enhanced replication of HBV as well as HIV is______________?
Hbe Ag
HBc Ag
HBs Ag
HBx Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBx Ag
Q.
T cells multiplication is stimulated by_______________?
Bovine serum
Phytohaemagglutinin
Macrolin
Heat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Phytohaemagglutinin
Q.
Bacteria reproduce mainly by______________?
Budding
Sporing
Bacterial components produced by host cells
Binary fission
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Binary fission
Q.
The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine doses not play a major role is______________?
Urticaria
Arthus reaction
Anaphylaxis
Asthma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus reaction
Q.
Robertsons cooked meat medium is best suited for cultivation of_______________?
Clostridia
Mycobacterium
S. epidermidis
Choleria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridia
Q.
A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates________________?
Acute infection
Carrier state
Convalescence
Prodromal phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acute infection
Q.
Which of the following organisms does NOT react with gram
Candida albicans
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Actinomyces israelii
Streptococcus mutan
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q.
Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins ?
IgG
IgE
IgA
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Disinfection of the rooms can be done by using_______________?
20% phenol
40% formaldehyde vapour
Chlorine gas
High efficiency particle arrestors
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 40% formaldehyde vapour
Q.
Negative staining is used to demonstrate________________?
Bacterial capsule
Bacterial spore
Bacterial Flagella
Bacterial fimbriae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacterial fimbriae
Q.
Which is not true about vibrio cholera_________________?
Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Grows on simple media
It is non-halophilic
Man is the only natural host
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Q.
Group A carbohydrate of Str. pyogenes cross reacts with human_________________?
Cardiac valves
Synovial fluid
Myocardium
Vascular intima
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiac valves
Q.
Pneumococus can be differentiated from streptococcus by________________?
Bile solubility
Type of hemolysis
Growth characteristics
Gram staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bile solubility
Q.
Phage conversion is required for________________?
Diptheria
Gonorrhoea
All o f the above
Tularemia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Diptheria
Q.
parasitic inflammation would show predominantly____________________?
Lymphocytes
Eosinophils
Neutrophilis
Basophils
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Eosinophils
Q.
Pseudohphae are seen in____________?
Alternaria
Candida albicans
Aspergillus
Osporium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?
Trench fever
Epidemic typhus
Relapsing fever
Q fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Q fever
Q.
The causative organism of syphilis is___________?
Treponema pallidum
Chalamydia trachomatis
Leptospira interrogans
Borrelia burgolorferi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema pallidum
Q.
Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except______________?
Ascaris lumbriocoides
Entamoeba
Strongyloides
Giardia lambia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strongyloides
Q.
Toxoids are_________________?
non-antigenic and toxic
non-antigenic and non-toxic
antigenic and non-toxic
antigenic and toxic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: antigenic and non-toxic
Q.
Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000_________________?
H chain
Secretory piece
L chain
J piece
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: H chain
Q.
IL-1 is produced by_________________?
Macrophages
Helper T cells
Monocytes
Helper B cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Macrophages
Q.
In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by_____________?
Blood culture
Stool culture
Widal test
Urine culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except__________________?
Found exclusively in human beings.
Most common cause of urethritis is male
All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Q.
Pigs are important source of_____________?
Yellow fever
Japanese encephalitis
Kuru
Rabies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Japanese encephalitis
Q.
A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains and haemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism ?
Bile solubility
Cataslase positive
Optochin sensitivity
Bacitracin sensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacitracin sensitivity
Q.
Organ of locomotion in bacteria is________________?
Cell wall
Fimbria
Capsule
Flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flagella
Q.
All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except______________?
Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital
Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide
Colony morphology on saliva agar
Gram staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram staining
Q.
Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in______________?
Ascariasis and tapeworm
Tapeworm
Hood worm
Ascariasis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ascariasis
Q.
Bacteria with tuft of flagella at one end are called_______________?
Peritrichate
Bipolar
Monotrichate
Lophotrichate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lophotrichate
Q.
Certain viruses have been isolated in crytalline form and have been found to be_____________?
Nucleotides
Phospholipids
Scleroproteins
Nucleoproteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleoproteins
Q.
Fungal infection of human beings is called as_____________?
Fungosis
Micromia
Mycosis
Mucorsis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycosis
Q.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa_________________?
Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.
Causes Shangai fever
Does not produce any pigment
Produces heat stable enterotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Causes Shangai fever
Q.
The world german measles is applied for_____________?
Herpetic ginglvostomatitis
Rubella
Rubeola
Herpes simplex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Which of the following provides best gurantee for sterlization in the heat sterilizer ?
Recording a temperature/ pressure readings from sterilizer guage
Using chemical indicator strip or pouch
Determining the ability of a sterilizer to kill the hepatitis B virus
Using a bacterial spore test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Using a bacterial spore test
Q.
Active artificial immunization is induced by the administration of all of the following EXCEPT______________?
Toxoids
Vaccines
Antitoxins
Bacterial products
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antitoxins
Q.
Plaque test is used routinely in virology lab
To separate specific clone of virus
To prepare vaccines
To maintain certain viral culture
Identification of viral disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Identification of viral disease
Q.
The commonest method of detection of diptheria carriers is_______________?
Charles
Dick test
Casoni
Schick test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Schick test
Q.
Most common tumor associated with AIDS is______________?
Carcinoma
Ewing
Melanoma
Kaposi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kaposi
Q.
Which of the following is a RNA virus ?
Adeno virus
Papavo virus
Measles virus
Herpes Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
A 6 year old boy comes with abdominal pain, vomiting after consuming mild products within 6 hours. The most likely organism responsible is______________?
Staph. aureus
Salmonella
Clostridium botulinum
B.Cereus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staph. aureus
Q.
The medium of choice for growing most fungi is_______________?
Blood agar
Sabouraud
Tissue culture
Thioglycollate medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
Hydatid cyst is__________________?
Viral
Congenital
Fungal
Parasitic in nature
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parasitic in nature
Q.
Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called______________?
De coding
Chemotaxis
CFT
Opsonisation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Opsonisation
Q.
The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is___________________?
15%
2%
10%
5%
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2%
Q.
Selective media for MYCOBACTERIUM _____________?
Agar
Lowenstein Jensen medium
Loefflers serum slope
Sabourauds medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lowenstein Jensen medium
Q.
A sporangium contains_______________?
Oidia
Spherules
Chlamydospores
porangiospores
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: porangiospores
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria can be cultured in__________________?
L-J medium
Loefflers medium
Robertson cooked meat medium
Sabourauds agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robertson cooked meat medium
Q.
All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except________________?
Cysts are 4 nucleated
Cysts are 8 nucleated
Trophozoites colonise in the colon
The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cysts are 8 nucleated
Q.
Gram -ve bacteria stain during gram staining____________?
Green
Blue color
Red color
Colorless
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Red color
Q.
The optimal time and temperature required for sterilization in an autoclave is___________________?
121
121
140
121
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 121
Q.
Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus ?
Keratoacanthoma
Verruca vulgaris
Focal epithelial hyperplasia
Condyloma acuminatum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Keratoacanthoma
Q.
IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by______________?
Activated macrophages
Platelet
Plasma cells
Lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Activated macrophages
Q.
The major intestinal pathogens which are non-lactose fermenters are_________________?
Klebsiella
Salmonella
Paracolons
Escherichia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salmonella
Q.
Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by________________?
DNA probe
Direct microscopy
ELISA
Culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Culture
Q.
Which component of the cell wall is responsible________________?
Region II
Boivin antigen
Region I
Region III
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Region III
Q.
In patients with asthma due to an allergic cause the serum levels of which immunoglobulin increase____________________?
IgE
IgA
IgM
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Which regards to temperature requirement, most pathogenic bacteria are_____________?
Mesophiles
Cryophiles
Thermophiles
Psychrophiles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mesophiles
Q.
Negative phase is seen in ________ immunity?
Active
Local
Herd
Passive
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active
Q.
Bacterial cell does not possess___________________?
Ribosome
dna
Mitochondria
Cell wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mitochondria
Q.
Australian antigen is_______________?
HBs AG
None of the above
HBV
HB Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBs AG
Q.
Which does not have a viral etiology______________?
Lymphoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Carcinoma Cervix
Hepatoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Endotoxins are produced by________________?
Virus
Gram +ve bacteria
Gram -ve bacteria
Fungi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram -ve bacteria
Q.
