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TOP Microbiology MCQS Questions
Q.
Bacterial spores are destroyed by_______________?
Boiling at 100
Pasteurisation
Autoclave
Disinfection by hypochlorite solution
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The interaction of antigens with antibodies on the surface of a mast cel leads to degranulation and anaphylaxis. The mast cell granules produce anaphylaxis because they contain________________?
Vasoactive mediators
Proteolytic enzymes
Lysosomes
Lymphotoxins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vasoactive mediators
Q.
Bacteria with potent exotoxin is_______________?
Pseudomonas
Shigella
Klebsiella
Clostridium tetani
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani
Q.
True about prions________________?
Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective
Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Viruses which are genetically deficient
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Q.
The best skin disinfectant is________________?
Savlon
None of the above
Alcohol
Chlorhexdine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chlorhexdine
Q.
Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates_____________?
Late convalescence
Simple carriers
High infectivity
Carrier status
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: High infectivity
Q.
The facultative anaerobic bacteria are those who are_______________?
Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Unable to grow in the absence of oxygen
Able to grow in the presence of carbon dioxide
Unable to grow in the presence of oxygen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Q.
A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium malaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Erysipelas is caused by________________?
Gonococci
Pneumococci
Group B staphylococci
Group A steptococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B staphylococci
Q.
True about immune response of hepatitis B is__________________?
CMI disappears soon after recover
Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
Antibody to HBC is not protective
Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Q.
Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria______________?
Lowenstein Jensen Medium
Loefflers serum slope
Saborauds agar
Mc Conkey
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Loefflers serum slope
Q.
A full course of immunization agianst. Telanus with 3 doses to Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how many years ?
5
10
15
20
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 10
Q.
Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?
Polymers chain reaction
ELISA followed by western blot technique
Western blot followed by ELISA
Virus isolation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA followed by western blot technique
Q.
Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-5m in size, multi-septate, chestnut, brown color is characteristic of________________?
Phaeohypomycosis
Histoplasmosis
Chromoblastomycosis
Rhinosporodiosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chromoblastomycosis
Q.
The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell
Haemagglutination test
Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Haemagglutination inhibition test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Q.
An oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod which produces a bluish-green pigment has been grown in culture from a swab obtained from an infected burn wound. This organism is susceptible to gentamicin, ticarcillin and tobramicin, but resistant to all the other antibiotics which of the following organisms is it likely to be ?
Klebsiella pnemoniae
Proteus miribilis
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Escherichia coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q.
Exaltation is________________?
Increased Virulence
Decreased virulence
None
No change
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increased Virulence
Q.
Which of the following is not true of boiling water_____________?
It can kill hepatitis B virus
Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis
Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Can kill vegetative bacterial cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Q.
The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is_______________?
IgG
IgA
IgD
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Germ tubes are formed mainly by_______________?
Candida tropicalis
Candida albicans
Candida stellatoidea
Candida pseudotropicalls
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
The best method of sterilization of dressing powder is_____________?
Hot air oven
Tyndallization
Inspissation
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with______________?
Lysozyme
IgM antibodies
IgA antibodies
Mast cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA antibodies
Q.
Loss of capsule in bacteria is generally associated with______________?
increase in invasiveness
Decease in virulence
Loss of infectivity
Inability to spread through tissue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Decease in virulence
Q.
Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify______________?
Mycoplasma
Spirochaetes
Chlamydiae
Rickettsiae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochaetes
Q.
Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_____________?
Tuberculosis
Cryptococcosis
Candidiasis
Aspergilosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candidiasis
Q.
Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans_________________?
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Hot air oven is used for sterilization of all EXCEPT__________________?
Liquid paraffin
Sharp instrument
Rubber tubes
Glassware
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubber tubes
Q.
Which worm is longest________________?
A. Lumbricoides
Hook worm
T. Saginata
T. Solium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T. Saginata
Q.
Malignant pustule is referred to_________________?
Infected squamous cell carcinoma
Facio-cervical actinomycosis
None of the above
Cutaneous anthrax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cutaneous anthrax
Q.
In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started________________?
Influenza
Rabies
Poliomyelitis
Herpes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabies
Q.
True about VDRL test________________?
Best followed for drug therapy
All of the above
Slide flocculation test
Non
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is_____________?
Hepatitis A virus
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
Lancefields classification of B hemolytic streptococcus is based on______________?
Polysaccharide C antigen
Physiological properties
Type of lipid in cell membrane
M Protein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Polysaccharide C antigen
Q.
Virulence of Gonococcus is due to___________________?
Pili
Its intracellular location
Cell Membrane
Cytolytic enzymes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
Which of the following fulfil all the criterias of kich
Treponema pallidum
Mycobacterium leprae
N. gonorrhoeae
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: None of the above
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria grow_______________?
in the presence of nitrogen
differential media
in the presence of oxygen
in the absence of oxygen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in the absence of oxygen
Q.
Which of the following is an acid-fast bacillus_____________?
All of the above
Neisseria gonorrhea
Treponema pallidum
Mycobacterium bacilli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium bacilli
Q.
Which of the following is obligate aerobe ?
diphtheria
Proteus
Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Q.
Malaria pigment is________________?
Haematin-globin pigment
Haemoglobin
Iron
Bilurubin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haematin-globin pigment
Q.
The key cell types involved in the acquired immunity include all EXCEPT________________?
Erythrocytes
Antigen presenting cells (APC
T lymphocytes
B lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythrocytes
Q.
Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor_____________?
M protein
Pyrogenic exotoxin
Carbohydrate cell wall
Streptolysin 0
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pyrogenic exotoxin
Q.
The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as_____________?
Paratope
Clone
Idiotope
Epitope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epitope
Q.
Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose_______________?
Contact dermatitis
Serum sickness
Arthus reaction
Anaphylaxis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Immunoglobulin consists of________________?
1 heavy, 2 light chains
1 light, 1 heavy chain
3 light, 1 heavy chain
2 light, 2 heavy chains
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2 light, 2 heavy chains
Q.
Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in________________?
Rabbit testis only
Chick embryos
Tissue culture
Artificial media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabbit testis only
Q.
Which of the following characteristics of bacteria is not true?
Having either DNA or RNA
Unicellular
Cell wall containing muramic acid
Free living
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Having either DNA or RNA
Q.
A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT________________?
Teichoplanin
Linezolid
Imipenem
Vancomycin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Imipenem
Q.
The overall effect of HIV is to gradually impair the immune system by interference with______________?
Macrophages
Plasma cells
Natural killer cells
Helper T lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes
Q.
Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?
Surface antigen
Core antigen
Core antibody
Surface antibody
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Surface antigen
Q.
Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies_____________?
Chicken pox
Measles
Rabies
Small pox
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles
Q.
Prozone phenomenon is due to______________?
Excess antigen
Disproportionate antigen antibody levels
Hyper immune reaction
Excess antibody
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Excess antibody
Q.
Actinomycosis is a_________________?
Anaerobic bacterial disease
Anaerobic fungal disease
Aerobic bacterial disease
Aerobic fungal disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic bacterial disease
Q.
HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except________________?
Needle prick injury
Blood transmission
Saliva
Sexual intercourse
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saliva
Q.
Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_______________?
Simple structure
Complex multiplication
All of the above
Presence of either DNA or RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
False +ve for VDRL is seen in______________?
Lepromatous Leprosy
Yaws
Malaria
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Most fungi of medical importance belongs to__________________?
Basidiomycetes
Zygomycetes
Ascomycetes
Deuteromycetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deuteromycetes
Q.
Most of the drug resistances occurs due to_____________?
Mutation
conjugation
Transformation
Transduction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: conjugation
Q.
