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TOP Microbiology MCQS Questions
Q.
Bacterial spores are destroyed by_______________?
Boiling at 100
Autoclave
Pasteurisation
Disinfection by hypochlorite solution
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The interaction of antigens with antibodies on the surface of a mast cel leads to degranulation and anaphylaxis. The mast cell granules produce anaphylaxis because they contain________________?
Lymphotoxins
Lysosomes
Vasoactive mediators
Proteolytic enzymes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vasoactive mediators
Q.
Bacteria with potent exotoxin is_______________?
Clostridium tetani
Shigella
Klebsiella
Pseudomonas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani
Q.
True about prions________________?
Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective
Viruses which are genetically deficient
Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Q.
The best skin disinfectant is________________?
Chlorhexdine
Savlon
None of the above
Alcohol
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chlorhexdine
Q.
Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates_____________?
Simple carriers
Late convalescence
Carrier status
High infectivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: High infectivity
Q.
The facultative anaerobic bacteria are those who are_______________?
Unable to grow in the presence of oxygen
Able to grow in the presence of carbon dioxide
Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Unable to grow in the absence of oxygen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Q.
A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium malaria
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Erysipelas is caused by________________?
Gonococci
Group A steptococci
Pneumococci
Group B staphylococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B staphylococci
Q.
True about immune response of hepatitis B is__________________?
CMI disappears soon after recover
Antibody to HBC is not protective
Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Q.
Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria______________?
Mc Conkey
Loefflers serum slope
Saborauds agar
Lowenstein Jensen Medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Loefflers serum slope
Q.
A full course of immunization agianst. Telanus with 3 doses to Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how many years ?
20
15
10
5
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 10
Q.
Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?
ELISA followed by western blot technique
Virus isolation
Polymers chain reaction
Western blot followed by ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA followed by western blot technique
Q.
Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-5m in size, multi-septate, chestnut, brown color is characteristic of________________?
Phaeohypomycosis
Rhinosporodiosis
Histoplasmosis
Chromoblastomycosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chromoblastomycosis
Q.
The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell
Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Haemagglutination inhibition test
Haemagglutination test
Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Q.
An oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod which produces a bluish-green pigment has been grown in culture from a swab obtained from an infected burn wound. This organism is susceptible to gentamicin, ticarcillin and tobramicin, but resistant to all the other antibiotics which of the following organisms is it likely to be ?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Klebsiella pnemoniae
Escherichia coli
Proteus miribilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q.
Exaltation is________________?
Increased Virulence
Decreased virulence
No change
None
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increased Virulence
Q.
Which of the following is not true of boiling water_____________?
Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis
Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
It can kill hepatitis B virus
Can kill vegetative bacterial cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Q.
The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is_______________?
IgD
IgM
IgG
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Germ tubes are formed mainly by_______________?
Candida albicans
Candida pseudotropicalls
Candida tropicalis
Candida stellatoidea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
The best method of sterilization of dressing powder is_____________?
Hot air oven
Autoclaving
Inspissation
Tyndallization
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with______________?
IgM antibodies
Lysozyme
IgA antibodies
Mast cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA antibodies
Q.
Loss of capsule in bacteria is generally associated with______________?
increase in invasiveness
Inability to spread through tissue
Decease in virulence
Loss of infectivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Decease in virulence
Q.
Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify______________?
Spirochaetes
Mycoplasma
Chlamydiae
Rickettsiae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochaetes
Q.
Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_____________?
Aspergilosis
Candidiasis
Tuberculosis
Cryptococcosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candidiasis
Q.
Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans_________________?
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Hot air oven is used for sterilization of all EXCEPT__________________?
Rubber tubes
Liquid paraffin
Sharp instrument
Glassware
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubber tubes
Q.
Which worm is longest________________?
A. Lumbricoides
T. Saginata
T. Solium
Hook worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T. Saginata
Q.
Malignant pustule is referred to_________________?
Infected squamous cell carcinoma
Cutaneous anthrax
Facio-cervical actinomycosis
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cutaneous anthrax
Q.
In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started________________?
Influenza
Poliomyelitis
Herpes
Rabies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabies
Q.
True about VDRL test________________?
Non
All of the above
Slide flocculation test
Best followed for drug therapy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is_____________?
Hepatitis A virus
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis E virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
Lancefields classification of B hemolytic streptococcus is based on______________?
Type of lipid in cell membrane
M Protein
Polysaccharide C antigen
Physiological properties
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Polysaccharide C antigen
Q.
Virulence of Gonococcus is due to___________________?
Cytolytic enzymes
Cell Membrane
Its intracellular location
Pili
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
Which of the following fulfil all the criterias of kich
Mycobacterium leprae
N. gonorrhoeae
None of the above
Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: None of the above
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria grow_______________?
differential media
in the presence of oxygen
in the absence of oxygen
in the presence of nitrogen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in the absence of oxygen
Q.
Which of the following is an acid-fast bacillus_____________?
All of the above
Treponema pallidum
Neisseria gonorrhea
Mycobacterium bacilli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium bacilli
Q.
Which of the following is obligate aerobe ?
Proteus
Pseudomonas aerogenosa
diphtheria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Q.
Malaria pigment is________________?
Iron
Haemoglobin
Bilurubin
Haematin-globin pigment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haematin-globin pigment
Q.
The key cell types involved in the acquired immunity include all EXCEPT________________?
Erythrocytes
B lymphocytes
Antigen presenting cells (APC
T lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythrocytes
Q.
Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor_____________?
Streptolysin 0
Carbohydrate cell wall
M protein
Pyrogenic exotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pyrogenic exotoxin
Q.
The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as_____________?
Paratope
Clone
Epitope
Idiotope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epitope
Q.
Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose_______________?
Serum sickness
Arthus reaction
Anaphylaxis
Contact dermatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Immunoglobulin consists of________________?
1 light, 1 heavy chain
1 heavy, 2 light chains
3 light, 1 heavy chain
2 light, 2 heavy chains
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2 light, 2 heavy chains
Q.
Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in________________?
Tissue culture
Artificial media
Chick embryos
Rabbit testis only
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabbit testis only
Q.
Which of the following characteristics of bacteria is not true?
Free living
Unicellular
Having either DNA or RNA
Cell wall containing muramic acid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Having either DNA or RNA
Q.
A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT________________?
Teichoplanin
Linezolid
Imipenem
Vancomycin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Imipenem
Q.
The overall effect of HIV is to gradually impair the immune system by interference with______________?
Plasma cells
Helper T lymphocytes
Natural killer cells
Macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes
Q.
Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?
Surface antigen
Surface antibody
Core antigen
Core antibody
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Surface antigen
Q.
Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies_____________?
Small pox
Measles
Rabies
Chicken pox
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles
Q.
Prozone phenomenon is due to______________?
Disproportionate antigen antibody levels
Hyper immune reaction
Excess antigen
Excess antibody
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Excess antibody
Q.
Actinomycosis is a_________________?
Aerobic bacterial disease
Anaerobic bacterial disease
Aerobic fungal disease
Anaerobic fungal disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic bacterial disease
Q.
HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except________________?
Saliva
Sexual intercourse
Needle prick injury
Blood transmission
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saliva
Q.
Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_______________?
Simple structure
Complex multiplication
All of the above
Presence of either DNA or RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
False +ve for VDRL is seen in______________?
All of the above
Lepromatous Leprosy
Malaria
Yaws
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Most fungi of medical importance belongs to__________________?
Ascomycetes
Zygomycetes
Deuteromycetes
Basidiomycetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deuteromycetes
Q.
Most of the drug resistances occurs due to_____________?
conjugation
Transformation
Transduction
Mutation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: conjugation
Q.
The bacterial cell wall has all of the following properties except______________?
It is a unique flexible plastic structure
It contains D-isomers of amino acids
It consists of a mixed polymer called peptidoglycon
It is the structure principally responsible for the reaction of gram staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It is a unique flexible plastic structure
Q.
The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is_____________?
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Tuberculosis
Apthous stomatitis
Herpetic gingivostomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Q.
Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in which of the following viruses_____________?
Pox virus
Hepatitis B virus
Measles virus
HIV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is______________?
Donovania granulomatis
Chlamydia trachomatis
Bartonella henselae
Hemophilia ducreya
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bartonella henselae
Q.
Which of the following is not a feature of anaphylaxis ?
Immediate reaction
Delayed reaction
passive transfer by serum
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Delayed reaction
Q.
DNA covering material in a virus is called as________________?
Envelope
Capsid
Nucleocapsid
Capsomere
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Capsid
Q.
ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______________?
Less sensitive less specific
Less sensitive, more specific
More sensitive, more specific
More sensitive, less specific
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: More sensitive, less specific
Q.
Who first introduced solid media_______________?
Louis pasteur
Robert koch
Ogston
Hensen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robert koch
Q.
cAMP reaction is shown by which streptococci ?
Group C
Group A
Group D
Group B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B
Q.
Widal test is specific for____________?
Typhoid
Plague
Leprosy
Pemhigoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid
Q.
Which of the following is not a koch
Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the experimental animals
When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Pure cultures can be obtained
The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Q.
All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_________________?
histolytica
gingivalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: gingivalis
Q.
When horse serum is injected intravenoulsy in to a rabbit and again in to the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs as the site of the second injection________________?
Arthus phenomenon
Serum sickness
Anaphylaxis
Atopy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus phenomenon
Q.
Fimbriae are demonstrated by ___________________?
Culture
Gram stain
Haemagglutination test
Biochemical reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haemagglutination test
Q.
The following is not true of Candida albicans______________?
Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them
Blastomeres seen in isolates
Forms Chlamydospores
Yeast like fungus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blastomeres seen in isolates
Q.
The temperature required for cultivating mycobacterium________________?
2 degree
37 degrees
27 degrees
0 degree
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 37 degrees
Q.
All are true about bordetella pertussis except______________?
It may occur in children and young adult after vaccination
Bacteria culture from nasopharyngeal swab is the definitive diagnosis
Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Most common cause is B. Petrussis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Q.
Causative organism of Kalahazar is_______________?
Toxoplasma
Leishman donovani
Entamoeba histolytica
Plasmodium ovaie
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leishman donovani
Q.
Interferon interferes with replication of virus at the time of_____________?
When virus enters the cell
Protein synthesis
Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule
DNA/RNA replication
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein synthesis
Q.
Rideal Walker test is used to determine the efficiency of the_____________?
Disinfectant
Moist heat sterilisation
Antibiotics
Dry heat sterilization
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Disinfectant
Q.
The difference between sterilization and disinfection is that_______________?
Disinfection kills all spores but sterilization does not
Sterilization is easier to achieve
Sterilization involves chemicals and disinfection involves physical methods
Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Q.
The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is_______________?