EBV is responsible for all except______________?
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Burkitt
Infectious mononucleosis
Hepatoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Complement factor through which common pathway begins___________________?
C2
Protein B
C5
C3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C3
Q.
Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is___________________?
Liver
Lungs
Spleen
Brain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Liver
Q.
The time gap between appearance of Koplik
3-4 days
10 days
24 Hrs
2 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3-4 days
Q.
CD4 cells recognize the antigens in association with_____________?
B-cell receptor
MHC III
MHC I
MHC II
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: MHC II
Q.
Each of the following viruses possesses an outer lipoprotein envelope except_____________?
Varicella Zoster Virus
Influenza Virus
Human immunodeficiency virus
Papilloma Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma Virus
Q.
Mark true in following ?
Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
None of the above
Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Q.
First released immunoglobulin after primary immunization_______________?
IgD
IgE
IgG
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is_________________?
Escherichia coli
Neisseria gonorrhea
Streptococcus fecalis
T-strain mycoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Escherichia coli
Q.
Black water fever is caused by______________?
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium falciparum
Leishmania donovani
Microfilaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______________?
Dot
Comma
Banana
Sickle
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sickle
Q.
Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____________?
6 week
3 months
6 months
1 week
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 week
Q.
About Psedomonas. All are true except________________?
Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Most common organism is burn patient
Can grow in disinfectants in hospital
Strick aerobes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except_______________?
Through plasmids
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through bacteriophages
Through conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____________?
16,18,31
3,10,19
6,8,11
Type 6,12,18
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 16,18,31
Q.
Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except_______________?
Embryonated eggs
Tissue culture
Chemically defined media
Animals
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chemically defined media
Q.
Type of receptor present on T-cells are__________________?
Prostaglandins
CD4
Ig G
Ig A
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4
Q.
All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_____________?
Refractile nucleus
Chromatid bars
Glycogen mass
Eccentric nucleus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile nucleus
Q.
Leprosy bacilli can be grown in_________________?
Testes of guinea pig
Testes of albino rats
Tail of guinea pig
Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Q.
Group A B-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the pharynx may be followed in some by_____________?
Diphtheria
Rheumatic fever
Typhoid fever
Syphilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatic fever
Q.
Secretory Ig is_______________?
IgA
IgD
IgM
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Which of the following viruses does not infect salivary glands ?
Orthomyxovirus
Echo virus
HIV
Hepatitis C
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxovirus
Q.
Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following________________?
Sabin
Tetanus toxoid
Salk vaccine
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salk vaccine
Q.
True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by_______________?
cats
Cow
Dogs
Rats
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cats
Q.
Candidal hyphae can be stained using_______________?
Masson Trichrome stain
Periodic acid schiff stain
Toluidine blue stain
Van Gieson
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Periodic acid schiff stain
Q.
The prototype of Type II hypersensitivity reaction is__________________?
Contact dermatitis
SLE
Arthus reaction
Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Q.
The earliest identifiable cells of T-Cell lineage during maturation are_______________?
CD8+ Pre-T-Cells
CD5+ Pre-T-Cells
CD8+ Pro-T-Cells
CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
Q.
Dengue virus belongs to______________?
Flavi virus
Rhabdoviridae
Togaviridae
Reoviridae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi virus
Q.
T cell matures in______________?
Thymus
Busra of Fabricius
Lymph node
Payers patch
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thymus
Q.
The presence of Which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility ?
Polysaccharide
Enzymes
Lipids
Protein coat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein coat
Q.
Wasserman test test is diagnostic of__________________?
Gonorrhea
TB
Tyhoid
Syphilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Glasswares are sterilised by______________?
Formaldehyde
Hot air oven
Incineration
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by which of the following_____________?
Cidex
Boiling
All of the above
Ethanol
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affets_______________?
Fibroblasts
Red blood cells
Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Mast cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Q.
Which of the following enzyme is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot pathogenic staphylococci_____________?
S protein
Coagulase
Fibrinolysin
Lysozyme
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coagulase
Q.
Secondary response is mediated by_______________?
IgM
IgE
IgA
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Bacterial species which is protective or beneficial to the host is_______________?
Treponema denticola
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Streptococcus sanguis
Spirochetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus sanguis
Q.
Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve________________?
