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TOP Microbiology MCQS Questions
Q.
Bacterial spores are destroyed by_______________?
Disinfection by hypochlorite solution
Autoclave
Pasteurisation
Boiling at 100
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The interaction of antigens with antibodies on the surface of a mast cel leads to degranulation and anaphylaxis. The mast cell granules produce anaphylaxis because they contain________________?
Lymphotoxins
Proteolytic enzymes
Lysosomes
Vasoactive mediators
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vasoactive mediators
Q.
Bacteria with potent exotoxin is_______________?
Clostridium tetani
Pseudomonas
Klebsiella
Shigella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani
Q.
True about prions________________?
Viruses which are genetically deficient
Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective
Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Q.
The best skin disinfectant is________________?
None of the above
Savlon
Chlorhexdine
Alcohol
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chlorhexdine
Q.
Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates_____________?
Simple carriers
Late convalescence
Carrier status
High infectivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: High infectivity
Q.
The facultative anaerobic bacteria are those who are_______________?
Unable to grow in the presence of oxygen
Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Unable to grow in the absence of oxygen
Able to grow in the presence of carbon dioxide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Q.
A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?
Plasmodium malaria
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Erysipelas is caused by________________?
Group B staphylococci
Group A steptococci
Gonococci
Pneumococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B staphylococci
Q.
True about immune response of hepatitis B is__________________?
Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
CMI disappears soon after recover
Antibody to HBC is not protective
Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Q.
Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria______________?
Mc Conkey
Saborauds agar
Loefflers serum slope
Lowenstein Jensen Medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Loefflers serum slope
Q.
A full course of immunization agianst. Telanus with 3 doses to Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how many years ?
10
20
15
5
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 10
Q.
Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?
Virus isolation
ELISA followed by western blot technique
Polymers chain reaction
Western blot followed by ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA followed by western blot technique
Q.
Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-5m in size, multi-septate, chestnut, brown color is characteristic of________________?
Chromoblastomycosis
Rhinosporodiosis
Histoplasmosis
Phaeohypomycosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chromoblastomycosis
Q.
The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell
Haemagglutination test
Haemagglutination inhibition test
Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Q.
An oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod which produces a bluish-green pigment has been grown in culture from a swab obtained from an infected burn wound. This organism is susceptible to gentamicin, ticarcillin and tobramicin, but resistant to all the other antibiotics which of the following organisms is it likely to be ?
Escherichia coli
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Proteus miribilis
Klebsiella pnemoniae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q.
Exaltation is________________?
Increased Virulence
No change
Decreased virulence
None
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increased Virulence
Q.
Which of the following is not true of boiling water_____________?
Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis
Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
It can kill hepatitis B virus
Can kill vegetative bacterial cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Q.
The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is_______________?
IgG
IgM
IgA
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Germ tubes are formed mainly by_______________?
Candida tropicalis
Candida albicans
Candida stellatoidea
Candida pseudotropicalls
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
The best method of sterilization of dressing powder is_____________?
Autoclaving
Tyndallization
Inspissation
Hot air oven
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with______________?
IgA antibodies
IgM antibodies
Lysozyme
Mast cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA antibodies
Q.
Loss of capsule in bacteria is generally associated with______________?
Decease in virulence
Inability to spread through tissue
increase in invasiveness
Loss of infectivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Decease in virulence
Q.
Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify______________?
Spirochaetes
Mycoplasma
Chlamydiae
Rickettsiae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochaetes
Q.
Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_____________?
Aspergilosis
Cryptococcosis
Tuberculosis
Candidiasis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candidiasis
Q.
Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans_________________?
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Hot air oven is used for sterilization of all EXCEPT__________________?
Liquid paraffin
Glassware
Sharp instrument
Rubber tubes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubber tubes
Q.
Which worm is longest________________?
T. Solium
Hook worm
A. Lumbricoides
T. Saginata
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T. Saginata
Q.
Malignant pustule is referred to_________________?
Infected squamous cell carcinoma
None of the above
Facio-cervical actinomycosis
Cutaneous anthrax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cutaneous anthrax
Q.
In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started________________?
Influenza
Rabies
Herpes
Poliomyelitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabies
Q.
True about VDRL test________________?
Slide flocculation test
Non
All of the above
Best followed for drug therapy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is_____________?
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis A virus
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis C virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
Lancefields classification of B hemolytic streptococcus is based on______________?
Type of lipid in cell membrane
Physiological properties
M Protein
Polysaccharide C antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Polysaccharide C antigen
Q.
Virulence of Gonococcus is due to___________________?
Cell Membrane
Cytolytic enzymes
Pili
Its intracellular location
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
Which of the following fulfil all the criterias of kich
Treponema pallidum
N. gonorrhoeae
None of the above
Mycobacterium leprae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: None of the above
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria grow_______________?
in the absence of oxygen
in the presence of oxygen
in the presence of nitrogen
differential media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in the absence of oxygen
Q.
Which of the following is an acid-fast bacillus_____________?
Treponema pallidum
All of the above
Neisseria gonorrhea
Mycobacterium bacilli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium bacilli
Q.
Which of the following is obligate aerobe ?
diphtheria
Proteus
Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Q.
Malaria pigment is________________?
Haematin-globin pigment
Bilurubin
Iron
Haemoglobin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haematin-globin pigment
Q.
The key cell types involved in the acquired immunity include all EXCEPT________________?
Antigen presenting cells (APC
T lymphocytes
Erythrocytes
B lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythrocytes
Q.
Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor_____________?
Carbohydrate cell wall
Pyrogenic exotoxin
M protein
Streptolysin 0
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pyrogenic exotoxin
Q.
The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as_____________?
Paratope
Epitope
Clone
Idiotope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epitope
Q.
Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose_______________?
Contact dermatitis
Serum sickness
Anaphylaxis
Arthus reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Immunoglobulin consists of________________?
1 light, 1 heavy chain
1 heavy, 2 light chains
2 light, 2 heavy chains
3 light, 1 heavy chain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2 light, 2 heavy chains
Q.
Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in________________?
Tissue culture
Chick embryos
Rabbit testis only
Artificial media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabbit testis only
Q.
Which of the following characteristics of bacteria is not true?
Free living
Cell wall containing muramic acid
Having either DNA or RNA
Unicellular
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Having either DNA or RNA
Q.
A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT________________?
Linezolid
Imipenem
Teichoplanin
Vancomycin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Imipenem
Q.
The overall effect of HIV is to gradually impair the immune system by interference with______________?
Macrophages
Helper T lymphocytes
Plasma cells
Natural killer cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes
Q.
Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?
Core antigen
Surface antigen
Core antibody
Surface antibody
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Surface antigen
Q.
Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies_____________?
Measles
Chicken pox
Small pox
Rabies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles
Q.
Prozone phenomenon is due to______________?
Excess antigen
Disproportionate antigen antibody levels
Excess antibody
Hyper immune reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Excess antibody
Q.
Actinomycosis is a_________________?
Aerobic bacterial disease
Aerobic fungal disease
Anaerobic bacterial disease
Anaerobic fungal disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic bacterial disease
Q.
HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except________________?
Sexual intercourse
Saliva
Blood transmission
Needle prick injury
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saliva
Q.
Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_______________?
Complex multiplication
All of the above
Simple structure
Presence of either DNA or RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
False +ve for VDRL is seen in______________?
Yaws
Malaria
Lepromatous Leprosy
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Most fungi of medical importance belongs to__________________?
Ascomycetes
Zygomycetes
Deuteromycetes
Basidiomycetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deuteromycetes
Q.
Most of the drug resistances occurs due to_____________?
conjugation
Transformation
Transduction
Mutation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: conjugation
Q.