The bacterial cell wall has all of the following properties except______________?
It contains D-isomers of amino acids
It consists of a mixed polymer called peptidoglycon
It is a unique flexible plastic structure
It is the structure principally responsible for the reaction of gram staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It is a unique flexible plastic structure
Q.
The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is_____________?
Herpetic gingivostomatitis
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Apthous stomatitis
Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Q.
Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in which of the following viruses_____________?
Hepatitis B virus
Pox virus
Measles virus
HIV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is______________?
Bartonella henselae
Donovania granulomatis
Hemophilia ducreya
Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bartonella henselae
Q.
Which of the following is not a feature of anaphylaxis ?
Immediate reaction
Delayed reaction
None of the above
passive transfer by serum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Delayed reaction
Q.
DNA covering material in a virus is called as________________?
Capsomere
Envelope
Capsid
Nucleocapsid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Capsid
Q.
ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______________?
Less sensitive, more specific
More sensitive, less specific
More sensitive, more specific
Less sensitive less specific
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: More sensitive, less specific
Q.
Who first introduced solid media_______________?
Hensen
Robert koch
Ogston
Louis pasteur
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robert koch
Q.
cAMP reaction is shown by which streptococci ?
Group C
Group D
Group A
Group B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B
Q.
Widal test is specific for____________?
Leprosy
Pemhigoid
Plague
Typhoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid
Q.
Which of the following is not a koch
Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the experimental animals
When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue
Pure cultures can be obtained
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Q.
All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_________________?
histolytica
gingivalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: gingivalis
Q.
When horse serum is injected intravenoulsy in to a rabbit and again in to the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs as the site of the second injection________________?
Anaphylaxis
Serum sickness
Arthus phenomenon
Atopy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus phenomenon
Q.
Fimbriae are demonstrated by ___________________?
Gram stain
Culture
Biochemical reaction
Haemagglutination test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haemagglutination test
Q.
The following is not true of Candida albicans______________?
Blastomeres seen in isolates
Yeast like fungus
Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them
Forms Chlamydospores
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blastomeres seen in isolates
Q.
The temperature required for cultivating mycobacterium________________?
37 degrees
27 degrees
2 degree
0 degree
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 37 degrees
Q.
All are true about bordetella pertussis except______________?
It may occur in children and young adult after vaccination
Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Most common cause is B. Petrussis
Bacteria culture from nasopharyngeal swab is the definitive diagnosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Q.
Causative organism of Kalahazar is_______________?
Plasmodium ovaie
Leishman donovani
Entamoeba histolytica
Toxoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leishman donovani
Q.
Interferon interferes with replication of virus at the time of_____________?
Protein synthesis
DNA/RNA replication
Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule
When virus enters the cell
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein synthesis
Q.
Rideal Walker test is used to determine the efficiency of the_____________?
Antibiotics
Disinfectant
Moist heat sterilisation
Dry heat sterilization
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Disinfectant
Q.
The difference between sterilization and disinfection is that_______________?
Sterilization is easier to achieve
Disinfection kills all spores but sterilization does not
Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Sterilization involves chemicals and disinfection involves physical methods
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Q.
The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is_______________?
Conjugation
Translation
Lysogeny
Transformation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysogeny
Q.
For uniform staining reaction, morphology and biochemical activity it is advisable to study bacterial cultures during the_____________?
Logarithmic phase
Death phase
Lag phase
Stationary phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Logarithmic phase
Q.
The structure in involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface is_______________?
None of the above
Fimbria
Flagella
Capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fimbria
Q.
Vibrio cholera was discovered by_________________?
Koch
Medintoff
Virchow
John snow
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Koch
Q.
Noguchi
Brucella
None of the above
Bordetella
Borrelia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia
Q.
Donovanosis, true is___________________?
Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Penicillin is drug of choice
Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic
Characterized by painful genital ulcers
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Q.
Which of the following statement about P24 antigen of HIV is Not True ?
It can be detected during the window period
It remains during asymptomatic phase
Virus load parallel P24 titre
Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It remains during asymptomatic phase
Q.
A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?
Xenograft
Isograft
Allograft
Autograft
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Isograft
Q.
In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_______________?
Gametocyte
Hypnozoite
Sporozoite
Merozoite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sporozoite
Q.
Virus infected cell is killed by________________?
Neutrophils
Autolysis
Interferons
Macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Interferons
Q.
In small intestine, cholera toxin acts by______________?
Activation of GTPase
Active absorption of NaCI
ADP
Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ADP
Q.
Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by_____________?
Nisseria
Streptococcus viridans
Haemolytic streptococci
Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus viridans
Q.
Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by______________?
Autoclaving
Inspissation
UV-Radiation
Hot air oven
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Candida is most often implicated in causation___________________?
Conjunctivitis
Thrush
Desert rheumatism
Tenea capitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thrush
Q.
Diphtheria is pathogenic only when infected with______________?
Beta phage
Alfa phage
Lambda K12
Delta Phage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Beta phage
Q.
The antigen used in Weil Felix test is obtained from________________?
coli
Staphylococcus
Proteus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to______________?
CD4 T-cells
B
CD8 T-cells
NK
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4 T-cells
Q.
Actinomycosis is caused by______________?
Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Acid fast, non-motile bacillus
Fungus
Retrovirus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Q.
The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route________________?
Hepatitis D virus
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______________?
Western Blot is
Both are
ELISA IS
PCR is
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both are
Q.
Lepromin test is useful for________________?
Epidemiology
Treatment plan
Prognosis
Diagnosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prognosis
Q.
Staphylococci typically occur in_________________?
Pairs
Irregular clusters
Chains
Tetrads
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Irregular clusters
Q.
The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the________________?
CH2 domian
CH1 domian
CL domian
VL domian
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CH2 domian
Q.
Multiple drug resistance of bacteria depends on which of the following_______________?
Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Colicigenic factor (Col)
Fertility factor (F+)
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Q.
Immunity that is conferred to the foetus by transfer of IgG and IgA antibodies is called as______________?
Passive natural immunity
Active acquired immunity
Passive acquired immunity
Natural active immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Passive natural immunity
Q.
Viron is defined as______________?
Smallest virus
None of the above
A smallest particle similar to virus
Extracellular infectious virus particle
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Extracellular infectious virus particle
Q.
Cough plate method is used to identify________________?
M-Tuberculosis
Y. pestis
Pertussis
Mycoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pertussis
Q.
Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functional of the cell______________?
wall
Capsule
nucleus
membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: membrane
Q.
A dentist suffred from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is_____________?
Convalscent carrier
Inactive carrier
Healthy carrier
Paradoxical carrier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Convalscent carrier
Q.
Sunlight acts as sterilizing agent because_________________?
Heat
Ozone
short wave lenght
Long wavelength
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: short wave lenght
Q.
Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in______________?
12 weeks
4 weeks
9 weeks
2 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4 weeks
Q.
What is the sequence which a retro virus follows on entering a host cell ?
DNA-RNA-DNA
DNA-RNA
RNA -DNA-RNA
RNA-DNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: RNA -DNA-RNA
Q.
Nagglers reaction detects________________?
Lecithinase
Hyaluronidase
None of the above
Coagulase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Man is the only reservoir for_______________?
Y. enterocolitica
histolytica
Camphylobacter jejuni
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: histolytica
Q.
Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_________________?
Lecithinase
Theta toxin
Desmolase
Cytokinin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except___________________?
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through bacteriophages
Though plasmids
through conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is__________________?
Gamma globulin injection
Hepatitis vaccination
Placental transfer of antibodies
Immune blood transfusion
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Placental transfer of antibodies
Q.
All are true about legionella pneumophilia except______________?