Jejunum and Ileum
Stomach
Caecum and large intestine
Duodenum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caecum and large intestine
Q.
A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents________________?
Auto
Allo
Xeno
ISO
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Allo
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical mycobacteria by______________?
Pas staining
None of the above
Niacin test
AFB staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Niacin test
Q.
The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by____________?
Transduction
Conjugation
Translation
Cell fusion
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
Sterilisation control for moist heat is
Using chemical indicator
Using methylene blue
Using non-pathogenic strain of clostridium tetani
using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Q.
Complement binding immunoglobin via the classical pathway is_______________?
IgD & IgE
IgG & IgD
IgG & IgA
IgG & igM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG & igM
Q.
Commonest mycobacterial infection in tropical countries_______________?
M. leprae
Kansasi
M. tuberculosis
M. avium intracellulare
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. tuberculosis
Q.
Sterilisation is______________?
Only pathogenic micro-organisms killed
All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Pathogens killed but spores are not affected
Non-pathogenic killed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Q.
Killer and Helper cells are part of_______________?
B cells
T cells
Macrophage
Monocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T cells
Q.
Bacteriophage was discovered by_________________?
Metchinkoff
Robert koch
Menkin
Twort and d
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Twort and d
Q.
Growth factor needed for Salmonella_________________?
Tryptophan
Niacin
Citrate
B-12
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Tryptophan
Q.
Louis Pasteur is not associated with_______________?
Discovery of Rabies Vaccine
Disproved spontaneous regression theory
Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Introduction of complex media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Q.
Synthesis of antibodies in plasma cells occurs in_________________?
Endoplasmic reticulum
Mitochondria
Nucleus
Golgi body
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.
Leishmania is cultured in ________________ media?
Chocolate agar
NNN
Sabourauds
Tellurite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NNN
Q.
Purpose of Sterilization is to eliminate________________?
Fungus
Spore formers
Viruses
Bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spore formers
Q.
The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to_____________?
Inhibit microbial growth
Remove microbes
Kill mircobes
Dehydrate microbial cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Remove microbes
Q.
The only virus, which has double stranded RNA, is______________?
Calci virus
Reo virus
Bunya virus
Rhabdo virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reo virus
Q.
Culture media of candida is_________________?
Saboraud
Pingolevin
Methylene blue dextrose agar
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saboraud
Q.
L.D bodies are seen in_______________?
Sleeping sickness
Toxoplasmosis
Kalahazar
Malaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kalahazar
Q.
Schuffner
Plasmodium malariae
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium vivax
Q.
Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus infection during window period ?
IgM anti
Anti HBs
HBs Ag
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM anti
Q.
Delhi boil refer to_______________?
Venereal ulcer
L. Tropica sore
Malignant pustule
Solar Keratosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: L. Tropica sore
Q.
Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except________________?
All are true
50% chances to have AIDS
Failure to thrive
Have infections
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 50% chances to have AIDS
Q.
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to_______________?
Histiocytes
Monocytes
T lymphocytes
B lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T lymphocytes
Q.
The cell wall deficient bacteria_______________?
Rickettsiae
Mycoplasma
Chlamydiae
Ehrlichiae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycoplasma
Q.
Pasteur developed the vaccine for_______________?
Cholera
All of the above
Anthrax
Rabies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Borrelia vincenti is always associated with______________?
Fusiform bacilli
Spirochaetes
Treponema vincenti
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fusiform bacilli
Q.
The Manufacturing unit of surgical needle & sutures are sterilized by ________________?
Boiling
X-Rays
Gamma-Rays
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma-Rays
Q.
Glutaraldehyde is preferred more than formaldehyde because______________?
It has got more bactericidal activity
Its application is easier
It has got more bacteriostatic activity
It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Q.
The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is_____________?
Robertoson
Chorio allantoic membrane
Chocolate agar
Sabourad
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chorio allantoic membrane
Q.
Rh incompatibility is which type of hyper sensitivity reaction ?
Type III
Type IV
Type I
Type II
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Silver impregnation method of staining is useful to demonstrate_____________?
Both of the above
Bacterial flagella
None of the above
Spirochetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both of the above
Q.
Which of the following would you consider to be general properties of viruses______________?
Contain DNA but no RNA
Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids
New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Q.