The bacterial cell wall has all of the following properties except______________?
It is the structure principally responsible for the reaction of gram staining
It is a unique flexible plastic structure
It contains D-isomers of amino acids
It consists of a mixed polymer called peptidoglycon
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It is a unique flexible plastic structure
Q.
The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is_____________?
Tuberculosis
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Apthous stomatitis
Herpetic gingivostomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Q.
Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in which of the following viruses_____________?
Pox virus
HIV
Hepatitis B virus
Measles virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is______________?
Bartonella henselae
Chlamydia trachomatis
Donovania granulomatis
Hemophilia ducreya
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bartonella henselae
Q.
Which of the following is not a feature of anaphylaxis ?
Immediate reaction
None of the above
Delayed reaction
passive transfer by serum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Delayed reaction
Q.
DNA covering material in a virus is called as________________?
Envelope
Nucleocapsid
Capsomere
Capsid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Capsid
Q.
ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______________?
More sensitive, less specific
Less sensitive less specific
More sensitive, more specific
Less sensitive, more specific
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: More sensitive, less specific
Q.
Who first introduced solid media_______________?
Robert koch
Ogston
Hensen
Louis pasteur
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robert koch
Q.
cAMP reaction is shown by which streptococci ?
Group C
Group D
Group A
Group B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B
Q.
Widal test is specific for____________?
Typhoid
Leprosy
Pemhigoid
Plague
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid
Q.
Which of the following is not a koch
The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue
When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Pure cultures can be obtained
Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the experimental animals
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Q.
All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_________________?
histolytica
gingivalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: gingivalis
Q.
When horse serum is injected intravenoulsy in to a rabbit and again in to the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs as the site of the second injection________________?
Atopy
Arthus phenomenon
Serum sickness
Anaphylaxis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus phenomenon
Q.
Fimbriae are demonstrated by ___________________?
Haemagglutination test
Gram stain
Culture
Biochemical reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haemagglutination test
Q.
The following is not true of Candida albicans______________?
Blastomeres seen in isolates
Yeast like fungus
Forms Chlamydospores
Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blastomeres seen in isolates
Q.
The temperature required for cultivating mycobacterium________________?
2 degree
0 degree
37 degrees
27 degrees
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 37 degrees
Q.
All are true about bordetella pertussis except______________?
Bacteria culture from nasopharyngeal swab is the definitive diagnosis
Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
It may occur in children and young adult after vaccination
Most common cause is B. Petrussis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Q.
Causative organism of Kalahazar is_______________?
Toxoplasma
Entamoeba histolytica
Leishman donovani
Plasmodium ovaie
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leishman donovani
Q.
Interferon interferes with replication of virus at the time of_____________?
DNA/RNA replication
When virus enters the cell
Protein synthesis
Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein synthesis
Q.
Rideal Walker test is used to determine the efficiency of the_____________?
Disinfectant
Moist heat sterilisation
Dry heat sterilization
Antibiotics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Disinfectant
Q.
The difference between sterilization and disinfection is that_______________?
Sterilization is easier to achieve
Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Disinfection kills all spores but sterilization does not
Sterilization involves chemicals and disinfection involves physical methods
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Q.
The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is_______________?
Translation
Transformation
Lysogeny
Conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysogeny
Q.
For uniform staining reaction, morphology and biochemical activity it is advisable to study bacterial cultures during the_____________?
Stationary phase
Lag phase
Logarithmic phase
Death phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Logarithmic phase
Q.
The structure in involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface is_______________?
Capsule
Flagella
Fimbria
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fimbria
Q.
Vibrio cholera was discovered by_________________?
Medintoff
Koch
John snow
Virchow
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Koch
Q.
Noguchi
Borrelia
Brucella
Bordetella
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia
Q.
Donovanosis, true is___________________?
Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic
Penicillin is drug of choice
Characterized by painful genital ulcers
Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Q.
Which of the following statement about P24 antigen of HIV is Not True ?
It can be detected during the window period
Virus load parallel P24 titre
It remains during asymptomatic phase
Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It remains during asymptomatic phase
Q.
A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?
Allograft
Isograft
Autograft
Xenograft
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Isograft
Q.
In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_______________?
Hypnozoite
Gametocyte
Merozoite
Sporozoite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sporozoite
Q.
Virus infected cell is killed by________________?
Autolysis
Macrophages
Interferons
Neutrophils
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Interferons
Q.
In small intestine, cholera toxin acts by______________?
ADP
Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
Active absorption of NaCI
Activation of GTPase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ADP
Q.
Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by_____________?
Nisseria
Streptococcus viridans
Staphylococcus aureus
Haemolytic streptococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus viridans
Q.
Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by______________?
Hot air oven
UV-Radiation
Inspissation
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Candida is most often implicated in causation___________________?
Conjunctivitis
Tenea capitis
Thrush
Desert rheumatism
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thrush
Q.
Diphtheria is pathogenic only when infected with______________?
Delta Phage
Alfa phage
Lambda K12
Beta phage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Beta phage
Q.
The antigen used in Weil Felix test is obtained from________________?
Staphylococcus
Proteus
coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to______________?
CD8 T-cells
NK
CD4 T-cells
B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4 T-cells
Q.
Actinomycosis is caused by______________?
Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Retrovirus
Acid fast, non-motile bacillus
Fungus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Q.
The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route________________?
Hepatitis D virus
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______________?
PCR is
Both are
Western Blot is
ELISA IS
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both are
Q.
Lepromin test is useful for________________?
Prognosis
Epidemiology
Diagnosis
Treatment plan
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prognosis
Q.
Staphylococci typically occur in_________________?
Irregular clusters
Chains
Tetrads
Pairs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Irregular clusters
Q.
The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the________________?
VL domian
CH1 domian
CL domian
CH2 domian
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CH2 domian
Q.
Multiple drug resistance of bacteria depends on which of the following_______________?
Fertility factor (F+)
All of the above
Colicigenic factor (Col)
Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Q.
Immunity that is conferred to the foetus by transfer of IgG and IgA antibodies is called as______________?
Natural active immunity
Active acquired immunity
Passive acquired immunity
Passive natural immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Passive natural immunity
Q.
Viron is defined as______________?
A smallest particle similar to virus
Smallest virus
Extracellular infectious virus particle
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Extracellular infectious virus particle
Q.
Cough plate method is used to identify________________?
Mycoplasma
M-Tuberculosis
Y. pestis
Pertussis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pertussis
Q.
Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functional of the cell______________?
Capsule
membrane
wall
nucleus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: membrane
Q.
A dentist suffred from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is_____________?
Convalscent carrier
Inactive carrier
Healthy carrier
Paradoxical carrier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Convalscent carrier
Q.
Sunlight acts as sterilizing agent because_________________?
Ozone
Heat
Long wavelength
short wave lenght
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: short wave lenght
Q.
Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in______________?
9 weeks
4 weeks
12 weeks
2 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4 weeks
Q.
What is the sequence which a retro virus follows on entering a host cell ?
RNA -DNA-RNA
RNA-DNA
DNA-RNA
DNA-RNA-DNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: RNA -DNA-RNA
Q.
Nagglers reaction detects________________?
Coagulase
Hyaluronidase
Lecithinase
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Man is the only reservoir for_______________?
Camphylobacter jejuni
histolytica
Y. enterocolitica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: histolytica
Q.
Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_________________?
Theta toxin
Desmolase
Cytokinin
Lecithinase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except___________________?
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through bacteriophages
through conjugation
Though plasmids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is__________________?
Immune blood transfusion
Hepatitis vaccination
Gamma globulin injection
Placental transfer of antibodies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Placental transfer of antibodies
Q.