Transformation
Conjugation
Translation
Lysogeny
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysogeny
Q.
For uniform staining reaction, morphology and biochemical activity it is advisable to study bacterial cultures during the_____________?
Stationary phase
Logarithmic phase
Death phase
Lag phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Logarithmic phase
Q.
The structure in involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface is_______________?
Flagella
Fimbria
Capsule
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fimbria
Q.
Vibrio cholera was discovered by_________________?
Koch
Medintoff
John snow
Virchow
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Koch
Q.
Noguchi
Brucella
None of the above
Bordetella
Borrelia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia
Q.
Donovanosis, true is___________________?
Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic
Penicillin is drug of choice
Characterized by painful genital ulcers
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Q.
Which of the following statement about P24 antigen of HIV is Not True ?
Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:
Virus load parallel P24 titre
It remains during asymptomatic phase
It can be detected during the window period
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It remains during asymptomatic phase
Q.
A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?
Allograft
Isograft
Xenograft
Autograft
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Isograft
Q.
In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_______________?
Merozoite
Sporozoite
Gametocyte
Hypnozoite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sporozoite
Q.
Virus infected cell is killed by________________?
Macrophages
Interferons
Neutrophils
Autolysis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Interferons
Q.
In small intestine, cholera toxin acts by______________?
Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
Activation of GTPase
ADP
Active absorption of NaCI
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ADP
Q.
Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by_____________?
Haemolytic streptococci
Staphylococcus aureus
Nisseria
Streptococcus viridans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus viridans
Q.
Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by______________?
Hot air oven
UV-Radiation
Autoclaving
Inspissation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Candida is most often implicated in causation___________________?
Tenea capitis
Desert rheumatism
Conjunctivitis
Thrush
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thrush
Q.
Diphtheria is pathogenic only when infected with______________?
Lambda K12
Delta Phage
Alfa phage
Beta phage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Beta phage
Q.
The antigen used in Weil Felix test is obtained from________________?
coli
Proteus
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to______________?
NK
B
CD4 T-cells
CD8 T-cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4 T-cells
Q.
Actinomycosis is caused by______________?
Acid fast, non-motile bacillus
Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Retrovirus
Fungus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Q.
The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route________________?
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis D virus
Hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______________?
Western Blot is
PCR is
Both are
ELISA IS
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both are
Q.
Lepromin test is useful for________________?
Epidemiology
Treatment plan
Diagnosis
Prognosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prognosis
Q.
Staphylococci typically occur in_________________?
Chains
Irregular clusters
Pairs
Tetrads
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Irregular clusters
Q.
The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the________________?
CH1 domian
VL domian
CH2 domian
CL domian
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CH2 domian
Q.
Multiple drug resistance of bacteria depends on which of the following_______________?
Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
All of the above
Fertility factor (F+)
Colicigenic factor (Col)
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Q.
Immunity that is conferred to the foetus by transfer of IgG and IgA antibodies is called as______________?
Passive acquired immunity
Natural active immunity
Passive natural immunity
Active acquired immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Passive natural immunity
Q.
Viron is defined as______________?
Extracellular infectious virus particle
None of the above
Smallest virus
A smallest particle similar to virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Extracellular infectious virus particle
Q.
Cough plate method is used to identify________________?
Mycoplasma
Pertussis
M-Tuberculosis
Y. pestis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pertussis
Q.
Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functional of the cell______________?
wall
membrane
nucleus
Capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: membrane
Q.
A dentist suffred from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is_____________?
Paradoxical carrier
Inactive carrier
Convalscent carrier
Healthy carrier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Convalscent carrier
Q.
Sunlight acts as sterilizing agent because_________________?
Heat
Ozone
Long wavelength
short wave lenght
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: short wave lenght
Q.
Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in______________?
12 weeks
4 weeks
9 weeks
2 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4 weeks
Q.
What is the sequence which a retro virus follows on entering a host cell ?
RNA-DNA
DNA-RNA
RNA -DNA-RNA
DNA-RNA-DNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: RNA -DNA-RNA
Q.
Nagglers reaction detects________________?
None of the above
Hyaluronidase
Lecithinase
Coagulase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Man is the only reservoir for_______________?
Camphylobacter jejuni
histolytica
Y. enterocolitica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: histolytica
Q.
Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_________________?
Cytokinin
Theta toxin
Lecithinase
Desmolase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except___________________?
Though plasmids
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through bacteriophages
through conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is__________________?
Immune blood transfusion
Placental transfer of antibodies
Gamma globulin injection
Hepatitis vaccination
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Placental transfer of antibodies
Q.
All are true about legionella pneumophilia except______________?
It can replicate in amoeba
Urine test is a reliable method
Person to person transmission
Aquatic bodies are main habitat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Person to person transmission
Q.
Smith noguchi
Klebsiella
Salmonella
Spirochetes
Bacillus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
Tyndallisation is carried out for________________?
60 minutes
Two successive days
One day
Three successive days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Three successive days
Q.
Prions true is____________?
Evokes strong immunogenic reaction
Contains DNA/ RNA
Sensitive to most chemical sterilization
Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Q.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which of the following________________?
B-cells
Active T cells
Plasma cells
NK cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active T cells
Q.
All are oncogenic except________________?
Mansoni
Culex
Aedes
Anopheles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aedes
Q.