Dematophytes are fungi infecting________________?
Nails, hair and skin
Subcutaneous tissue
Systemic organs
Superficial skin and deep tissue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nails, hair and skin
Q.
Chlamydia causes all of the following except________________?
Trachoma
Non-gonococcal urethritis
Pneumonia
Parotitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parotitis
Q.
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (SSS syndrome) is due to______________?
Enterotoxin A
Enterotoxin D
Enterotoxin B
Enterotoxin F
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterotoxin F
Q.
Leprosy bacilli are transmitted from person to person by all except______________?
Dischange from nasal mucosa
Through breast milk
Through intact skin
From open sore
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Through breast milk
Q.
ASO (Antistreptolysin 0) test is uesd for the diagnosis of________________?
Rheumatie fever
Typhoid fever
Rheumatoid arthritis
Rickettsial fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatie fever
Q.
Actinomycetes is______________?
Fungus
Gram positive bacteria
A yeast like form
Gram negative bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is_____________?
Blue stain
Ninhydrin stain
Eosin stain
Haemotoxin stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ninhydrin stain
Q.
Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by_____________?
Bacteria superadded on virus
Bacteria
Parasite
Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
The term animalcules to oral microorganisms is given by__________________?
Robertson
Socranci
Leumenhoek
Wd miller
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leumenhoek
Q.
Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly_______________?
Skin
Gastrointestinal tract
Lung
Nasal mucosa
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gastrointestinal tract
Q.
Phospholipid used to investigate syphilis by the reagin test is________________?
Cardiolipin
Serine
Palmityl lecithin
Plasminogen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiolipin
Q.
Cleavage of IgG molecule by Papin gives rise to:One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments_______________?
Two Fc fragment and one Fab fragment
Two Fc fragments and two Fab fragments
One Fc fragment and four Fab fragments
One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Q.
Following reaction are produced by heterophil antigens except_____________?
Forssman antigen antibody reaction
Paul bunnel reaction
Weil-Felix reaction
Widal reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal reaction
Q.
The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______________?
IgA
IgG
IgD
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV irradiation_______________?
Nucleic acids
Lipids
Inorganic salts
Carbohydrates
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleic acids
Q.
Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by________________?
Bacteria
Sucrose
Dextran
Epithelial cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dextran
Q.
The anaphylaxis should be treated first with_____________?
Steroids
Epinephrine
Antibiotics
Anti histamines
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epinephrine
Q.
Dorset
Mycobacterium
Streptococcus
Gonococcus
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best demonstrated by_________________?
Gram
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
H & E stain
PAS stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Q.
The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is______________?
Borrelia burgdorferi
Borrelia vincenti
Treponema pallidum
Treponjema pertenue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti
Q.
Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is ________________?
Rhizopus
Mucor
Aspergillus
Penicillium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus
Q.
Best method of sterilizing disposable syringes_______________?
Hot air oven
U.V. rays
Gamma rays
Boiling
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma rays
Q.
Anaphylaxis refers to the________________?
State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens
Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________________?
Melanin production related to virulence
Causes meningitis
Basidiomycetes yeast
Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Q.
The Process of attenuation can be achieved by all except___________________?
Growing bacteria in adverse environment
Growing bacteria in unconventional host
Repeated cultures in artificial media
Serial passage in an experimental host
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serial passage in an experimental host
Q.
Probiotic organism used_________________?
E coli
Salmonella
Staphylococcus
Bifido bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bifido bacteria
Q.
Staphylococcus does not causes_______________?
Abscess
Osteomyelitis
Scarlet fever
Pneumonia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Scarlet fever
Q.
Oil and Grease are sterilized by________________?
Ethylene dioxide
Irradiation
Auto claving
Hot air oven
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Most sensitive test for antigen detection is_______________?
Passive hemaglutination
Immunoflourescence
ELISA
Radioimmuno Assay
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Radioimmuno Assay
Q.
Antigen combining site of the antibody is____________________?
Hapten
Idiotope
Paratope
Epitope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Paratope
Q.
The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______________?
Induration
Vasculitis
Erythema
Necrosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythema
Q.
The most common site where organisms are present in a typhoid carrier is______________?
Gall Bladder
Spleen
Salivary gland
Liver
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gall Bladder
Q.
Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause foetal defect ?