All are true about legionella pneumophilia except______________?
Urine test is a reliable method
Aquatic bodies are main habitat
It can replicate in amoeba
Person to person transmission
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Person to person transmission
Q.
Smith noguchi
Bacillus
Salmonella
Spirochetes
Klebsiella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
Tyndallisation is carried out for________________?
One day
60 minutes
Two successive days
Three successive days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Three successive days
Q.
Prions true is____________?
Sensitive to most chemical sterilization
Contains DNA/ RNA
Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Evokes strong immunogenic reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Q.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which of the following________________?
Active T cells
NK cells
B-cells
Plasma cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active T cells
Q.
All are oncogenic except________________?
Mansoni
Anopheles
Aedes
Culex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aedes
Q.
Which of the following viruses appears to be involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi
Human Herpes Virus 4
Human Herpes Virus 3
Human Herpes Virus 1
Human Herpes Virus 8
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Human Herpes Virus 4
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Vincent
Caused by leptospira interrogans
A symbiotic infection
Caused due to malnutrition
Ulcerative gingivostomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by leptospira interrogans
Q.
Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores can be achieved with_______________?
KOH wet mount
Peri-iodic Acid Schiff
Hematoxylin and Eosin
Grocott Gomori Methenamine silver
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: KOH wet mount
Q.
The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum ?
IgG3
IgG2
IgG4
IgG1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG1
Q.
Cytopathic effect is shown by_____________?
Virus
Anaerobe
Bacteria
Spirochete
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
Methods for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infection________________?
KOH staining
Microscopic examination of skin scrapings
Wood light examination
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Culture medium used for Bordatella pertussis is_________________?
Wilson Blair medium
Robertson cooked meat medium
Bile broth
Bordet Gengou medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bordet Gengou medium
Q.
Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_____________________?
no antibodies are present in primary HSV
only after one year
antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis
in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
Q.
Graft versus host reaction is caused by_________________?
T-lymphocytes
Monocytes
Leukocytes
B-Lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T-lymphocytes
Q.
Black pigmented anaerobes include all of the following except______________?
Porphyromonas
Buccae
Prevotella
Tannerella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Buccae
Q.
A protoplast is best characterized as a bacterial cell______________?
Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Uniquely sensitive to penicillin
containing a cell wall and a capsule
with a cell wall but free of a capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Q.
Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes______________?
NK Cells
B cells
Cytotoxic T cells
Memory B cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NK Cells
Q.
Grape bunch shaped colonies are seen in______________?
Gonococci
E.coli
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staphylococcus
Q.
The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is_______________?
Adeno
Parvo virus
Hepatitis
EB virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parvo virus
Q.
Most antibodies are produced in the________________?
Spleen and the lymph nodes
Heart and the liver
Thymus and the appendix
Brain and the meninges
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spleen and the lymph nodes
Q.
Post streptococcal acute glomerulo nephritis is an example of________________?
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type III hypersensitivity
Q.
Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups ?
Hepadana viruses
Flavi viruses
Picorna viruses
Herpes viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi viruses
Q.
Phase contrast microscopy is based on principle of__________________?
Light scattering
Different reflective indices of object
Light attenuation
Different refractive indices of object
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Different refractive indices of object
Q.
The medium of choice for culturing yeast from of dimorphic fungi is_________________?
Sabouraud
Brain
Sabouraud
Any medium incubated at 35-37
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
The diagnosis of gonorrhea is established by_____________?
Compliment fixation tests
Haemagglutination tests
All of the above tests
Pili agglutination tests
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above tests
Q.
Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to______________?
Thread worm
Ascaris
Hook worm
Guinea worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hook worm
Q.
Candida albicans causes all of the following except______________?
Meningitis
Mycetoma
Endocarditis
Oral thrush
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycetoma
Q.
CD4 count in normal healthy adult is_______________?
200
1000
300
500
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1000
Q.
A darkfield microscope would be useful in examining blood for_______________?
Mycobacterium
Streptococcus
Actinomyces
Treponema
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema
Q.
Immunoglobulins ar secreted by______________?
T-cells
Plasma cells
Neutrophils
Macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasma cells
Q.
Haptane is_______________?
Same as epitopes
Carrier required for specific antibody production
None of the above
High molecular protein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Carrier required for specific antibody production
Q.
Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by______________?
Isolation form stool
Isolation from bile
Culture from blood
IgM antibodies in serum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM antibodies in serum
Q.
VDRL is a________________?
Slide flocculation test
Tube flocculation test
Latex agglutination test
Tube agglutination test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Slide flocculation test
Q.
One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is____________?
Supervision
Permutation
Mutation
Viral interference
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Viral interference
Q.
The difference between gram positive and negative bacteria lies in their_______________?
Nuclear material
cell wall
Mesosomes
cell membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cell wall
Q.
The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are______________?
Gram negative organisms
Mycoplasma
Virus infections
Gram positive organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram negative organisms
Q.
Endotoxins differ from exotoxins in that endotoxins______________?
are heat labile
are highly antigenic
activate complement by the alternate pathway
are proteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: activate complement by the alternate pathway
Q.
The Dane particle is the______________?
HBV
HBC Ag
IgG anti HAV
Delta Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBV
Q.
Tuberculin test screens for_____________?
Cell mediated immunity
Complement function
Hemoral immunity
Phagocyte dysfunction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell mediated immunity
Q.
Endoscopes are sterilized by using_______________?
Boiling
Autoclaving
Cidex
Gamma radiation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Boiling
Q.
One of the following statement about statements about sterilization is not true_______________?
Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Liquid paraffin ? Dry heat
Flash pasteurization of milk ? 72
Glass syringes ? Boiling at 169
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Q.
Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?
Adjuvant
Proteins
Lipids
Polysaccharides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteins
Q.
IgG antibodies have a half-life of approximately_______________?
1 hour
1 week
1 Month
1 day
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 Month
Q.
Exotoxins are____________________?
Lipoprotein
None
Protein compound
Lipid-polysaccharide complex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein compound
Q.
Following is a retrovirus_____________?
Immunodeficiency virus
Hepatitis virus
Influenza
Polio virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immunodeficiency virus
Q.
The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement_________________?
IgM
IgG
IgE
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
The reaginic antibody is________________?
IgE
IgG
IgA
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Kaposi
Above 600
Above 2000
Below 200
Between 1000-2000
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Below 200
Q.
All are not true for cultivation of anaerobic organisms except_______________?
anaerobic jar
Refrigerator
Incubator
Centrifuge
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: anaerobic jar
Q.
Each of the following can cause food poisoning except________________?
Cl. welchii
Cl. botulinum
Cl. difficile
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. difficile
Q.
Which of the following does not go into chronic hepatitis stage ?
HEV
HDV
HCV
HBV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HEV
Q.
Physical sterilization was discovered by__________________?
Alexander flemings
John Hunter
Joeph Lister
Robert Koch
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Joeph Lister
Q.
Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito______________?
Gametocyte
Sporozoite
Zygote
Merozoite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gametocyte
Q.
Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with_______________?
Giemsa stain
Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Ziel Nelson
Kin Young stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Q.
Which of the following are correctly matched ?
Antigenic stimulus given by vaccine (polio) is artificial active immunity
Transfer of antibody from mother to child is through colostrum and acquired passive immunity naturally
Injection of antibodies (Hepatitis) is artificially acquired passive immunity
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which is type II hypersensitivity ?
Delayed hypersensitivity
Anaphylaxis
Immune complex mediated
Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Q.
By using phase contrast microscope_______________?
Internal metabolic activities can be observed
Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Internal structures are differentiated in dead cells
External capsule formation can be observed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Q.