Urine test is a reliable method
Person to person transmission
Aquatic bodies are main habitat
It can replicate in amoeba
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Person to person transmission
Q.
Smith noguchi
Spirochetes
Bacillus
Klebsiella
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
Tyndallisation is carried out for________________?
Two successive days
One day
60 minutes
Three successive days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Three successive days
Q.
Prions true is____________?
Sensitive to most chemical sterilization
Evokes strong immunogenic reaction
Contains DNA/ RNA
Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Q.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which of the following________________?
Active T cells
B-cells
NK cells
Plasma cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active T cells
Q.
All are oncogenic except________________?
Culex
Anopheles
Mansoni
Aedes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aedes
Q.
Which of the following viruses appears to be involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi
Human Herpes Virus 4
Human Herpes Virus 8
Human Herpes Virus 1
Human Herpes Virus 3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Human Herpes Virus 4
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Vincent
Ulcerative gingivostomatitis
Caused due to malnutrition
A symbiotic infection
Caused by leptospira interrogans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by leptospira interrogans
Q.
Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores can be achieved with_______________?
KOH wet mount
Grocott Gomori Methenamine silver
Hematoxylin and Eosin
Peri-iodic Acid Schiff
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: KOH wet mount
Q.
The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum ?
IgG4
IgG3
IgG2
IgG1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG1
Q.
Cytopathic effect is shown by_____________?
Bacteria
Spirochete
Anaerobe
Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
Methods for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infection________________?
Microscopic examination of skin scrapings
All of the above
Wood light examination
KOH staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Culture medium used for Bordatella pertussis is_________________?
Robertson cooked meat medium
Wilson Blair medium
Bile broth
Bordet Gengou medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bordet Gengou medium
Q.
Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_____________________?
in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
no antibodies are present in primary HSV
antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis
only after one year
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
Q.
Graft versus host reaction is caused by_________________?
B-Lymphocytes
T-lymphocytes
Monocytes
Leukocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T-lymphocytes
Q.
Black pigmented anaerobes include all of the following except______________?
Prevotella
Porphyromonas
Buccae
Tannerella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Buccae
Q.
A protoplast is best characterized as a bacterial cell______________?
Free of a cell wall and a capsule
with a cell wall but free of a capsule
Uniquely sensitive to penicillin
containing a cell wall and a capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Q.
Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes______________?
Memory B cells
NK Cells
Cytotoxic T cells
B cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NK Cells
Q.
Grape bunch shaped colonies are seen in______________?
E.coli
Streptococcus
Gonococci
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staphylococcus
Q.
The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is_______________?
EB virus
Adeno
Parvo virus
Hepatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parvo virus
Q.
Most antibodies are produced in the________________?
Brain and the meninges
Spleen and the lymph nodes
Heart and the liver
Thymus and the appendix
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spleen and the lymph nodes
Q.
Post streptococcal acute glomerulo nephritis is an example of________________?
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type III hypersensitivity
Q.
Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups ?
Flavi viruses
Hepadana viruses
Picorna viruses
Herpes viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi viruses
Q.
Phase contrast microscopy is based on principle of__________________?
Different refractive indices of object
Light scattering
Light attenuation
Different reflective indices of object
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Different refractive indices of object
Q.
The medium of choice for culturing yeast from of dimorphic fungi is_________________?
Sabouraud
Brain
Any medium incubated at 35-37
Sabouraud
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
The diagnosis of gonorrhea is established by_____________?
Compliment fixation tests
All of the above tests
Haemagglutination tests
Pili agglutination tests
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above tests
Q.
Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to______________?
Hook worm
Guinea worm
Ascaris
Thread worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hook worm
Q.
Candida albicans causes all of the following except______________?
Meningitis
Oral thrush
Endocarditis
Mycetoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycetoma
Q.
CD4 count in normal healthy adult is_______________?
500
1000
200
300
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1000
Q.
A darkfield microscope would be useful in examining blood for_______________?
Mycobacterium
Treponema
Streptococcus
Actinomyces
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema
Q.
Immunoglobulins ar secreted by______________?
T-cells
Plasma cells
Neutrophils
Macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasma cells
Q.
Haptane is_______________?
Same as epitopes
None of the above
High molecular protein
Carrier required for specific antibody production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Carrier required for specific antibody production
Q.
Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by______________?
Isolation from bile
Culture from blood
Isolation form stool
IgM antibodies in serum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM antibodies in serum
Q.
VDRL is a________________?
Slide flocculation test
Tube flocculation test
Tube agglutination test
Latex agglutination test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Slide flocculation test
Q.
One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is____________?
Viral interference
Supervision
Mutation
Permutation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Viral interference
Q.
The difference between gram positive and negative bacteria lies in their_______________?
Nuclear material
cell wall
Mesosomes
cell membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cell wall
Q.
The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are______________?
Gram negative organisms
Gram positive organisms
Virus infections
Mycoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram negative organisms
Q.
Endotoxins differ from exotoxins in that endotoxins______________?
are highly antigenic
activate complement by the alternate pathway
are heat labile
are proteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: activate complement by the alternate pathway
Q.
The Dane particle is the______________?
Delta Virus
IgG anti HAV
HBC Ag
HBV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBV
Q.
Tuberculin test screens for_____________?
Hemoral immunity
Complement function
Cell mediated immunity
Phagocyte dysfunction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell mediated immunity
Q.
Endoscopes are sterilized by using_______________?
Gamma radiation
Autoclaving
Cidex
Boiling
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Boiling
Q.
One of the following statement about statements about sterilization is not true_______________?
Flash pasteurization of milk ? 72
Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Liquid paraffin ? Dry heat
Glass syringes ? Boiling at 169
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Q.
Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?
Lipids
Proteins
Polysaccharides
Adjuvant
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteins
Q.
IgG antibodies have a half-life of approximately_______________?
1 hour
1 Month
1 week
1 day
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 Month
Q.
Exotoxins are____________________?
Lipid-polysaccharide complex
Lipoprotein
None
Protein compound
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein compound
Q.
Following is a retrovirus_____________?
Hepatitis virus
Polio virus
Immunodeficiency virus
Influenza
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immunodeficiency virus
Q.
The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement_________________?
IgE
IgA
IgM
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
The reaginic antibody is________________?
IgE
IgD
IgG
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Kaposi
Above 2000
Above 600
Below 200
Between 1000-2000
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Below 200
Q.
All are not true for cultivation of anaerobic organisms except_______________?
Incubator
Refrigerator
Centrifuge
anaerobic jar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: anaerobic jar
Q.
Each of the following can cause food poisoning except________________?
Cl. difficile
Cl. welchii
Cl. botulinum
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. difficile
Q.
Which of the following does not go into chronic hepatitis stage ?
HBV
HDV
HEV
HCV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HEV
Q.
Physical sterilization was discovered by__________________?
Joeph Lister
Alexander flemings
Robert Koch
John Hunter
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Joeph Lister
Q.
Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito______________?
Sporozoite
Merozoite
Gametocyte
Zygote
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gametocyte
Q.
Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with_______________?
Kin Young stain
Ziel Nelson
Giemsa stain
Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Q.
Which of the following are correctly matched ?
Transfer of antibody from mother to child is through colostrum and acquired passive immunity naturally
All of the above
Injection of antibodies (Hepatitis) is artificially acquired passive immunity
Antigenic stimulus given by vaccine (polio) is artificial active immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which is type II hypersensitivity ?
Immune complex mediated
Delayed hypersensitivity
Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Anaphylaxis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Q.
By using phase contrast microscope_______________?
Internal structures are differentiated in dead cells
Internal metabolic activities can be observed
External capsule formation can be observed
Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Q.