Which of the following viruses appears to be involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi
Human Herpes Virus 3
Human Herpes Virus 8
Human Herpes Virus 1
Human Herpes Virus 4
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Human Herpes Virus 4
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Vincent
Ulcerative gingivostomatitis
Caused due to malnutrition
Caused by leptospira interrogans
A symbiotic infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by leptospira interrogans
Q.
Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores can be achieved with_______________?
KOH wet mount
Grocott Gomori Methenamine silver
Hematoxylin and Eosin
Peri-iodic Acid Schiff
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: KOH wet mount
Q.
The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum ?
IgG3
IgG2
IgG1
IgG4
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG1
Q.
Cytopathic effect is shown by_____________?
Spirochete
Anaerobe
Virus
Bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
Methods for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infection________________?
KOH staining
All of the above
Microscopic examination of skin scrapings
Wood light examination
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Culture medium used for Bordatella pertussis is_________________?
Robertson cooked meat medium
Bile broth
Bordet Gengou medium
Wilson Blair medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bordet Gengou medium
Q.
Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_____________________?
only after one year
antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis
in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
no antibodies are present in primary HSV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
Q.
Graft versus host reaction is caused by_________________?
B-Lymphocytes
Leukocytes
T-lymphocytes
Monocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T-lymphocytes
Q.
Black pigmented anaerobes include all of the following except______________?
Tannerella
Porphyromonas
Buccae
Prevotella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Buccae
Q.
A protoplast is best characterized as a bacterial cell______________?
with a cell wall but free of a capsule
Uniquely sensitive to penicillin
containing a cell wall and a capsule
Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Q.
Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes______________?
Memory B cells
B cells
Cytotoxic T cells
NK Cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NK Cells
Q.
Grape bunch shaped colonies are seen in______________?
Staphylococcus
Gonococci
Streptococcus
E.coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staphylococcus
Q.
The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is_______________?
Parvo virus
Adeno
Hepatitis
EB virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parvo virus
Q.
Most antibodies are produced in the________________?
Heart and the liver
Brain and the meninges
Thymus and the appendix
Spleen and the lymph nodes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spleen and the lymph nodes
Q.
Post streptococcal acute glomerulo nephritis is an example of________________?
Type I hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type III hypersensitivity
Q.
Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups ?
Picorna viruses
Hepadana viruses
Herpes viruses
Flavi viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi viruses
Q.
Phase contrast microscopy is based on principle of__________________?
Light scattering
Different refractive indices of object
Different reflective indices of object
Light attenuation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Different refractive indices of object
Q.
The medium of choice for culturing yeast from of dimorphic fungi is_________________?
Any medium incubated at 35-37
Brain
Sabouraud
Sabouraud
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
The diagnosis of gonorrhea is established by_____________?
Compliment fixation tests
Pili agglutination tests
All of the above tests
Haemagglutination tests
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above tests
Q.
Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to______________?
Ascaris
Hook worm
Guinea worm
Thread worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hook worm
Q.
Candida albicans causes all of the following except______________?
Mycetoma
Oral thrush
Meningitis
Endocarditis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycetoma
Q.
CD4 count in normal healthy adult is_______________?
1000
200
300
500
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1000
Q.
A darkfield microscope would be useful in examining blood for_______________?
Actinomyces
Mycobacterium
Streptococcus
Treponema
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema
Q.
Immunoglobulins ar secreted by______________?
Macrophages
Plasma cells
Neutrophils
T-cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasma cells
Q.
Haptane is_______________?
High molecular protein
Carrier required for specific antibody production
None of the above
Same as epitopes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Carrier required for specific antibody production
Q.
Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by______________?
IgM antibodies in serum
Isolation form stool
Isolation from bile
Culture from blood
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM antibodies in serum
Q.
VDRL is a________________?
Latex agglutination test
Tube agglutination test
Tube flocculation test
Slide flocculation test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Slide flocculation test
Q.
One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is____________?
Mutation
Supervision
Viral interference
Permutation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Viral interference
Q.
The difference between gram positive and negative bacteria lies in their_______________?
cell wall
cell membrane
Mesosomes
Nuclear material
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cell wall
Q.
The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are______________?
Gram positive organisms
Mycoplasma
Gram negative organisms
Virus infections
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram negative organisms
Q.
Endotoxins differ from exotoxins in that endotoxins______________?
activate complement by the alternate pathway
are heat labile
are proteins
are highly antigenic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: activate complement by the alternate pathway
Q.
The Dane particle is the______________?
Delta Virus
IgG anti HAV
HBC Ag
HBV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBV
Q.
Tuberculin test screens for_____________?
Phagocyte dysfunction
Cell mediated immunity
Hemoral immunity
Complement function
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell mediated immunity
Q.
Endoscopes are sterilized by using_______________?
Cidex
Boiling
Gamma radiation
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Boiling
Q.
One of the following statement about statements about sterilization is not true_______________?
Flash pasteurization of milk ? 72
Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Glass syringes ? Boiling at 169
Liquid paraffin ? Dry heat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Q.
Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?
Proteins
Lipids
Adjuvant
Polysaccharides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteins
Q.
IgG antibodies have a half-life of approximately_______________?
1 hour
1 day
1 week
1 Month
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 Month
Q.
Exotoxins are____________________?
Lipid-polysaccharide complex
Protein compound
Lipoprotein
None
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein compound
Q.
Following is a retrovirus_____________?
Hepatitis virus
Immunodeficiency virus
Polio virus
Influenza
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immunodeficiency virus
Q.
The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement_________________?
IgA
IgG
IgM
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
The reaginic antibody is________________?