One of the following is a treponemal test for diagnosis of syphilis_____________?
Wasserman test
Widal test
FTAB
Kahn test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: FTAB
Q.
Which of the following have the capability to produce extra cellular polysaccharides______________?
Peptostreptococcus
Strep. pyogenes
Strep. Mutans
Enterococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strep. Mutans
Q.
Opportunistic infection is caused by___________________?
Aspergillus
All of the above
Penicillium
Mucor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The minimum time required for the sterilization of surgical instruments by moist heat at 134
30 minutes
60 minutes
3 minutes
15 minutes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3 minutes
Q.
Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti_________________?
Terminal nuclei absent
Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Causes filariasis
Body is slender and long
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Q.
Granules in the corynebacterium diphtheria are called by following names, except______________?
Refractile granules
Babes Ernst granules
Metachromatic granules
Voluntin granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile granules
Q.
Neurotoxin of tetanus acts on______________?
Brain
Muscle
Synapse
Spinal card
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spinal card
Q.
Sporulation occurs in__________________?
Lag phase
Stationary phase
Log phase
Decline phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
True about HIV are all except______________?
Attacks CD4 cells
Decrease CD4 count in late stages
DNA virus
Macrophages are the reservoir
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: DNA virus
Q.
IgG has subclasses_______________?
1
2
3
4
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4
Q.
Anti HBsAB indicates______________?
Good prognosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Resistance to hepatitis B
Acute infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Good prognosis
Q.
Causative agents of Vincent
Leptospira and Treponema pallidum
Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Borrelia recurrents and bateroides
Borrelia burgoloferi and lactobacillus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Q.
Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______________?
Transfusion reaction
Contact dermatitis
Serum sickness
Atopic allergy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is________________?
Counter immune electroporesis
Microscopy
ELISA
Indirect hemagglutination
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA
Q.
Test for differentiating virulent form non-virulent tubercular bacilli_____________?
Catalase peroxidase test
Niacin test
Aryl sulphatase test
Neutral red test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neutral red test
Q.
Rickettsiae__________________?
Multiply within living cell
All of the above
Respond to tetracycline therapy
Transmitted by arthropod vectors
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Virus is cultured in_______________?
Rogosa medium
Saubourd
Embryonated egg
Nonembryonated egg
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Embryonated egg
Q.
Disinfection frees the surface from______________?
Vegetative forms
Both of the above
Spore forms
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vegetative forms
Q.
Human immunoglobulins are divided based on_____________?
Structural differences
None of the above
Functional differences
Complemented fixation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Structural differences
Q.
Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to__________________?
Exotoxin
Capsule
Invasion
Endotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Exotoxin
Q.
Chemotactic cytokine is_________________?
TNF
IL-6
IL-1
IL-8
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IL-8
Q.
The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in vivo from one bacterium to another by_____________?
Transformation
Transduction
Conjugation
Rarefaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
The culture media for fungus is__________________?
Chocolate agar medium
NNN medium
Sabourauds medium
Tellurite medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabourauds medium
Q.
Immunoglobin, Which is produced first by the fetus in response to infection_______________?
IgM
IgD
IgA
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Which of the following is an enrichment medium________________?
Selenite F Broth
Mac Conkey agar
Nutrient Broth
Blood agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Selenite F Broth
Q.
What is the transport medium for cholera___________________?
B & C
Cary Blair Medium
Venkatraman
Tellurite Medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: B & C
Q.
A type of immediately occuring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called_____________?
Type I hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type I hypersensitivity
Q.
Same or closely related antigens present in different biological species are known as________________?
Isoantigens
Suquestrated antigens
Haptens
Heterophile antigens
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Heterophile antigens
Q.
One of the following is an agglutination test in the diagnosis of typhoid___________?
Wasserman test
Widal test
Mantoux test
Eleks test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
Sterilization is a process in which_________________?
Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Kill all pathogenic micro-organisms
Deactivate all pathogens not spores
Kill all non-pathogenic micro-organisms in the environment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Q.
Human immune deficiency virus is ________________ virus?
Rhabdo
Flavi
Retro
Rheo
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Retro
Q.
A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned in to an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis______________?
Calcoflour White
Carbol Fuschin
Acid Fast Stain
Trichrome Methylene blue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trichrome Methylene blue
Q.
Half-life of free HIV in plasma is________________?
12 hours
3 months
24 hours
6 hours
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 6 hours
Q.
Among The infectious diseases transmitted by food, one is___________________?
Tuberculosis
Diptheria
Viral stomatitis
Typhoid fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid fever
Q.
Moist heat kills all of the following EXCEPT_______________?
Mycobacterium
Brucella
Coxiella burnetti
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coxiella burnetti
Q.
The Ig found in exocrine secretions is_____________?
IgM
IgD
IgG
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Operation theatres are sterilized by_____________?
Carbolic acid spraying
ETO gas
Washing with soap and water
Formaldehyde fumigation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Formaldehyde fumigation
Q.
Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci________________?
Staphylococcus
Aerococcus
Micrococcus
Sarcina
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sarcina
Q.
About Bacteroids True are all Except_______________?
Susceptible to many antibiotics
Present mainly in mixed infections
Bile resistant anerobes
Most common species is B fragilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Susceptible to many antibiotics
Q.
Encapsulation in bacteria helps in__________________?
Oxygen effect
Decreased virulence
Prevent their phagocytosis
Spore formation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prevent their phagocytosis
Q.
In initial stages of tyhoid, salmonella can be detected in________________?
Feacus
Blood
All of the above
Urine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood
Q.
All of the following are true of streptococcus except_____________?
Most common is animals
Most common in humans
Shows adherence to dental enamel
It
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It
Q.
Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phase of the bacterial growth curve______________?
Lag
Stationary phase
Decline
Exponential growth
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
Viruses can be cultured in all except_______________?
Chick embryo
Blood agar
Cell culture
Guinea pigs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood agar
Q.
Kolmer test is a screening test done for_________________?
Lymphoma
Gonorrhea
Syphilis
Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Function of T-lymphocyte is/are________________?
Rosette formation
Lymphokine production
Production of interferon
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The following are applicable to bacterial genoms except________________?
It is circular
Its DNA has both introns and extrons
It is composed of DNA
It doe not contain histones
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Q.
EBV causes all except_________________?
Carcinoma of nasopharynx
Burkitt
Papilloma
Infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma
Q.
Which of the following is not used as disinfectant________________?
1-2% cetrimide
100% alcohol
5% chloroxylene
2% Lysol
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 100% alcohol
Q.
Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by_______________?
M. ulcerans
M. Kansasii
M. chelonae
M. smegmatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. chelonae
Q.
All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except____________?
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis E
Hepatitis B
HIV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Which of the following correctly indicates the infectivity of hepatitis virus in human ?
HBCAg
Anti-HBC
Anti-HBS
HBeAg
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBeAg
Q.
In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except__________________?
Bone marrow depression
Hemolysis
Malabsorption
Spleen sequestration
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Malabsorption
Q.
Which of the following is not a pox virus ?
Small pox
Molluscum contagiosum
Cowpox
chicken pox
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: chicken pox
Q.
A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is______________?
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Methanamine silver stain
Pyte-ferraco stain
India ink preparation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
Staphylococcal food poisoning includes the following features_______________?
Common with dairy products
Incubation period of 24 hours
Requires immediate antibiotics
Heat labile enterotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Common with dairy products
Q.
Causative organism for gas gangrene_______________?
Strep. Faecalis
Coli
Clostridium welchii
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Streptococcus is classified based on__________________?