Papilloma
Rubella
Mumps
Herpes Simplex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Babu, a 28 year old male comes with compaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by____________?
P24 antigen
ELISA
Western blot
Lymph node biopsy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: P24 antigen
Q.
The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is ________________?
lecithinase production
Coagulase production
exotoxin production
hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: hypersensitivity
Q.
In T.B cell mediated immunity is by_______________?
None of the above
B
CD 8*
CD 4*
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD 4*
Q.
Australia antigen is associated with________________?
Chronic leukemia
AIDS
Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Basal cell carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Q.
Incubation pariod of herpes zoster is________________?
3-6 months
1-2 years
1 months
7-14 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 7-14 days
Q.
Salmonella typhi can be isolated at different times from______________?
Urine
Blood
Feaces
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which of the following antibacterial substance is present in eggs and saliva ?
Secretozyme
Isozyme
Albumin
Lysozyme
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysozyme
Q.
Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection_________________?
Giardia lambella
Balantidium coli
Isopora belli
Taenia solium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Taenia solium
Q.
Electron microscopic examination of the bacterial flora of necrotising ulcerative gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are______________?
Cocci
Bacteriophages
Spirochetes
Filamentous rods
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
The most frequently encountered clostridial species in gas gangrene is______________?
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium welchii
Clostridium difficile
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Q fever is caused by________________?
Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
C. burnetti
R. prowozekii
R. quintana
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C. burnetti
Q.
Mesophilic organisms are those that grow best at temperature of______________?
55
-7
-20
25
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 25
Q.
An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry cough, sputum culture showed growth on charcoal yeast Extract Medium, theorganism is______________?
Legionella
H. influenza
Burkholderia cepacia
Moraxella catarrhalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Legionella
Q.
Techoic acid is present in_____________?
Cytoplasm of Gram negative organisms
Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Cell wall of Gram negative organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram positive organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Q.
Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?
The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission
The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously
Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Causes positive Nagler reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Q.
Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by_________________?
Hookworm
Threadworm
Dog tapeworm
Fish tapeworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fish tapeworm
Q.
Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?
Coccidia
Mycobacteria
Spore
Prions
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prions
Q.
Blood agar is________________?
Enriched media
Differential media
Transport media
Simple media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enriched media
Q.
Signs of tyhoid fever is/are_____________________?
Haemorrhage
All of the above
perforation
Osteomyelitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by ___________________?
Aspergillus
Candida albicans
Mucor
Cryptococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction______________?
Staphylococcus
Proteus
E.coli
Haemophilus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?
Immediately wash wound with soap and water
Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity
Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Give ARV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Q.
One of the following is a zoonotic disease_____________?
Anthrax
Typhoid
Bacillary dysentery
Cholera
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anthrax
Q.
Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of______________?
Gas gangrene
Malaria
Wool sorters disease
Whooping cough
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gas gangrene
Q.
Which of the following is a live vaccine_____________?
17 D
Hepatitis
HDCV
Salk
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HDCV
Q.
The function of IgD is______________?
Antigen recognition by B cells
Reagin activity
Compliment activation
Localization protection in external secretion
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antigen recognition by B cells
Q.
The following statement is true regarding fungal infection__________________?
Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal
Candida infection is usually endogenous
Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man
albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida infection is usually endogenous
Q.
One of the following staining methods is an example of negative staining_______________?
Zheil-Neilson
Gram
India ink preparation
Fontana
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
All are true about widel test except________________________?
Base lines differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative
H antigen cannot differentiate between subtypes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Q.
The virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhea include all of the following except____________?
Pili
IgA Protease
Outer membrane proteins
M-Proteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M-Proteins
Q.
Characteristic feature of retrovirus is_____________?
DNA polymerase
Reverse transcriptase
Ribonuclease
Restriction endonuclease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reverse transcriptase
Q.
Serum sickness syndrome is an example of________________?
Systemic arthus reaction
Anaphylactic
Cell-mediated immunity
Angioneurotic edema
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Systemic arthus reaction
Q.
The Window period in HIV infection means______________?
The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS
None of the above
The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
Q.
Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to________________?
Reduce the antigenicity
reduce the toxigenicity
Increase antigenicity
Increase toxigenicity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increase antigenicity
Q.