IgA
IgE
IgD
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Kaposi
Above 600
Between 1000-2000
Above 2000
Below 200
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Below 200
Q.
All are not true for cultivation of anaerobic organisms except_______________?
anaerobic jar
Centrifuge
Incubator
Refrigerator
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: anaerobic jar
Q.
Each of the following can cause food poisoning except________________?
Cl. welchii
Staphylococcus
Cl. difficile
Cl. botulinum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. difficile
Q.
Which of the following does not go into chronic hepatitis stage ?
HCV
HEV
HDV
HBV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HEV
Q.
Physical sterilization was discovered by__________________?
John Hunter
Joeph Lister
Alexander flemings
Robert Koch
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Joeph Lister
Q.
Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito______________?
Merozoite
Zygote
Gametocyte
Sporozoite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gametocyte
Q.
Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with_______________?
Giemsa stain
Ziel Nelson
Kin Young stain
Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Q.
Which of the following are correctly matched ?
All of the above
Injection of antibodies (Hepatitis) is artificially acquired passive immunity
Transfer of antibody from mother to child is through colostrum and acquired passive immunity naturally
Antigenic stimulus given by vaccine (polio) is artificial active immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which is type II hypersensitivity ?
Delayed hypersensitivity
Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Immune complex mediated
Anaphylaxis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Q.
By using phase contrast microscope_______________?
Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
External capsule formation can be observed
Internal structures are differentiated in dead cells
Internal metabolic activities can be observed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Q.
One of the following is a treponemal test for diagnosis of syphilis_____________?
FTAB
Widal test
Kahn test
Wasserman test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: FTAB
Q.
Which of the following have the capability to produce extra cellular polysaccharides______________?
Strep. Mutans
Peptostreptococcus
Enterococcus
Strep. pyogenes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strep. Mutans
Q.
Opportunistic infection is caused by___________________?
Penicillium
Mucor
All of the above
Aspergillus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The minimum time required for the sterilization of surgical instruments by moist heat at 134
3 minutes
60 minutes
15 minutes
30 minutes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3 minutes
Q.
Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti_________________?
Terminal nuclei absent
Causes filariasis
Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Body is slender and long
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Q.
Granules in the corynebacterium diphtheria are called by following names, except______________?
Babes Ernst granules
Voluntin granules
Metachromatic granules
Refractile granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile granules
Q.
Neurotoxin of tetanus acts on______________?
Brain
Synapse
Spinal card
Muscle
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spinal card
Q.
Sporulation occurs in__________________?
Lag phase
Stationary phase
Decline phase
Log phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
True about HIV are all except______________?
Decrease CD4 count in late stages
Macrophages are the reservoir
DNA virus
Attacks CD4 cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: DNA virus
Q.
IgG has subclasses_______________?
4
2
1
3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4
Q.
Anti HBsAB indicates______________?
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Acute infection
Good prognosis
Resistance to hepatitis B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Good prognosis
Q.
Causative agents of Vincent
Borrelia burgoloferi and lactobacillus
Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Leptospira and Treponema pallidum
Borrelia recurrents and bateroides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Q.
Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______________?
Serum sickness
Contact dermatitis
Transfusion reaction
Atopic allergy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is________________?
Indirect hemagglutination
Microscopy
Counter immune electroporesis
ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA
Q.
Test for differentiating virulent form non-virulent tubercular bacilli_____________?
Catalase peroxidase test
Aryl sulphatase test
Neutral red test
Niacin test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neutral red test
Q.
Rickettsiae__________________?
Multiply within living cell
Respond to tetracycline therapy
Transmitted by arthropod vectors
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Virus is cultured in_______________?
Nonembryonated egg
Saubourd
Embryonated egg
Rogosa medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Embryonated egg
Q.
Disinfection frees the surface from______________?
Both of the above
Vegetative forms
None of the above
Spore forms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vegetative forms
Q.
Human immunoglobulins are divided based on_____________?
Functional differences
None of the above
Structural differences
Complemented fixation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Structural differences
Q.
Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to__________________?
Capsule
Exotoxin
Endotoxin
Invasion
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Exotoxin
Q.
Chemotactic cytokine is_________________?
IL-6
TNF
IL-8
IL-1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IL-8
Q.
The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in vivo from one bacterium to another by_____________?
Transformation
Transduction
Rarefaction
Conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
The culture media for fungus is__________________?
Tellurite medium
NNN medium
Sabourauds medium
Chocolate agar medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabourauds medium
Q.
Immunoglobin, Which is produced first by the fetus in response to infection_______________?
IgA
IgM
IgD
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Which of the following is an enrichment medium________________?
Nutrient Broth
Selenite F Broth
Blood agar
Mac Conkey agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Selenite F Broth
Q.
What is the transport medium for cholera___________________?
Cary Blair Medium
B & C
Tellurite Medium
Venkatraman
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: B & C
Q.
A type of immediately occuring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called_____________?
Type III hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type I hypersensitivity
Q.
Same or closely related antigens present in different biological species are known as________________?
Isoantigens
Suquestrated antigens
Haptens
Heterophile antigens
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Heterophile antigens
Q.
One of the following is an agglutination test in the diagnosis of typhoid___________?
Mantoux test
Widal test
Eleks test
Wasserman test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
Sterilization is a process in which_________________?
Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Kill all pathogenic micro-organisms
Kill all non-pathogenic micro-organisms in the environment
Deactivate all pathogens not spores
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Q.