Bile Solubility
M Protein
Cell wall carbohydrate
Cultural characteristics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall carbohydrate
Q.
compared with autoclave, use of a dry heat over for sterilization has the following disadvantages______________?
Time-consuming
Causes sharp instruments to dull
Less effective
Causes instruments to rust
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Time-consuming
Q.
Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces?
Pili
Flagella
Mesosomes
Capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except_____________?
Salmonella typhi
Neisseria meningitides
Streptococcus pyogenes
Legionella pneumophila
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus pyogenes
Q.
The best sterilization method for a hand-piece is________________?
chemical vapour
dry heat
Ethylene oxide gas
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ethylene oxide gas
Q.
Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is____________?
Secretory IgA
Histidine rich proteins
Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Sialoperoxidase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Q.
Sleeping sickness is caused by_______________?
Sand fly
House fly
Tick
Reduvid bug
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reduvid bug
Q.
The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_____________?
Tenia incognito
Alopecia areata
Pilomatrixoma
Kerison
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kerison
Q.
Steam under pressure in used in ________ sterilization?
Kochs sterilizer
hot air oven
Autoclave
Pasteurization
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The small nonparticulate protein leading to enhanced replication of HBV as well as HIV is______________?
HBs Ag
Hbe Ag
HBx Ag
HBc Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBx Ag
Q.
T cells multiplication is stimulated by_______________?
Bovine serum
Heat
Phytohaemagglutinin
Macrolin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Phytohaemagglutinin
Q.
Bacteria reproduce mainly by______________?
Sporing
Bacterial components produced by host cells
Budding
Binary fission
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Binary fission
Q.
The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine doses not play a major role is______________?
Asthma
Urticaria
Anaphylaxis
Arthus reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus reaction
Q.
Robertsons cooked meat medium is best suited for cultivation of_______________?
Choleria
Clostridia
Mycobacterium
S. epidermidis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridia
Q.
A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates________________?
Prodromal phase
Convalescence
Acute infection
Carrier state
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acute infection
Q.
Which of the following organisms does NOT react with gram
Actinomyces israelii
Streptococcus mutan
Candida albicans
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q.
Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins ?
IgE
IgG
IgM
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Disinfection of the rooms can be done by using_______________?
Chlorine gas
High efficiency particle arrestors
40% formaldehyde vapour
20% phenol
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 40% formaldehyde vapour
Q.
Negative staining is used to demonstrate________________?
Bacterial spore
Bacterial Flagella
Bacterial fimbriae
Bacterial capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacterial fimbriae
Q.
Which is not true about vibrio cholera_________________?
Man is the only natural host
It is non-halophilic
Grows on simple media
Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Q.
Group A carbohydrate of Str. pyogenes cross reacts with human_________________?
Myocardium
Synovial fluid
Vascular intima
Cardiac valves
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiac valves
Q.
Pneumococus can be differentiated from streptococcus by________________?
Type of hemolysis
Bile solubility
Gram staining
Growth characteristics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bile solubility
Q.
Phage conversion is required for________________?
Diptheria
Gonorrhoea
Tularemia
All o f the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Diptheria
Q.
parasitic inflammation would show predominantly____________________?
Eosinophils
Neutrophilis
Lymphocytes
Basophils
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Eosinophils
Q.
Pseudohphae are seen in____________?
Osporium
Alternaria
Candida albicans
Aspergillus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?
Epidemic typhus
Q fever
Trench fever
Relapsing fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Q fever
Q.
The causative organism of syphilis is___________?
Chalamydia trachomatis
Leptospira interrogans
Treponema pallidum
Borrelia burgolorferi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema pallidum
Q.
Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except______________?
Ascaris lumbriocoides
Strongyloides
Entamoeba
Giardia lambia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strongyloides
Q.
Toxoids are_________________?
antigenic and toxic
non-antigenic and toxic
antigenic and non-toxic
non-antigenic and non-toxic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: antigenic and non-toxic
Q.
Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000_________________?
H chain
J piece
Secretory piece
L chain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: H chain
Q.
IL-1 is produced by_________________?
Helper B cells
Monocytes
Macrophages
Helper T cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Macrophages
Q.
In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by_____________?
Urine culture
Blood culture
Stool culture
Widal test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except__________________?
Most common cause of urethritis is male
Found exclusively in human beings.
All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Q.
Pigs are important source of_____________?
Yellow fever
Rabies
Japanese encephalitis
Kuru
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Japanese encephalitis
Q.
A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains and haemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism ?
Optochin sensitivity
Cataslase positive
Bile solubility
Bacitracin sensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacitracin sensitivity
Q.
Organ of locomotion in bacteria is________________?
Flagella
Cell wall
Capsule
Fimbria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flagella
Q.
All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except______________?
Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital
Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide
Colony morphology on saliva agar
Gram staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram staining
Q.
Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in______________?
Ascariasis and tapeworm
Ascariasis
Tapeworm
Hood worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ascariasis
Q.
Bacteria with tuft of flagella at one end are called_______________?
Monotrichate
Bipolar
Lophotrichate
Peritrichate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lophotrichate
Q.
Certain viruses have been isolated in crytalline form and have been found to be_____________?
Phospholipids
Scleroproteins
Nucleotides
Nucleoproteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleoproteins
Q.
Fungal infection of human beings is called as_____________?
Fungosis
Micromia
Mucorsis
Mycosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycosis
Q.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa_________________?
Does not produce any pigment
Produces heat stable enterotoxin
Causes Shangai fever
Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Causes Shangai fever
Q.
The world german measles is applied for_____________?
Rubella
Rubeola
Herpetic ginglvostomatitis
Herpes simplex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Which of the following provides best gurantee for sterlization in the heat sterilizer ?
Using chemical indicator strip or pouch
Recording a temperature/ pressure readings from sterilizer guage
Determining the ability of a sterilizer to kill the hepatitis B virus
Using a bacterial spore test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Using a bacterial spore test
Q.
Active artificial immunization is induced by the administration of all of the following EXCEPT______________?
Toxoids
Antitoxins
Vaccines
Bacterial products
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antitoxins
Q.
Plaque test is used routinely in virology lab
To prepare vaccines
To maintain certain viral culture
Identification of viral disease
To separate specific clone of virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Identification of viral disease
Q.
The commonest method of detection of diptheria carriers is_______________?
Schick test
Dick test
Casoni
Charles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Schick test
Q.
Most common tumor associated with AIDS is______________?
Kaposi
Carcinoma
Melanoma
Ewing
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kaposi
Q.
Which of the following is a RNA virus ?
Adeno virus
Measles virus
Herpes Virus
Papavo virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
A 6 year old boy comes with abdominal pain, vomiting after consuming mild products within 6 hours. The most likely organism responsible is______________?
Staph. aureus
Clostridium botulinum
B.Cereus
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staph. aureus
Q.
The medium of choice for growing most fungi is_______________?
Thioglycollate medium
Tissue culture
Blood agar
Sabouraud
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
Hydatid cyst is__________________?
Fungal
Viral
Parasitic in nature
Congenital
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parasitic in nature
Q.
Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called______________?
De coding
Chemotaxis
Opsonisation
CFT
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Opsonisation
Q.
The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is___________________?
2%
10%
15%
5%
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2%
Q.
Selective media for MYCOBACTERIUM _____________?
Agar
Sabourauds medium
Loefflers serum slope
Lowenstein Jensen medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lowenstein Jensen medium
Q.
A sporangium contains_______________?
Spherules
porangiospores
Chlamydospores
Oidia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: porangiospores
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria can be cultured in__________________?
Sabourauds agar
Loefflers medium
Robertson cooked meat medium
L-J medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robertson cooked meat medium
Q.