One of the following is a treponemal test for diagnosis of syphilis_____________?
Wasserman test
FTAB
Kahn test
Widal test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: FTAB
Q.
Which of the following have the capability to produce extra cellular polysaccharides______________?
Enterococcus
Peptostreptococcus
Strep. pyogenes
Strep. Mutans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strep. Mutans
Q.
Opportunistic infection is caused by___________________?
Mucor
All of the above
Penicillium
Aspergillus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The minimum time required for the sterilization of surgical instruments by moist heat at 134
3 minutes
15 minutes
30 minutes
60 minutes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3 minutes
Q.
Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti_________________?
Terminal nuclei absent
Causes filariasis
Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Body is slender and long
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Q.
Granules in the corynebacterium diphtheria are called by following names, except______________?
Metachromatic granules
Voluntin granules
Refractile granules
Babes Ernst granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile granules
Q.
Neurotoxin of tetanus acts on______________?
Brain
Muscle
Synapse
Spinal card
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spinal card
Q.
Sporulation occurs in__________________?
Lag phase
Log phase
Stationary phase
Decline phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
True about HIV are all except______________?
Macrophages are the reservoir
Attacks CD4 cells
DNA virus
Decrease CD4 count in late stages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: DNA virus
Q.
IgG has subclasses_______________?
1
3
4
2
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4
Q.
Anti HBsAB indicates______________?
Good prognosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Acute infection
Resistance to hepatitis B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Good prognosis
Q.
Causative agents of Vincent
Borrelia burgoloferi and lactobacillus
Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Leptospira and Treponema pallidum
Borrelia recurrents and bateroides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Q.
Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______________?
Transfusion reaction
Atopic allergy
Serum sickness
Contact dermatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is________________?
Counter immune electroporesis
Microscopy
ELISA
Indirect hemagglutination
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA
Q.
Test for differentiating virulent form non-virulent tubercular bacilli_____________?
Niacin test
Neutral red test
Aryl sulphatase test
Catalase peroxidase test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neutral red test
Q.
Rickettsiae__________________?
Multiply within living cell
Transmitted by arthropod vectors
Respond to tetracycline therapy
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Virus is cultured in_______________?
Embryonated egg
Saubourd
Rogosa medium
Nonembryonated egg
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Embryonated egg
Q.
Disinfection frees the surface from______________?
Both of the above
Spore forms
None of the above
Vegetative forms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vegetative forms
Q.
Human immunoglobulins are divided based on_____________?
Complemented fixation
Functional differences
None of the above
Structural differences
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Structural differences
Q.
Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to__________________?
Capsule
Exotoxin
Endotoxin
Invasion
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Exotoxin
Q.
Chemotactic cytokine is_________________?
IL-8
IL-1
TNF
IL-6
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IL-8
Q.
The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in vivo from one bacterium to another by_____________?
Transformation
Conjugation
Transduction
Rarefaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
The culture media for fungus is__________________?
NNN medium
Chocolate agar medium
Sabourauds medium
Tellurite medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabourauds medium
Q.
Immunoglobin, Which is produced first by the fetus in response to infection_______________?
IgD
IgM
IgA
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Which of the following is an enrichment medium________________?
Selenite F Broth
Nutrient Broth
Blood agar
Mac Conkey agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Selenite F Broth
Q.
What is the transport medium for cholera___________________?
Cary Blair Medium
Venkatraman
B & C
Tellurite Medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: B & C
Q.
A type of immediately occuring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called_____________?
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type I hypersensitivity
Q.
Same or closely related antigens present in different biological species are known as________________?
Isoantigens
Heterophile antigens
Haptens
Suquestrated antigens
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Heterophile antigens
Q.
One of the following is an agglutination test in the diagnosis of typhoid___________?
Mantoux test
Eleks test
Wasserman test
Widal test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
Sterilization is a process in which_________________?
Deactivate all pathogens not spores
Kill all non-pathogenic micro-organisms in the environment
Kill all pathogenic micro-organisms
Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Q.
Human immune deficiency virus is ________________ virus?
Retro
Flavi
Rhabdo
Rheo
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Retro
Q.
A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned in to an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis______________?
Trichrome Methylene blue
Calcoflour White
Acid Fast Stain
Carbol Fuschin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trichrome Methylene blue
Q.
Half-life of free HIV in plasma is________________?
6 hours
24 hours
12 hours
3 months
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 6 hours
Q.
Among The infectious diseases transmitted by food, one is___________________?
Typhoid fever
Diptheria
Viral stomatitis
Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid fever
Q.
Moist heat kills all of the following EXCEPT_______________?
Coxiella burnetti
Brucella
Salmonella
Mycobacterium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coxiella burnetti
Q.
The Ig found in exocrine secretions is_____________?
IgD
IgM
IgG
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Operation theatres are sterilized by_____________?
ETO gas
Formaldehyde fumigation
Washing with soap and water
Carbolic acid spraying
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Formaldehyde fumigation
Q.
Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci________________?
Sarcina
Staphylococcus
Micrococcus
Aerococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sarcina
Q.
About Bacteroids True are all Except_______________?
Most common species is B fragilis
Bile resistant anerobes
Present mainly in mixed infections
Susceptible to many antibiotics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Susceptible to many antibiotics
Q.
Encapsulation in bacteria helps in__________________?
Prevent their phagocytosis
Oxygen effect
Spore formation
Decreased virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prevent their phagocytosis
Q.
In initial stages of tyhoid, salmonella can be detected in________________?
Feacus
All of the above
Urine
Blood
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood
Q.
All of the following are true of streptococcus except_____________?
It
Shows adherence to dental enamel
Most common is animals
Most common in humans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It
Q.
Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phase of the bacterial growth curve______________?
Lag
Decline
Exponential growth
Stationary phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
Viruses can be cultured in all except_______________?
Chick embryo
Guinea pigs
Cell culture
Blood agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood agar
Q.
Kolmer test is a screening test done for_________________?
Tuberculosis
Lymphoma
Gonorrhea
Syphilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Function of T-lymphocyte is/are________________?
Lymphokine production
Rosette formation
Production of interferon
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The following are applicable to bacterial genoms except________________?
It is circular
Its DNA has both introns and extrons
It is composed of DNA
It doe not contain histones
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Q.
EBV causes all except_________________?
Infectious mononucleosis
Carcinoma of nasopharynx
Papilloma
Burkitt
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma
Q.
Which of the following is not used as disinfectant________________?
5% chloroxylene
2% Lysol
100% alcohol
1-2% cetrimide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 100% alcohol
Q.
Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by_______________?
M. ulcerans
M. chelonae
M. smegmatis
M. Kansasii
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. chelonae
Q.
All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except____________?
Hepatitis B
HIV
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis E
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Which of the following correctly indicates the infectivity of hepatitis virus in human ?
HBeAg
Anti-HBC
HBCAg
Anti-HBS
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBeAg
Q.
In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except__________________?
Hemolysis
Spleen sequestration
Malabsorption
Bone marrow depression
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Malabsorption
Q.
Which of the following is not a pox virus ?
Small pox
Molluscum contagiosum
Cowpox
chicken pox
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: chicken pox
Q.
A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is______________?
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Pyte-ferraco stain
Methanamine silver stain
India ink preparation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
Staphylococcal food poisoning includes the following features_______________?
Heat labile enterotoxin
Incubation period of 24 hours
Requires immediate antibiotics
Common with dairy products
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Common with dairy products
Q.
Causative organism for gas gangrene_______________?
Strep. Faecalis
Coli
Clostridium welchii
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Streptococcus is classified based on__________________?