Which of the following is true about amoebic liver disease ?
Portal system is the main filtration system
Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Non-suppurative form is the serious form of extra intestinal amoebiasis
Left lobe of liver is commonly involved
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Q.
Teichoic acid is present in cell walls of_________________?
Gram negative bacteria
Yeast
Gram positive bacteria
Protozoa
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Grave
Type III
Type II
Type I
Type IV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Madura mycosis produces______________?
Red granules
White to yellow granules
No granules
Brown to black granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: White to yellow granules
Q.
A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?
Pasturella spp
Francisella spp
Brucella spp
Bartonella spp
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Brucella spp
Q.
Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a_______________?
ELISA
Immunodot
Western Blot
RIPA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Western Blot
Q.
Rabies virus________________?
Cytotropic
Chromophilic
Neurotropic
Dermatotropic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neurotropic
Q.
Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is_______________?
IgE
IgM
IgA
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
B.C.G untrue is_____________?
live vaccine
Orally administered
T.B vaccine
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orally administered
Q.
In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a_______________?
Hapten
Super antigen
Toxin
Carrier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hapten
Q.
Thread worm is______________?
Ascaris
Necator
Ancylostoma
Enterobius
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterobius
Q.
Endotoxin have all but one of the properties given below_______________?
Produced by gram positive bacteria
Produced by gram negative bacteria
Cannot be toxoided
Not secreted outside the cell
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Produced by gram positive bacteria
Q.
The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is___________?
Detection of coagulase
Mannitol fermentation
The catalase test
Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Detection of coagulase
Q.
Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus is due to ________________________?
Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Pleomorphism
Lack of nucleic acid in the cell wall
Penicillin analogue production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Q.
Influenza is caused by_____________?
Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Q.
Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is_________________?
1:2
3:1
2:1
1:3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2:1
Q.
On a stained slide, clostridium tetani has the appearance of a__________________?
Chain of beads
Drum stick
Safely pin
Bunch of a
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Drum stick
Q.
Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine ?
Typhoid
Varicella Zoster virus
Cholera
Tuberculosis (BCG)
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cholera
Q.
which of the following is anaerobic_______________?
Pseudomonas
Bacteroides
Klebsiella
E.coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacteroides
Q.
Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstratig________________?
Cysts in the sterile pus
Trophozoites in the feces
Trophozoites in the pus
Cysts in the intestine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites in the pus
Q.
The urine sample of a patient has been sent to the laboratory to look for Leptospira. The specimen is to be screened by use of the__________________?
Dark ground microscope
Scanning microscope
Inverted microscope
Electron microscope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dark ground microscope
Q.
Function of Ig A is________________?
Circulating antibody
Kills virus infected cells
Activates macrophages
Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Q.
Aflatoxins are produced by________________?
Aspergillus niger
All of the above
Aspergillus flavus
Aspergillus fumigatus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus flavus
Q.
The chemotactic factor is______________?
C4a
C2a
C5a
C3b
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C5a
Q.
Characters of exotoxin include all, except_______________?
Protein polysaccharide complex
Highly potent
Heat labile
Has specific tissue affinity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein polysaccharide complex
Q.
Leptospirosis, all are true except______________?
Onset of IgM in 2 days
Incubation period is 10 days
Faeces & urine of rodents is the cause
It is sensitive to penicillin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Onset of IgM in 2 days
Q.
Which of the following belongs to cell fraction derived vaccine______________?
Mumps
Hepatitis B
Rubella
Measles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B
Q.
The killer cells are associated with immunologic response___________________?
Type III
Type IV
Type I
Type II
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
The term epitope refers to________________?
Hapten
Immunogen
complete antigen molecule
Smallest antigenic determinant
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Smallest antigenic determinant
Q.
Drumstick appearance is seen in______________?
All of the above
Cl. sphenoids
Cl. tetanomorphum
Cl. tetani
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. tetani
Q.
The commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercie bacilli________________?
Acridine orange
Thioglavin
Auramine and Rhodamine
Congo red
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine and Rhodamine
Q.
Common name for Trichuris trichura________________?
Round worm
Whip worm
Tape worm
Seat woman
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Whip worm
Q.
Herpes virus_____________?
Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane
Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
None of the above
Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Q.
The specific test for Treponema pallidum is___________?