All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except________________?
Cysts are 4 nucleated
Cysts are 8 nucleated
Trophozoites colonise in the colon
The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cysts are 8 nucleated
Q.
Gram -ve bacteria stain during gram staining____________?
Blue color
Colorless
Green
Red color
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Red color
Q.
The optimal time and temperature required for sterilization in an autoclave is___________________?
121
140
121
121
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 121
Q.
Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus ?
Focal epithelial hyperplasia
Condyloma acuminatum
Verruca vulgaris
Keratoacanthoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Keratoacanthoma
Q.
IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by______________?
Platelet
Lymphocytes
Activated macrophages
Plasma cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Activated macrophages
Q.
The major intestinal pathogens which are non-lactose fermenters are_________________?
Escherichia
Salmonella
Klebsiella
Paracolons
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salmonella
Q.
Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by________________?
Culture
DNA probe
ELISA
Direct microscopy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Culture
Q.
Which component of the cell wall is responsible________________?
Boivin antigen
Region III
Region II
Region I
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Region III
Q.
In patients with asthma due to an allergic cause the serum levels of which immunoglobulin increase____________________?
IgA
IgM
IgD
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Which regards to temperature requirement, most pathogenic bacteria are_____________?
Thermophiles
Cryophiles
Psychrophiles
Mesophiles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mesophiles
Q.
Negative phase is seen in ________ immunity?
Herd
Local
Passive
Active
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active
Q.
Bacterial cell does not possess___________________?
Ribosome
Mitochondria
dna
Cell wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mitochondria
Q.
Australian antigen is_______________?
HBV
None of the above
HBs AG
HB Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBs AG
Q.
Which does not have a viral etiology______________?
Hepatoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Carcinoma Cervix
Lymphoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Endotoxins are produced by________________?
Gram +ve bacteria
Gram -ve bacteria
Fungi
Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram -ve bacteria
Q.
EBV is responsible for all except______________?
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Burkitt
Infectious mononucleosis
Hepatoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Complement factor through which common pathway begins___________________?
Protein B
C3
C5
C2
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C3
Q.
Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is___________________?
Brain
Liver
Lungs
Spleen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Liver
Q.
The time gap between appearance of Koplik
2 weeks
10 days
3-4 days
24 Hrs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3-4 days
Q.
CD4 cells recognize the antigens in association with_____________?
B-cell receptor
MHC III
MHC II
MHC I
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: MHC II
Q.
Each of the following viruses possesses an outer lipoprotein envelope except_____________?
Influenza Virus
Human immunodeficiency virus
Papilloma Virus
Varicella Zoster Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma Virus
Q.
Mark true in following ?
Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
None of the above
Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Q.
First released immunoglobulin after primary immunization_______________?
IgD
IgM
IgG
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is_________________?
Escherichia coli
Streptococcus fecalis
Neisseria gonorrhea
T-strain mycoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Escherichia coli
Q.
Black water fever is caused by______________?
Microfilaria
Plasmodium falciparum
Leishmania donovani
Plasmodium vivax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______________?
Banana
Dot
Sickle
Comma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sickle
Q.
Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____________?
6 months
1 week
6 week
3 months
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 week
Q.
About Psedomonas. All are true except________________?
Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Can grow in disinfectants in hospital
Strick aerobes
Most common organism is burn patient
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except_______________?
Through bacteriophages
Through plasmids
Through conjugation
Incorporating part of host DNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____________?
Type 6,12,18
6,8,11
16,18,31
3,10,19
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 16,18,31
Q.
Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except_______________?
Embryonated eggs
Tissue culture
Chemically defined media
Animals
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chemically defined media
Q.
Type of receptor present on T-cells are__________________?
Ig A
Ig G
Prostaglandins
CD4
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4
Q.
All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_____________?
Refractile nucleus
Eccentric nucleus
Chromatid bars
Glycogen mass
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile nucleus
Q.
Leprosy bacilli can be grown in_________________?
Testes of guinea pig
Tail of guinea pig
Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Testes of albino rats
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Q.
Group A B-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the pharynx may be followed in some by_____________?
Typhoid fever
Syphilis
Rheumatic fever
Diphtheria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatic fever
Q.
Secretory Ig is_______________?
IgD
IgM
IgE
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Which of the following viruses does not infect salivary glands ?
Orthomyxovirus
Hepatitis C
HIV
Echo virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxovirus
Q.
Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following________________?
All of the above
Salk vaccine
Sabin
Tetanus toxoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salk vaccine
Q.
True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by_______________?
Cow
Rats
cats
Dogs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cats
Q.
Candidal hyphae can be stained using_______________?
Toluidine blue stain
Periodic acid schiff stain
Van Gieson
Masson Trichrome stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Periodic acid schiff stain
Q.
The prototype of Type II hypersensitivity reaction is__________________?
Arthus reaction
SLE
Contact dermatitis
Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Q.
The earliest identifiable cells of T-Cell lineage during maturation are_______________?
CD5+ Pre-T-Cells
CD8+ Pro-T-Cells
CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
CD8+ Pre-T-Cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
Q.
Dengue virus belongs to______________?
Rhabdoviridae
Flavi virus
Reoviridae
Togaviridae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi virus
Q.
T cell matures in______________?
Busra of Fabricius
Lymph node
Thymus
Payers patch
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thymus
Q.
The presence of Which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility ?
Lipids
Polysaccharide
Enzymes
Protein coat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein coat
Q.
Wasserman test test is diagnostic of__________________?
Gonorrhea
Syphilis
Tyhoid
TB
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Glasswares are sterilised by______________?
Incineration
Formaldehyde
Hot air oven
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by which of the following_____________?
Boiling
All of the above
Cidex
Ethanol
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affets_______________?
Fibroblasts
Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Mast cells
Red blood cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Q.
Which of the following enzyme is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot pathogenic staphylococci_____________?
Coagulase
Fibrinolysin
S protein
Lysozyme
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coagulase
Q.
Secondary response is mediated by_______________?
IgM
IgE
IgG
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Bacterial species which is protective or beneficial to the host is_______________?
Streptococcus sanguis
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Treponema denticola
Spirochetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus sanguis
Q.
Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve________________?
Stomach
Duodenum
Caecum and large intestine
Jejunum and Ileum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caecum and large intestine
Q.
A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents________________?
Auto
ISO
Xeno
Allo
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Allo
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical mycobacteria by______________?
Pas staining
AFB staining
None of the above
Niacin test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Niacin test
Q.
The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by____________?
Conjugation
Transduction
Translation
Cell fusion
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
Sterilisation control for moist heat is
Using non-pathogenic strain of clostridium tetani
Using chemical indicator
Using methylene blue
using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Q.
Complement binding immunoglobin via the classical pathway is_______________?
IgG & IgA
IgG & IgD
IgG & igM
IgD & IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG & igM
Q.
Commonest mycobacterial infection in tropical countries_______________?
Kansasi
M. leprae
M. avium intracellulare
M. tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. tuberculosis
Q.
Sterilisation is______________?
Pathogens killed but spores are not affected
Non-pathogenic killed
Only pathogenic micro-organisms killed
All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Q.
Killer and Helper cells are part of_______________?
Macrophage
B cells
T cells
Monocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T cells
Q.
Bacteriophage was discovered by_________________?
Twort and d
Robert koch
Metchinkoff
Menkin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Twort and d
Q.
Growth factor needed for Salmonella_________________?
Citrate
Tryptophan
Niacin
B-12
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Tryptophan
Q.
Louis Pasteur is not associated with_______________?
Disproved spontaneous regression theory
Introduction of complex media
Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Discovery of Rabies Vaccine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Q.