M Protein
Bile Solubility
Cell wall carbohydrate
Cultural characteristics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall carbohydrate
Q.
compared with autoclave, use of a dry heat over for sterilization has the following disadvantages______________?
Time-consuming
Causes sharp instruments to dull
Causes instruments to rust
Less effective
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Time-consuming
Q.
Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces?
Pili
Capsule
Flagella
Mesosomes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except_____________?
Neisseria meningitides
Salmonella typhi
Legionella pneumophila
Streptococcus pyogenes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus pyogenes
Q.
The best sterilization method for a hand-piece is________________?
All of the above
dry heat
Ethylene oxide gas
chemical vapour
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ethylene oxide gas
Q.
Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is____________?
Sialoperoxidase
Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Secretory IgA
Histidine rich proteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Q.
Sleeping sickness is caused by_______________?
Reduvid bug
Tick
House fly
Sand fly
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reduvid bug
Q.
The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_____________?
Alopecia areata
Pilomatrixoma
Kerison
Tenia incognito
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kerison
Q.
Steam under pressure in used in ________ sterilization?
Autoclave
hot air oven
Pasteurization
Kochs sterilizer
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The small nonparticulate protein leading to enhanced replication of HBV as well as HIV is______________?
HBs Ag
HBc Ag
HBx Ag
Hbe Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBx Ag
Q.
T cells multiplication is stimulated by_______________?
Macrolin
Bovine serum
Phytohaemagglutinin
Heat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Phytohaemagglutinin
Q.
Bacteria reproduce mainly by______________?
Sporing
Budding
Bacterial components produced by host cells
Binary fission
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Binary fission
Q.
The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine doses not play a major role is______________?
Urticaria
Asthma
Anaphylaxis
Arthus reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus reaction
Q.
Robertsons cooked meat medium is best suited for cultivation of_______________?
Mycobacterium
Clostridia
Choleria
S. epidermidis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridia
Q.
A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates________________?
Carrier state
Convalescence
Acute infection
Prodromal phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acute infection
Q.
Which of the following organisms does NOT react with gram
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Candida albicans
Actinomyces israelii
Streptococcus mutan
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q.
Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins ?
IgA
IgG
IgE
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Disinfection of the rooms can be done by using_______________?
40% formaldehyde vapour
Chlorine gas
20% phenol
High efficiency particle arrestors
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 40% formaldehyde vapour
Q.
Negative staining is used to demonstrate________________?
Bacterial fimbriae
Bacterial spore
Bacterial capsule
Bacterial Flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacterial fimbriae
Q.
Which is not true about vibrio cholera_________________?
Grows on simple media
It is non-halophilic
Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Man is the only natural host
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Q.
Group A carbohydrate of Str. pyogenes cross reacts with human_________________?
Cardiac valves
Synovial fluid
Myocardium
Vascular intima
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiac valves
Q.
Pneumococus can be differentiated from streptococcus by________________?
Bile solubility
Gram staining
Type of hemolysis
Growth characteristics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bile solubility
Q.
Phage conversion is required for________________?
Tularemia
All o f the above
Diptheria
Gonorrhoea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Diptheria
Q.
parasitic inflammation would show predominantly____________________?
Basophils
Eosinophils
Neutrophilis
Lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Eosinophils
Q.
Pseudohphae are seen in____________?
Aspergillus
Osporium
Candida albicans
Alternaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?
Q fever
Trench fever
Epidemic typhus
Relapsing fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Q fever
Q.
The causative organism of syphilis is___________?
Treponema pallidum
Chalamydia trachomatis
Leptospira interrogans
Borrelia burgolorferi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema pallidum
Q.
Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except______________?
Entamoeba
Strongyloides
Ascaris lumbriocoides
Giardia lambia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strongyloides
Q.
Toxoids are_________________?
non-antigenic and non-toxic
non-antigenic and toxic
antigenic and non-toxic
antigenic and toxic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: antigenic and non-toxic
Q.
Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000_________________?
Secretory piece
L chain
J piece
H chain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: H chain
Q.
IL-1 is produced by_________________?
Helper T cells
Monocytes
Macrophages
Helper B cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Macrophages
Q.
In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by_____________?
Blood culture
Urine culture
Stool culture
Widal test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except__________________?
Found exclusively in human beings.
Most common cause of urethritis is male
All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Q.
Pigs are important source of_____________?
Japanese encephalitis
Rabies
Yellow fever
Kuru
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Japanese encephalitis
Q.
A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains and haemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism ?
Cataslase positive
Optochin sensitivity
Bacitracin sensitivity
Bile solubility
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacitracin sensitivity
Q.
Organ of locomotion in bacteria is________________?
Flagella
Fimbria
Capsule
Cell wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flagella
Q.
All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except______________?
Gram staining
Colony morphology on saliva agar
Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital
Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram staining
Q.
Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in______________?
Tapeworm
Ascariasis and tapeworm
Ascariasis
Hood worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ascariasis
Q.
Bacteria with tuft of flagella at one end are called_______________?
Bipolar
Lophotrichate
Monotrichate
Peritrichate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lophotrichate
Q.
Certain viruses have been isolated in crytalline form and have been found to be_____________?
Scleroproteins
Nucleoproteins
Nucleotides
Phospholipids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleoproteins
Q.
Fungal infection of human beings is called as_____________?
Fungosis
Mycosis
Mucorsis
Micromia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycosis
Q.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa_________________?
Does not produce any pigment
Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.
Causes Shangai fever
Produces heat stable enterotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Causes Shangai fever
Q.
The world german measles is applied for_____________?
Rubella
Herpes simplex
Herpetic ginglvostomatitis
Rubeola
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Which of the following provides best gurantee for sterlization in the heat sterilizer ?
Using a bacterial spore test
Using chemical indicator strip or pouch
Recording a temperature/ pressure readings from sterilizer guage
Determining the ability of a sterilizer to kill the hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Using a bacterial spore test
Q.
Active artificial immunization is induced by the administration of all of the following EXCEPT______________?
Antitoxins
Vaccines
Bacterial products
Toxoids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antitoxins
Q.
Plaque test is used routinely in virology lab
To prepare vaccines
To separate specific clone of virus
To maintain certain viral culture
Identification of viral disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Identification of viral disease
Q.
The commonest method of detection of diptheria carriers is_______________?
Casoni
Charles
Schick test
Dick test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Schick test
Q.
Most common tumor associated with AIDS is______________?
Carcinoma
Kaposi
Melanoma
Ewing
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kaposi
Q.
Which of the following is a RNA virus ?
Adeno virus
Herpes Virus
Measles virus
Papavo virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
A 6 year old boy comes with abdominal pain, vomiting after consuming mild products within 6 hours. The most likely organism responsible is______________?
Clostridium botulinum
Staph. aureus
Salmonella
B.Cereus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staph. aureus
Q.
The medium of choice for growing most fungi is_______________?
Blood agar
Tissue culture
Thioglycollate medium
Sabouraud
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
Hydatid cyst is__________________?
Fungal
Viral
Parasitic in nature
Congenital
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parasitic in nature
Q.
Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called______________?
Chemotaxis
CFT
Opsonisation
De coding
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Opsonisation
Q.
The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is___________________?
5%
15%
10%
2%
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2%
Q.
Selective media for MYCOBACTERIUM _____________?
Agar
Lowenstein Jensen medium
Loefflers serum slope
Sabourauds medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lowenstein Jensen medium
Q.
A sporangium contains_______________?
Chlamydospores
Spherules
Oidia
porangiospores
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: porangiospores
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria can be cultured in__________________?
Loefflers medium
L-J medium
Sabourauds agar
Robertson cooked meat medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robertson cooked meat medium
Q.