Human immune deficiency virus is ________________ virus?
Rhabdo
Retro
Rheo
Flavi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Retro
Q.
A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned in to an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis______________?
Calcoflour White
Carbol Fuschin
Acid Fast Stain
Trichrome Methylene blue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trichrome Methylene blue
Q.
Half-life of free HIV in plasma is________________?
24 hours
6 hours
3 months
12 hours
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 6 hours
Q.
Among The infectious diseases transmitted by food, one is___________________?
Typhoid fever
Diptheria
Viral stomatitis
Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid fever
Q.
Moist heat kills all of the following EXCEPT_______________?
Mycobacterium
Salmonella
Coxiella burnetti
Brucella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coxiella burnetti
Q.
The Ig found in exocrine secretions is_____________?
IgM
IgG
IgA
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Operation theatres are sterilized by_____________?
Formaldehyde fumigation
Washing with soap and water
Carbolic acid spraying
ETO gas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Formaldehyde fumigation
Q.
Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci________________?
Sarcina
Aerococcus
Staphylococcus
Micrococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sarcina
Q.
About Bacteroids True are all Except_______________?
Bile resistant anerobes
Most common species is B fragilis
Present mainly in mixed infections
Susceptible to many antibiotics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Susceptible to many antibiotics
Q.
Encapsulation in bacteria helps in__________________?
Spore formation
Oxygen effect
Prevent their phagocytosis
Decreased virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prevent their phagocytosis
Q.
In initial stages of tyhoid, salmonella can be detected in________________?
Blood
Urine
Feacus
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood
Q.
All of the following are true of streptococcus except_____________?
Most common in humans
Shows adherence to dental enamel
It
Most common is animals
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It
Q.
Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phase of the bacterial growth curve______________?
Decline
Stationary phase
Lag
Exponential growth
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
Viruses can be cultured in all except_______________?
Cell culture
Guinea pigs
Chick embryo
Blood agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood agar
Q.
Kolmer test is a screening test done for_________________?
Tuberculosis
Gonorrhea
Lymphoma
Syphilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Function of T-lymphocyte is/are________________?
Production of interferon
All of the above
Rosette formation
Lymphokine production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The following are applicable to bacterial genoms except________________?
It doe not contain histones
Its DNA has both introns and extrons
It is composed of DNA
It is circular
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Q.
EBV causes all except_________________?
Burkitt
Carcinoma of nasopharynx
Infectious mononucleosis
Papilloma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma
Q.
Which of the following is not used as disinfectant________________?
5% chloroxylene
100% alcohol
2% Lysol
1-2% cetrimide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 100% alcohol
Q.
Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by_______________?
M. smegmatis
M. ulcerans
M. chelonae
M. Kansasii
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. chelonae
Q.
All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except____________?
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis E
Hepatitis B
HIV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Which of the following correctly indicates the infectivity of hepatitis virus in human ?
HBeAg
Anti-HBS
HBCAg
Anti-HBC
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBeAg
Q.
In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except__________________?
Spleen sequestration
Malabsorption
Hemolysis
Bone marrow depression
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Malabsorption
Q.
Which of the following is not a pox virus ?
Molluscum contagiosum
chicken pox
Cowpox
Small pox
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: chicken pox
Q.
A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is______________?
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Pyte-ferraco stain
Methanamine silver stain
India ink preparation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
Staphylococcal food poisoning includes the following features_______________?
Heat labile enterotoxin
Requires immediate antibiotics
Incubation period of 24 hours
Common with dairy products
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Common with dairy products
Q.
Causative organism for gas gangrene_______________?
Clostridium welchii
Strep. Faecalis
Coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Streptococcus is classified based on__________________?
M Protein
Bile Solubility
Cell wall carbohydrate
Cultural characteristics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall carbohydrate
Q.
compared with autoclave, use of a dry heat over for sterilization has the following disadvantages______________?
Less effective
Causes sharp instruments to dull
Causes instruments to rust
Time-consuming
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Time-consuming
Q.
Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces?
Capsule
Mesosomes
Pili
Flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except_____________?
Legionella pneumophila
Neisseria meningitides
Streptococcus pyogenes
Salmonella typhi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus pyogenes
Q.
The best sterilization method for a hand-piece is________________?
All of the above
chemical vapour
dry heat
Ethylene oxide gas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ethylene oxide gas
Q.
Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is____________?
Histidine rich proteins
Secretory IgA
Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Sialoperoxidase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Q.
Sleeping sickness is caused by_______________?
House fly
Sand fly
Tick
Reduvid bug
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reduvid bug
Q.
The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_____________?
Pilomatrixoma
Kerison
Tenia incognito
Alopecia areata
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kerison
Q.
Steam under pressure in used in ________ sterilization?
Kochs sterilizer
Pasteurization
hot air oven
Autoclave
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The small nonparticulate protein leading to enhanced replication of HBV as well as HIV is______________?
HBx Ag
HBc Ag
HBs Ag
Hbe Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBx Ag
Q.
T cells multiplication is stimulated by_______________?
Heat
Phytohaemagglutinin
Macrolin
Bovine serum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Phytohaemagglutinin
Q.
Bacteria reproduce mainly by______________?
Binary fission
Budding
Sporing
Bacterial components produced by host cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Binary fission
Q.
The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine doses not play a major role is______________?
Arthus reaction
Asthma
Anaphylaxis
Urticaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus reaction
Q.
Robertsons cooked meat medium is best suited for cultivation of_______________?