Synthesis of antibodies in plasma cells occurs in_________________?
Mitochondria
Nucleus
Golgi body
Endoplasmic reticulum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.
Leishmania is cultured in ________________ media?
Tellurite
NNN
Sabourauds
Chocolate agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NNN
Q.
Purpose of Sterilization is to eliminate________________?
Spore formers
Fungus
Viruses
Bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spore formers
Q.
The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to_____________?
Dehydrate microbial cells
Inhibit microbial growth
Remove microbes
Kill mircobes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Remove microbes
Q.
The only virus, which has double stranded RNA, is______________?
Reo virus
Bunya virus
Calci virus
Rhabdo virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reo virus
Q.
Culture media of candida is_________________?
Pingolevin
All of the above
Saboraud
Methylene blue dextrose agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saboraud
Q.
L.D bodies are seen in_______________?
Malaria
Sleeping sickness
Kalahazar
Toxoplasmosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kalahazar
Q.
Schuffner
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium malariae
Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium vivax
Q.
Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus infection during window period ?
Anti HBs
HBs Ag
None of the above
IgM anti
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM anti
Q.
Delhi boil refer to_______________?
Malignant pustule
Solar Keratosis
Venereal ulcer
L. Tropica sore
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: L. Tropica sore
Q.
Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except________________?
Have infections
All are true
50% chances to have AIDS
Failure to thrive
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 50% chances to have AIDS
Q.
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to_______________?
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
Histiocytes
Monocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T lymphocytes
Q.
The cell wall deficient bacteria_______________?
Chlamydiae
Ehrlichiae
Rickettsiae
Mycoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycoplasma
Q.
Pasteur developed the vaccine for_______________?
All of the above
Rabies
Cholera
Anthrax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Borrelia vincenti is always associated with______________?
None of the above
Spirochaetes
Fusiform bacilli
Treponema vincenti
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fusiform bacilli
Q.
The Manufacturing unit of surgical needle & sutures are sterilized by ________________?
Autoclaving
Gamma-Rays
X-Rays
Boiling
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma-Rays
Q.
Glutaraldehyde is preferred more than formaldehyde because______________?
It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
It has got more bacteriostatic activity
It has got more bactericidal activity
Its application is easier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Q.
The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is_____________?
Chocolate agar
Robertoson
Sabourad
Chorio allantoic membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chorio allantoic membrane
Q.
Rh incompatibility is which type of hyper sensitivity reaction ?
Type IV
Type III
Type I
Type II
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Silver impregnation method of staining is useful to demonstrate_____________?
Bacterial flagella
Spirochetes
Both of the above
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both of the above
Q.
Which of the following would you consider to be general properties of viruses______________?
Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids
New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses
Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Contain DNA but no RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Q.
Dematophytes are fungi infecting________________?
Systemic organs
Subcutaneous tissue
Nails, hair and skin
Superficial skin and deep tissue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nails, hair and skin
Q.
Chlamydia causes all of the following except________________?
Trachoma
Non-gonococcal urethritis
Pneumonia
Parotitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parotitis
Q.
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (SSS syndrome) is due to______________?
Enterotoxin F
Enterotoxin A
Enterotoxin B
Enterotoxin D
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterotoxin F
Q.
Leprosy bacilli are transmitted from person to person by all except______________?
Through intact skin
From open sore
Dischange from nasal mucosa
Through breast milk
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Through breast milk
Q.
ASO (Antistreptolysin 0) test is uesd for the diagnosis of________________?
Rheumatoid arthritis
Rheumatie fever
Rickettsial fever
Typhoid fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatie fever
Q.
Actinomycetes is______________?
Fungus
Gram positive bacteria
Gram negative bacteria
A yeast like form
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is_____________?
Ninhydrin stain
Blue stain
Eosin stain
Haemotoxin stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ninhydrin stain
Q.
Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by_____________?
Parasite
Bacteria
Virus
Bacteria superadded on virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
The term animalcules to oral microorganisms is given by__________________?
Robertson
Wd miller
Leumenhoek
Socranci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leumenhoek
Q.
Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly_______________?
Lung
Nasal mucosa
Gastrointestinal tract
Skin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gastrointestinal tract
Q.
Phospholipid used to investigate syphilis by the reagin test is________________?
Palmityl lecithin
Plasminogen
Serine
Cardiolipin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiolipin
Q.
Cleavage of IgG molecule by Papin gives rise to:One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments_______________?
Two Fc fragments and two Fab fragments
One Fc fragment and four Fab fragments
One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Two Fc fragment and one Fab fragment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Q.
Following reaction are produced by heterophil antigens except_____________?
Paul bunnel reaction
Widal reaction
Weil-Felix reaction
Forssman antigen antibody reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal reaction
Q.
The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______________?
IgG
IgE
IgD
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV irradiation_______________?
Carbohydrates
Nucleic acids
Lipids
Inorganic salts
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleic acids
Q.
Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by________________?
Epithelial cells
Sucrose
Bacteria
Dextran
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dextran
Q.
The anaphylaxis should be treated first with_____________?
Epinephrine
Anti histamines
Steroids
Antibiotics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epinephrine
Q.
Dorset
Mycobacterium
Gonococcus
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best demonstrated by_________________?
H & E stain
PAS stain
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Gram
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Q.
The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is______________?
Borrelia vincenti
Borrelia burgdorferi
Treponjema pertenue
Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti
Q.
Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is ________________?
Aspergillus
Penicillium
Mucor
Rhizopus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus
Q.
Best method of sterilizing disposable syringes_______________?
Gamma rays
Hot air oven
U.V. rays
Boiling
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma rays
Q.
Anaphylaxis refers to the________________?
Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions
Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________________?
Melanin production related to virulence
Causes meningitis
Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Basidiomycetes yeast
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Q.
The Process of attenuation can be achieved by all except___________________?
Growing bacteria in adverse environment
Repeated cultures in artificial media
Growing bacteria in unconventional host
Serial passage in an experimental host
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serial passage in an experimental host
Q.
Probiotic organism used_________________?
E coli
Bifido bacteria
Salmonella
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bifido bacteria
Q.
Staphylococcus does not causes_______________?
Osteomyelitis
Scarlet fever
Pneumonia
Abscess
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Scarlet fever
Q.
Oil and Grease are sterilized by________________?
Auto claving
Hot air oven
Ethylene dioxide
Irradiation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Most sensitive test for antigen detection is_______________?
Passive hemaglutination
ELISA
Immunoflourescence
Radioimmuno Assay
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Radioimmuno Assay
Q.
Antigen combining site of the antibody is____________________?
Idiotope
Epitope
Paratope
Hapten
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Paratope
Q.
The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______________?
Vasculitis
Erythema
Necrosis
Induration
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythema
Q.
The most common site where organisms are present in a typhoid carrier is______________?
Spleen
Salivary gland
Gall Bladder
Liver
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gall Bladder
Q.
Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause foetal defect ?
Mumps
Papilloma
Rubella
Herpes Simplex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Babu, a 28 year old male comes with compaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by____________?
Lymph node biopsy
ELISA
Western blot
P24 antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: P24 antigen
Q.
The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is ________________?
exotoxin production
Coagulase production
hypersensitivity
lecithinase production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: hypersensitivity
Q.
In T.B cell mediated immunity is by_______________?
B
None of the above
CD 4*
CD 8*
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD 4*
Q.
Australia antigen is associated with________________?
AIDS
Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Basal cell carcinoma
Chronic leukemia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Q.
Incubation pariod of herpes zoster is________________?
3-6 months
1-2 years
1 months
7-14 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 7-14 days
Q.