All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except________________?
Cysts are 4 nucleated
Trophozoites colonise in the colon
The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides
Cysts are 8 nucleated
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cysts are 8 nucleated
Q.
Gram -ve bacteria stain during gram staining____________?
Green
Colorless
Blue color
Red color
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Red color
Q.
The optimal time and temperature required for sterilization in an autoclave is___________________?
121
140
121
121
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 121
Q.
Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus ?
Condyloma acuminatum
Focal epithelial hyperplasia
Verruca vulgaris
Keratoacanthoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Keratoacanthoma
Q.
IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by______________?
Lymphocytes
Plasma cells
Activated macrophages
Platelet
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Activated macrophages
Q.
The major intestinal pathogens which are non-lactose fermenters are_________________?
Escherichia
Paracolons
Klebsiella
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salmonella
Q.
Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by________________?
ELISA
DNA probe
Culture
Direct microscopy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Culture
Q.
Which component of the cell wall is responsible________________?
Region I
Boivin antigen
Region III
Region II
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Region III
Q.
In patients with asthma due to an allergic cause the serum levels of which immunoglobulin increase____________________?
IgE
IgM
IgA
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Which regards to temperature requirement, most pathogenic bacteria are_____________?
Mesophiles
Thermophiles
Cryophiles
Psychrophiles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mesophiles
Q.
Negative phase is seen in ________ immunity?
Herd
Passive
Active
Local
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active
Q.
Bacterial cell does not possess___________________?
Cell wall
Mitochondria
dna
Ribosome
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mitochondria
Q.
Australian antigen is_______________?
HBs AG
HB Ag
None of the above
HBV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBs AG
Q.
Which does not have a viral etiology______________?
Carcinoma Cervix
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Hepatoma
Lymphoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Endotoxins are produced by________________?
Gram -ve bacteria
Gram +ve bacteria
Fungi
Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram -ve bacteria
Q.
EBV is responsible for all except______________?
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Burkitt
Hepatoma
Infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Complement factor through which common pathway begins___________________?
C2
Protein B
C5
C3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C3
Q.
Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is___________________?
Lungs
Spleen
Brain
Liver
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Liver
Q.
The time gap between appearance of Koplik
10 days
2 weeks
24 Hrs
3-4 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3-4 days
Q.
CD4 cells recognize the antigens in association with_____________?
B-cell receptor
MHC I
MHC II
MHC III
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: MHC II
Q.
Each of the following viruses possesses an outer lipoprotein envelope except_____________?
Varicella Zoster Virus
Influenza Virus
Human immunodeficiency virus
Papilloma Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma Virus
Q.
Mark true in following ?
Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
None of the above
Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Q.
First released immunoglobulin after primary immunization_______________?
IgM
IgE
IgD
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is_________________?
Escherichia coli
Streptococcus fecalis
Neisseria gonorrhea
T-strain mycoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Escherichia coli
Q.
Black water fever is caused by______________?
Plasmodium vivax
Microfilaria
Leishmania donovani
Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______________?
Dot
Comma
Sickle
Banana
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sickle
Q.
Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____________?
1 week
6 months
3 months
6 week
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 week
Q.
About Psedomonas. All are true except________________?
Most common organism is burn patient
Can grow in disinfectants in hospital
Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Strick aerobes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except_______________?
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through bacteriophages
Through conjugation
Through plasmids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____________?
16,18,31
6,8,11
3,10,19
Type 6,12,18
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 16,18,31
Q.
Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except_______________?
Embryonated eggs
Animals
Tissue culture
Chemically defined media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chemically defined media
Q.
Type of receptor present on T-cells are__________________?
CD4
Ig A
Prostaglandins
Ig G
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4
Q.
All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_____________?
Refractile nucleus
Glycogen mass
Chromatid bars
Eccentric nucleus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile nucleus
Q.
Leprosy bacilli can be grown in_________________?
Tail of guinea pig
Testes of guinea pig
Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Testes of albino rats
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Q.
Group A B-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the pharynx may be followed in some by_____________?
Typhoid fever
Rheumatic fever
Diphtheria
Syphilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatic fever
Q.
Secretory Ig is_______________?
IgE
IgD
IgA
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Which of the following viruses does not infect salivary glands ?
HIV
Hepatitis C
Echo virus
Orthomyxovirus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxovirus
Q.
Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following________________?
Tetanus toxoid
All of the above
Salk vaccine
Sabin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salk vaccine
Q.
True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by_______________?
Dogs
cats
Rats
Cow
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cats
Q.
Candidal hyphae can be stained using_______________?
Toluidine blue stain
Van Gieson
Periodic acid schiff stain
Masson Trichrome stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Periodic acid schiff stain
Q.
The prototype of Type II hypersensitivity reaction is__________________?
Arthus reaction
Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Contact dermatitis
SLE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Q.
The earliest identifiable cells of T-Cell lineage during maturation are_______________?
CD8+ Pre-T-Cells
CD5+ Pre-T-Cells
CD8+ Pro-T-Cells
CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
Q.
Dengue virus belongs to______________?
Reoviridae
Rhabdoviridae
Togaviridae
Flavi virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi virus
Q.
T cell matures in______________?
Payers patch
Thymus
Lymph node
Busra of Fabricius
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thymus
Q.
The presence of Which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility ?
Enzymes
Protein coat
Polysaccharide
Lipids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein coat
Q.
Wasserman test test is diagnostic of__________________?
TB
Tyhoid
Syphilis
Gonorrhea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Glasswares are sterilised by______________?
Hot air oven
Formaldehyde
Incineration
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by which of the following_____________?
Ethanol
Boiling
All of the above
Cidex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affets_______________?
Mast cells
Fibroblasts
Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Red blood cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Q.
Which of the following enzyme is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot pathogenic staphylococci_____________?
Fibrinolysin
Coagulase
S protein
Lysozyme
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coagulase
Q.
Secondary response is mediated by_______________?
IgM
IgA
IgG
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Bacterial species which is protective or beneficial to the host is_______________?
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Spirochetes
Treponema denticola
Streptococcus sanguis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus sanguis
Q.
Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve________________?
Caecum and large intestine
Stomach
Jejunum and Ileum
Duodenum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caecum and large intestine
Q.
A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents________________?
Auto
Allo
Xeno
ISO
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Allo
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical mycobacteria by______________?
AFB staining
Niacin test
None of the above
Pas staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Niacin test
Q.
The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by____________?
Cell fusion
Transduction
Translation
Conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
Sterilisation control for moist heat is
using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Using chemical indicator
Using non-pathogenic strain of clostridium tetani
Using methylene blue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Q.
Complement binding immunoglobin via the classical pathway is_______________?
IgG & IgD
IgG & igM
IgG & IgA
IgD & IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG & igM
Q.
Commonest mycobacterial infection in tropical countries_______________?
Kansasi
M. leprae
M. avium intracellulare
M. tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. tuberculosis
Q.
Sterilisation is______________?
Only pathogenic micro-organisms killed
Non-pathogenic killed
Pathogens killed but spores are not affected
All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Q.
Killer and Helper cells are part of_______________?
B cells
T cells
Monocytes
Macrophage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T cells
Q.
Bacteriophage was discovered by_________________?
Twort and d
Robert koch
Metchinkoff
Menkin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Twort and d
Q.
Growth factor needed for Salmonella_________________?
Niacin
B-12
Citrate
Tryptophan
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Tryptophan
Q.
Louis Pasteur is not associated with_______________?
Disproved spontaneous regression theory
Introduction of complex media
Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Discovery of Rabies Vaccine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Q.
Synthesis of antibodies in plasma cells occurs in_________________?