S. epidermidis
Choleria
Mycobacterium
Clostridia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridia
Q.
A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates________________?
Carrier state
Prodromal phase
Convalescence
Acute infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acute infection
Q.
Which of the following organisms does NOT react with gram
Actinomyces israelii
Streptococcus mutan
Candida albicans
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q.
Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins ?
IgM
IgA
IgG
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Disinfection of the rooms can be done by using_______________?
20% phenol
40% formaldehyde vapour
Chlorine gas
High efficiency particle arrestors
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 40% formaldehyde vapour
Q.
Negative staining is used to demonstrate________________?
Bacterial fimbriae
Bacterial capsule
Bacterial Flagella
Bacterial spore
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacterial fimbriae
Q.
Which is not true about vibrio cholera_________________?
Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Grows on simple media
It is non-halophilic
Man is the only natural host
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Q.
Group A carbohydrate of Str. pyogenes cross reacts with human_________________?
Cardiac valves
Myocardium
Synovial fluid
Vascular intima
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiac valves
Q.
Pneumococus can be differentiated from streptococcus by________________?
Type of hemolysis
Gram staining
Growth characteristics
Bile solubility
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bile solubility
Q.
Phage conversion is required for________________?
Diptheria
Gonorrhoea
Tularemia
All o f the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Diptheria
Q.
parasitic inflammation would show predominantly____________________?
Lymphocytes
Basophils
Neutrophilis
Eosinophils
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Eosinophils
Q.
Pseudohphae are seen in____________?
Candida albicans
Aspergillus
Alternaria
Osporium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?
Trench fever
Relapsing fever
Epidemic typhus
Q fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Q fever
Q.
The causative organism of syphilis is___________?
Borrelia burgolorferi
Leptospira interrogans
Treponema pallidum
Chalamydia trachomatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema pallidum
Q.
Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except______________?
Strongyloides
Ascaris lumbriocoides
Giardia lambia
Entamoeba
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strongyloides
Q.
Toxoids are_________________?
non-antigenic and toxic
non-antigenic and non-toxic
antigenic and toxic
antigenic and non-toxic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: antigenic and non-toxic
Q.
Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000_________________?
L chain
H chain
J piece
Secretory piece
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: H chain
Q.
IL-1 is produced by_________________?
Helper T cells
Helper B cells
Monocytes
Macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Macrophages
Q.
In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by_____________?
Urine culture
Widal test
Stool culture
Blood culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except__________________?
Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection
All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Found exclusively in human beings.
Most common cause of urethritis is male
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Q.
Pigs are important source of_____________?
Kuru
Japanese encephalitis
Yellow fever
Rabies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Japanese encephalitis
Q.
A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains and haemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism ?
Bile solubility
Optochin sensitivity
Cataslase positive
Bacitracin sensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacitracin sensitivity
Q.
Organ of locomotion in bacteria is________________?
Flagella
Cell wall
Capsule
Fimbria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flagella
Q.
All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except______________?
Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide
Gram staining
Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital
Colony morphology on saliva agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram staining
Q.
Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in______________?
Ascariasis
Hood worm
Ascariasis and tapeworm
Tapeworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ascariasis
Q.
Bacteria with tuft of flagella at one end are called_______________?
Lophotrichate
Monotrichate
Bipolar
Peritrichate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lophotrichate
Q.
Certain viruses have been isolated in crytalline form and have been found to be_____________?
Nucleoproteins
Nucleotides
Scleroproteins
Phospholipids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleoproteins
Q.
Fungal infection of human beings is called as_____________?
Fungosis
Micromia
Mucorsis
Mycosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycosis
Q.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa_________________?
Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.
Does not produce any pigment
Produces heat stable enterotoxin
Causes Shangai fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Causes Shangai fever
Q.
The world german measles is applied for_____________?
Herpes simplex
Herpetic ginglvostomatitis
Rubella
Rubeola
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Which of the following provides best gurantee for sterlization in the heat sterilizer ?
Recording a temperature/ pressure readings from sterilizer guage
Determining the ability of a sterilizer to kill the hepatitis B virus
Using chemical indicator strip or pouch
Using a bacterial spore test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Using a bacterial spore test
Q.
Active artificial immunization is induced by the administration of all of the following EXCEPT______________?
Vaccines
Toxoids
Antitoxins
Bacterial products
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antitoxins
Q.
Plaque test is used routinely in virology lab
Identification of viral disease
To separate specific clone of virus
To prepare vaccines
To maintain certain viral culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Identification of viral disease
Q.
The commonest method of detection of diptheria carriers is_______________?
Schick test
Charles
Dick test
Casoni
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Schick test
Q.
Most common tumor associated with AIDS is______________?
Melanoma
Ewing
Kaposi
Carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kaposi
Q.
Which of the following is a RNA virus ?
Herpes Virus
Papavo virus
Adeno virus
Measles virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
A 6 year old boy comes with abdominal pain, vomiting after consuming mild products within 6 hours. The most likely organism responsible is______________?
Staph. aureus
Salmonella
Clostridium botulinum
B.Cereus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staph. aureus
Q.
The medium of choice for growing most fungi is_______________?
Blood agar
Sabouraud
Thioglycollate medium
Tissue culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
Hydatid cyst is__________________?
Viral
Parasitic in nature
Congenital
Fungal
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parasitic in nature
Q.
Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called______________?
De coding
CFT
Opsonisation
Chemotaxis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Opsonisation
Q.