Salmonella typhi can be isolated at different times from______________?
Feaces
Blood
Urine
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which of the following antibacterial substance is present in eggs and saliva ?
Lysozyme
Albumin
Isozyme
Secretozyme
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysozyme
Q.
Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection_________________?
Giardia lambella
Taenia solium
Isopora belli
Balantidium coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Taenia solium
Q.
Electron microscopic examination of the bacterial flora of necrotising ulcerative gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are______________?
Bacteriophages
Filamentous rods
Cocci
Spirochetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
The most frequently encountered clostridial species in gas gangrene is______________?
Clostridium welchii
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium tetani
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Q fever is caused by________________?
C. burnetti
R. quintana
R. prowozekii
Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C. burnetti
Q.
Mesophilic organisms are those that grow best at temperature of______________?
-7
55
25
-20
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 25
Q.
An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry cough, sputum culture showed growth on charcoal yeast Extract Medium, theorganism is______________?
Legionella
Burkholderia cepacia
H. influenza
Moraxella catarrhalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Legionella
Q.
Techoic acid is present in_____________?
Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Cell wall of Gram negative organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram negative organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram positive organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Q.
Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?
The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously
Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission
Causes positive Nagler reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Q.
Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by_________________?
Fish tapeworm
Threadworm
Hookworm
Dog tapeworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fish tapeworm
Q.
Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?
Spore
Mycobacteria
Coccidia
Prions
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prions
Q.
Blood agar is________________?
Enriched media
Transport media
Differential media
Simple media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enriched media
Q.
Signs of tyhoid fever is/are_____________________?
All of the above
Osteomyelitis
perforation
Haemorrhage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by ___________________?
Candida albicans
Mucor
Aspergillus
Cryptococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction______________?
Proteus
E.coli
Staphylococcus
Haemophilus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?
Give ARV
Immediately wash wound with soap and water
Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Q.
One of the following is a zoonotic disease_____________?
Bacillary dysentery
Cholera
Anthrax
Typhoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anthrax
Q.
Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of______________?
Whooping cough
Gas gangrene
Malaria
Wool sorters disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gas gangrene
Q.
Which of the following is a live vaccine_____________?
Hepatitis
17 D
Salk
HDCV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HDCV
Q.
The function of IgD is______________?
Antigen recognition by B cells
Reagin activity
Localization protection in external secretion
Compliment activation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antigen recognition by B cells
Q.
The following statement is true regarding fungal infection__________________?
albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals
Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man
Candida infection is usually endogenous
Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida infection is usually endogenous
Q.
One of the following staining methods is an example of negative staining_______________?
Gram
India ink preparation
Zheil-Neilson
Fontana
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
All are true about widel test except________________________?
High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative
O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
H antigen cannot differentiate between subtypes
Base lines differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Q.
The virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhea include all of the following except____________?
Outer membrane proteins
M-Proteins
IgA Protease
Pili
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M-Proteins
Q.
Characteristic feature of retrovirus is_____________?
Reverse transcriptase
DNA polymerase
Ribonuclease
Restriction endonuclease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reverse transcriptase
Q.
Serum sickness syndrome is an example of________________?
Angioneurotic edema
Anaphylactic
Systemic arthus reaction
Cell-mediated immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Systemic arthus reaction
Q.
The Window period in HIV infection means______________?
The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab
The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
Q.
Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to________________?
Reduce the antigenicity
Increase antigenicity
reduce the toxigenicity
Increase toxigenicity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increase antigenicity
Q.
Which of the following is true about amoebic liver disease ?
Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Non-suppurative form is the serious form of extra intestinal amoebiasis
Left lobe of liver is commonly involved
Portal system is the main filtration system
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Q.
Teichoic acid is present in cell walls of_________________?
Gram positive bacteria
Yeast
Protozoa
Gram negative bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Grave
Type IV
Type II
Type I
Type III
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Madura mycosis produces______________?
White to yellow granules
No granules
Red granules
Brown to black granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: White to yellow granules
Q.
A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?
Francisella spp
Bartonella spp
Brucella spp
Pasturella spp
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Brucella spp
Q.
Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a_______________?
Immunodot
RIPA
Western Blot
ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Western Blot
Q.
Rabies virus________________?
Cytotropic
Chromophilic
Neurotropic
Dermatotropic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neurotropic
Q.
Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is_______________?
IgE
IgG
IgM
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
B.C.G untrue is_____________?
All of the above
live vaccine
Orally administered
T.B vaccine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orally administered
Q.
In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a_______________?
Hapten
Carrier
Toxin
Super antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hapten
Q.
Thread worm is______________?
Ancylostoma
Necator
Ascaris
Enterobius
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterobius
Q.
Endotoxin have all but one of the properties given below_______________?
Not secreted outside the cell
Cannot be toxoided
Produced by gram positive bacteria
Produced by gram negative bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Produced by gram positive bacteria
Q.
The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is___________?
Detection of coagulase
Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes
The catalase test
Mannitol fermentation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Detection of coagulase
Q.
Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus is due to ________________________?
Lack of nucleic acid in the cell wall
Pleomorphism
Penicillin analogue production
Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Q.
Influenza is caused by_____________?
Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Q.
Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is_________________?
1:3
1:2
2:1
3:1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2:1
Q.
On a stained slide, clostridium tetani has the appearance of a__________________?
Chain of beads
Drum stick
Safely pin
Bunch of a
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Drum stick
Q.
Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine ?
Typhoid
Tuberculosis (BCG)
Cholera
Varicella Zoster virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cholera
Q.
which of the following is anaerobic_______________?
Bacteroides
Klebsiella
Pseudomonas
E.coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacteroides
Q.
Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstratig________________?
Trophozoites in the feces
Trophozoites in the pus
Cysts in the sterile pus
Cysts in the intestine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites in the pus
Q.
The urine sample of a patient has been sent to the laboratory to look for Leptospira. The specimen is to be screened by use of the__________________?
Electron microscope
Inverted microscope
Scanning microscope
Dark ground microscope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dark ground microscope
Q.
Function of Ig A is________________?
Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Kills virus infected cells
Activates macrophages
Circulating antibody
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Q.
Aflatoxins are produced by________________?
Aspergillus niger
Aspergillus fumigatus
Aspergillus flavus
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus flavus
Q.
The chemotactic factor is______________?
C3b
C2a
C4a
C5a
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C5a
Q.
Characters of exotoxin include all, except_______________?
Protein polysaccharide complex
Has specific tissue affinity
Highly potent
Heat labile
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein polysaccharide complex
Q.
Leptospirosis, all are true except______________?
Onset of IgM in 2 days
Faeces & urine of rodents is the cause
It is sensitive to penicillin
Incubation period is 10 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Onset of IgM in 2 days
Q.
Which of the following belongs to cell fraction derived vaccine______________?
Measles
Mumps
Rubella
Hepatitis B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B
Q.
The killer cells are associated with immunologic response___________________?
Type II
Type III
Type I
Type IV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
The term epitope refers to________________?
Smallest antigenic determinant
complete antigen molecule
Immunogen
Hapten
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Smallest antigenic determinant
Q.
Drumstick appearance is seen in______________?
Cl. tetani
All of the above
Cl. tetanomorphum
Cl. sphenoids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. tetani
Q.
The commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercie bacilli________________?
Thioglavin
Auramine and Rhodamine
Acridine orange
Congo red
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine and Rhodamine
Q.
Common name for Trichuris trichura________________?
Tape worm
Whip worm
Seat woman
Round worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Whip worm
Q.
Herpes virus_____________?
Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
None of the above
Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane
Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Q.
The specific test for Treponema pallidum is___________?