Nucleus
Endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi body
Mitochondria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.
Leishmania is cultured in ________________ media?
Chocolate agar
Tellurite
Sabourauds
NNN
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NNN
Q.
Purpose of Sterilization is to eliminate________________?
Spore formers
Viruses
Fungus
Bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spore formers
Q.
The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to_____________?
Inhibit microbial growth
Dehydrate microbial cells
Remove microbes
Kill mircobes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Remove microbes
Q.
The only virus, which has double stranded RNA, is______________?
Calci virus
Reo virus
Bunya virus
Rhabdo virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reo virus
Q.
Culture media of candida is_________________?
Saboraud
Pingolevin
All of the above
Methylene blue dextrose agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saboraud
Q.
L.D bodies are seen in_______________?
Malaria
Toxoplasmosis
Sleeping sickness
Kalahazar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kalahazar
Q.
Schuffner
Plasmodium malariae
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium vivax
Q.
Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus infection during window period ?
Anti HBs
IgM anti
HBs Ag
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM anti
Q.
Delhi boil refer to_______________?
Venereal ulcer
Solar Keratosis
Malignant pustule
L. Tropica sore
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: L. Tropica sore
Q.
Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except________________?
Have infections
Failure to thrive
All are true
50% chances to have AIDS
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 50% chances to have AIDS
Q.
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to_______________?
B lymphocytes
Monocytes
T lymphocytes
Histiocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T lymphocytes
Q.
The cell wall deficient bacteria_______________?
Chlamydiae
Ehrlichiae
Rickettsiae
Mycoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycoplasma
Q.
Pasteur developed the vaccine for_______________?
All of the above
Cholera
Anthrax
Rabies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Borrelia vincenti is always associated with______________?
Spirochaetes
None of the above
Fusiform bacilli
Treponema vincenti
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fusiform bacilli
Q.
The Manufacturing unit of surgical needle & sutures are sterilized by ________________?
Gamma-Rays
X-Rays
Autoclaving
Boiling
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma-Rays
Q.
Glutaraldehyde is preferred more than formaldehyde because______________?
It has got more bactericidal activity
Its application is easier
It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
It has got more bacteriostatic activity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Q.
The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is_____________?
Sabourad
Chorio allantoic membrane
Robertoson
Chocolate agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chorio allantoic membrane
Q.
Rh incompatibility is which type of hyper sensitivity reaction ?
Type I
Type II
Type IV
Type III
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Silver impregnation method of staining is useful to demonstrate_____________?
None of the above
Bacterial flagella
Both of the above
Spirochetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both of the above
Q.
Which of the following would you consider to be general properties of viruses______________?
New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses
Contain DNA but no RNA
Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids
Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Q.
Dematophytes are fungi infecting________________?
Systemic organs
Subcutaneous tissue
Superficial skin and deep tissue
Nails, hair and skin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nails, hair and skin
Q.
Chlamydia causes all of the following except________________?
Parotitis
Pneumonia
Trachoma
Non-gonococcal urethritis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parotitis
Q.
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (SSS syndrome) is due to______________?
Enterotoxin D
Enterotoxin B
Enterotoxin F
Enterotoxin A
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterotoxin F
Q.
Leprosy bacilli are transmitted from person to person by all except______________?
Through intact skin
From open sore
Dischange from nasal mucosa
Through breast milk
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Through breast milk
Q.
ASO (Antistreptolysin 0) test is uesd for the diagnosis of________________?
Rheumatie fever
Rickettsial fever
Rheumatoid arthritis
Typhoid fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatie fever
Q.
Actinomycetes is______________?
Gram negative bacteria
Gram positive bacteria
A yeast like form
Fungus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is_____________?
Ninhydrin stain
Eosin stain
Blue stain
Haemotoxin stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ninhydrin stain
Q.
Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by_____________?
Virus
Bacteria
Bacteria superadded on virus
Parasite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
The term animalcules to oral microorganisms is given by__________________?
Wd miller
Socranci
Robertson
Leumenhoek
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leumenhoek
Q.
Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly_______________?
Skin
Gastrointestinal tract
Nasal mucosa
Lung
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gastrointestinal tract
Q.
Phospholipid used to investigate syphilis by the reagin test is________________?
Plasminogen
Palmityl lecithin
Cardiolipin
Serine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiolipin
Q.
Cleavage of IgG molecule by Papin gives rise to:One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments_______________?
One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
One Fc fragment and four Fab fragments
Two Fc fragment and one Fab fragment
Two Fc fragments and two Fab fragments
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Q.
Following reaction are produced by heterophil antigens except_____________?
Forssman antigen antibody reaction
Weil-Felix reaction
Widal reaction
Paul bunnel reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal reaction
Q.
The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______________?
IgD
IgG
IgE
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV irradiation_______________?
Lipids
Carbohydrates
Nucleic acids
Inorganic salts
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleic acids
Q.
Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by________________?
Sucrose
Epithelial cells
Bacteria
Dextran
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dextran
Q.
The anaphylaxis should be treated first with_____________?
Anti histamines
Steroids
Epinephrine
Antibiotics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epinephrine
Q.
Dorset
Mycobacterium
Streptococcus
Gonococcus
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best demonstrated by_________________?
Gram
H & E stain
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
PAS stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Q.
The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is______________?
Treponjema pertenue
Treponema pallidum
Borrelia vincenti
Borrelia burgdorferi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti
Q.
Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is ________________?
Rhizopus
Mucor
Penicillium
Aspergillus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus
Q.
Best method of sterilizing disposable syringes_______________?
Hot air oven
Gamma rays
Boiling
U.V. rays
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma rays
Q.
Anaphylaxis refers to the________________?
Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions
Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________________?
Melanin production related to virulence
Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Causes meningitis
Basidiomycetes yeast
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Q.
The Process of attenuation can be achieved by all except___________________?
Growing bacteria in adverse environment
Repeated cultures in artificial media
Serial passage in an experimental host
Growing bacteria in unconventional host
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serial passage in an experimental host
Q.
Probiotic organism used_________________?
E coli
Salmonella
Staphylococcus
Bifido bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bifido bacteria
Q.
Staphylococcus does not causes_______________?
Abscess
Pneumonia
Scarlet fever
Osteomyelitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Scarlet fever
Q.
Oil and Grease are sterilized by________________?
Irradiation
Ethylene dioxide
Hot air oven
Auto claving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Most sensitive test for antigen detection is_______________?
Passive hemaglutination
Radioimmuno Assay
ELISA
Immunoflourescence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Radioimmuno Assay
Q.
Antigen combining site of the antibody is____________________?
Epitope
Paratope
Hapten
Idiotope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Paratope
Q.
The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______________?
Necrosis
Vasculitis
Erythema
Induration
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythema
Q.
The most common site where organisms are present in a typhoid carrier is______________?
Gall Bladder
Salivary gland
Spleen
Liver
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gall Bladder
Q.
Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause foetal defect ?
Papilloma
Herpes Simplex
Rubella
Mumps
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Babu, a 28 year old male comes with compaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by____________?
ELISA
P24 antigen
Western blot
Lymph node biopsy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: P24 antigen
Q.
The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is ________________?
lecithinase production
Coagulase production
hypersensitivity
exotoxin production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: hypersensitivity
Q.
In T.B cell mediated immunity is by_______________?
None of the above
CD 4*
CD 8*
B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD 4*
Q.
Australia antigen is associated with________________?
Basal cell carcinoma
Chronic leukemia
AIDS
Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Q.
Incubation pariod of herpes zoster is________________?
1 months
1-2 years
3-6 months
7-14 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 7-14 days
Q.
Salmonella typhi can be isolated at different times from______________?
All of the above
Feaces
Blood
Urine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which of the following antibacterial substance is present in eggs and saliva ?
Isozyme
Albumin
Lysozyme
Secretozyme
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysozyme
Q.
Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection_________________?
Taenia solium
Isopora belli
Balantidium coli
Giardia lambella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Taenia solium
Q.
Electron microscopic examination of the bacterial flora of necrotising ulcerative gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are______________?
Cocci
Bacteriophages
Filamentous rods
Spirochetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
The most frequently encountered clostridial species in gas gangrene is______________?
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium welchii
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium difficile
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Q fever is caused by________________?
Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
C. burnetti
R. prowozekii
R. quintana
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C. burnetti
Q.
Mesophilic organisms are those that grow best at temperature of______________?
55
25
-20
-7
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 25
Q.
An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry cough, sputum culture showed growth on charcoal yeast Extract Medium, theorganism is______________?
Burkholderia cepacia
Moraxella catarrhalis
Legionella
H. influenza
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Legionella
Q.
Techoic acid is present in_____________?
Cell wall of Gram negative organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram negative organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram positive organisms
Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Q.
Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?
Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously
Causes positive Nagler reaction
The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Q.
Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by_________________?
Hookworm
Threadworm
Fish tapeworm
Dog tapeworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fish tapeworm
Q.
Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?
Mycobacteria
Coccidia
Prions
Spore
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prions
Q.
Blood agar is________________?
Enriched media
Simple media
Transport media
Differential media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enriched media
Q.
Signs of tyhoid fever is/are_____________________?
perforation
All of the above
Osteomyelitis
Haemorrhage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by ___________________?
Aspergillus
Candida albicans
Cryptococcus
Mucor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction______________?
Haemophilus
E.coli
Staphylococcus
Proteus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?
Immediately wash wound with soap and water
Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity
Give ARV
Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Q.
One of the following is a zoonotic disease_____________?
Typhoid
Anthrax
Cholera
Bacillary dysentery
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anthrax
Q.
Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of______________?
Wool sorters disease
Whooping cough
Gas gangrene
Malaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gas gangrene
Q.
Which of the following is a live vaccine_____________?
HDCV
Hepatitis
17 D
Salk
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HDCV
Q.
The function of IgD is______________?
Localization protection in external secretion
Compliment activation
Antigen recognition by B cells
Reagin activity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antigen recognition by B cells
Q.
The following statement is true regarding fungal infection__________________?
albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals
Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man
Candida infection is usually endogenous
Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida infection is usually endogenous
Q.
One of the following staining methods is an example of negative staining_______________?
India ink preparation
Gram
Zheil-Neilson
Fontana
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
All are true about widel test except________________________?
H antigen cannot differentiate between subtypes
O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative
Base lines differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Q.
The virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhea include all of the following except____________?
IgA Protease
Outer membrane proteins
M-Proteins
Pili
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M-Proteins
Q.
Characteristic feature of retrovirus is_____________?
Ribonuclease
DNA polymerase
Reverse transcriptase
Restriction endonuclease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reverse transcriptase
Q.
Serum sickness syndrome is an example of________________?
Cell-mediated immunity
Systemic arthus reaction
Angioneurotic edema
Anaphylactic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Systemic arthus reaction
Q.
The Window period in HIV infection means______________?
The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS
The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab
The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
Q.
Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to________________?
reduce the toxigenicity
Increase toxigenicity
Reduce the antigenicity
Increase antigenicity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increase antigenicity
Q.
Which of the following is true about amoebic liver disease ?
Portal system is the main filtration system
Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Left lobe of liver is commonly involved
Non-suppurative form is the serious form of extra intestinal amoebiasis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Q.
Teichoic acid is present in cell walls of_________________?
Protozoa
Gram positive bacteria
Yeast
Gram negative bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Grave
Type III
Type I
Type II
Type IV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Madura mycosis produces______________?
White to yellow granules
Red granules
No granules
Brown to black granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: White to yellow granules
Q.
A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?
Bartonella spp
Pasturella spp
Francisella spp
Brucella spp
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Brucella spp
Q.
Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a_______________?
Western Blot
Immunodot
ELISA
RIPA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Western Blot
Q.
Rabies virus________________?
Dermatotropic
Chromophilic
Cytotropic
Neurotropic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neurotropic
Q.
Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is_______________?
IgA
IgG
IgE
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
B.C.G untrue is_____________?
All of the above
Orally administered
T.B vaccine
live vaccine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orally administered
Q.
In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a_______________?
Hapten
Carrier
Super antigen
Toxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hapten
Q.
Thread worm is______________?
Ancylostoma
Enterobius
Necator
Ascaris
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterobius
Q.
Endotoxin have all but one of the properties given below_______________?
Cannot be toxoided
Not secreted outside the cell
Produced by gram negative bacteria
Produced by gram positive bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Produced by gram positive bacteria
Q.
The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is___________?
Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes
Mannitol fermentation
The catalase test
Detection of coagulase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Detection of coagulase
Q.
Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus is due to ________________________?
Pleomorphism
Penicillin analogue production
Lack of nucleic acid in the cell wall
Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Q.
Influenza is caused by_____________?
Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Q.
Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is_________________?
3:1
1:2
1:3
2:1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2:1
Q.
On a stained slide, clostridium tetani has the appearance of a__________________?
Safely pin
Drum stick
Bunch of a
Chain of beads
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Drum stick
Q.
Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine ?
Varicella Zoster virus
Typhoid
Cholera
Tuberculosis (BCG)
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cholera
Q.
which of the following is anaerobic_______________?
Klebsiella
Bacteroides
Pseudomonas
E.coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacteroides
Q.
Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstratig________________?
Trophozoites in the pus
Trophozoites in the feces
Cysts in the intestine
Cysts in the sterile pus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites in the pus
Q.
The urine sample of a patient has been sent to the laboratory to look for Leptospira. The specimen is to be screened by use of the__________________?
Electron microscope
Inverted microscope
Scanning microscope
Dark ground microscope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dark ground microscope
Q.
Function of Ig A is________________?
Activates macrophages
Circulating antibody
Kills virus infected cells
Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Q.
Aflatoxins are produced by________________?
Aspergillus flavus
All of the above
Aspergillus fumigatus
Aspergillus niger
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus flavus
Q.
The chemotactic factor is______________?
C4a
C3b
C2a
C5a
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C5a
Q.
Characters of exotoxin include all, except_______________?
Protein polysaccharide complex
Heat labile
Highly potent
Has specific tissue affinity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein polysaccharide complex
Q.
Leptospirosis, all are true except______________?
Faeces & urine of rodents is the cause
Onset of IgM in 2 days
Incubation period is 10 days
It is sensitive to penicillin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Onset of IgM in 2 days
Q.
Which of the following belongs to cell fraction derived vaccine______________?
Hepatitis B
Mumps
Rubella
Measles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B
Q.
The killer cells are associated with immunologic response___________________?
Type II
Type IV
Type III
Type I
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
The term epitope refers to________________?
Hapten
complete antigen molecule
Smallest antigenic determinant
Immunogen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Smallest antigenic determinant
Q.
Drumstick appearance is seen in______________?
Cl. tetanomorphum
Cl. tetani
Cl. sphenoids
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. tetani
Q.
The commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercie bacilli________________?
Auramine and Rhodamine
Congo red
Thioglavin
Acridine orange
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine and Rhodamine
Q.
Common name for Trichuris trichura________________?
Tape worm
Whip worm
Round worm
Seat woman
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Whip worm
Q.
Herpes virus_____________?
None of the above
Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane
Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Q.
The specific test for Treponema pallidum is___________?