The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is___________________?
5%
10%
15%
2%
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2%
Q.
Selective media for MYCOBACTERIUM _____________?
Lowenstein Jensen medium
Sabourauds medium
Loefflers serum slope
Agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lowenstein Jensen medium
Q.
A sporangium contains_______________?
Chlamydospores
Oidia
porangiospores
Spherules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: porangiospores
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria can be cultured in__________________?
L-J medium
Loefflers medium
Robertson cooked meat medium
Sabourauds agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robertson cooked meat medium
Q.
All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except________________?
Trophozoites colonise in the colon
Cysts are 8 nucleated
Cysts are 4 nucleated
The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cysts are 8 nucleated
Q.
Gram -ve bacteria stain during gram staining____________?
Blue color
Red color
Colorless
Green
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Red color
Q.
The optimal time and temperature required for sterilization in an autoclave is___________________?
121
121
140
121
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 121
Q.
Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus ?
Condyloma acuminatum
Focal epithelial hyperplasia
Keratoacanthoma
Verruca vulgaris
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Keratoacanthoma
Q.
IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by______________?
Activated macrophages
Platelet
Plasma cells
Lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Activated macrophages
Q.
The major intestinal pathogens which are non-lactose fermenters are_________________?
Salmonella
Escherichia
Paracolons
Klebsiella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salmonella
Q.
Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by________________?
Direct microscopy
Culture
DNA probe
ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Culture
Q.
Which component of the cell wall is responsible________________?
Region I
Region III
Boivin antigen
Region II
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Region III
Q.
In patients with asthma due to an allergic cause the serum levels of which immunoglobulin increase____________________?
IgA
IgM
IgE
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Which regards to temperature requirement, most pathogenic bacteria are_____________?
Thermophiles
Cryophiles
Mesophiles
Psychrophiles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mesophiles
Q.
Negative phase is seen in ________ immunity?
Local
Active
Herd
Passive
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active
Q.
Bacterial cell does not possess___________________?
Ribosome
dna
Cell wall
Mitochondria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mitochondria
Q.
Australian antigen is_______________?
HB Ag
HBV
HBs AG
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBs AG
Q.
Which does not have a viral etiology______________?
Lymphoma
Carcinoma Cervix
Hepatoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Endotoxins are produced by________________?
Fungi
Virus
Gram +ve bacteria
Gram -ve bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram -ve bacteria
Q.
EBV is responsible for all except______________?
Burkitt
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Infectious mononucleosis
Hepatoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Complement factor through which common pathway begins___________________?
Protein B
C5
C2
C3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C3
Q.
Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is___________________?
Spleen
Lungs
Brain
Liver
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Liver
Q.
The time gap between appearance of Koplik
10 days
24 Hrs
3-4 days
2 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3-4 days
Q.
CD4 cells recognize the antigens in association with_____________?
MHC II
MHC I
B-cell receptor
MHC III
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: MHC II
Q.
Each of the following viruses possesses an outer lipoprotein envelope except_____________?
Human immunodeficiency virus
Influenza Virus
Papilloma Virus
Varicella Zoster Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma Virus
Q.
Mark true in following ?
Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
None of the above
Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Q.
First released immunoglobulin after primary immunization_______________?
IgG
IgM
IgE
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is_________________?
Neisseria gonorrhea
Escherichia coli
Streptococcus fecalis
T-strain mycoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Escherichia coli
Q.
Black water fever is caused by______________?
Leishmania donovani
Plasmodium falciparum
Microfilaria
Plasmodium vivax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______________?
Banana
Sickle
Dot
Comma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sickle
Q.
Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____________?
1 week
6 week
6 months
3 months
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 week
Q.
About Psedomonas. All are true except________________?
Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Strick aerobes
Most common organism is burn patient
Can grow in disinfectants in hospital
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except_______________?
Through conjugation
Through plasmids
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through bacteriophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____________?
3,10,19
6,8,11
Type 6,12,18
16,18,31
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 16,18,31
Q.
Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except_______________?
Tissue culture
Animals
Chemically defined media
Embryonated eggs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chemically defined media
Q.
Type of receptor present on T-cells are__________________?
Ig A
Prostaglandins
CD4
Ig G
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4
Q.
All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_____________?
Glycogen mass
Chromatid bars
Refractile nucleus
Eccentric nucleus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile nucleus
Q.
Leprosy bacilli can be grown in_________________?
Testes of albino rats
Testes of guinea pig
Tail of guinea pig
Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Q.
Group A B-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the pharynx may be followed in some by_____________?
Syphilis
Diphtheria
Typhoid fever
Rheumatic fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatic fever
Q.
Secretory Ig is_______________?
IgM
IgA
IgE
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Which of the following viruses does not infect salivary glands ?
Orthomyxovirus
Hepatitis C
Echo virus
HIV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxovirus
Q.
Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following________________?
Sabin
Salk vaccine
Tetanus toxoid
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salk vaccine
Q.
True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by_______________?
cats
Rats
Cow
Dogs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cats
Q.
Candidal hyphae can be stained using_______________?
Periodic acid schiff stain
Toluidine blue stain
Van Gieson
Masson Trichrome stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Periodic acid schiff stain
Q.
The prototype of Type II hypersensitivity reaction is__________________?
Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Arthus reaction
Contact dermatitis
SLE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Q.
The earliest identifiable cells of T-Cell lineage during maturation are_______________?
CD8+ Pro-T-Cells
CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
CD8+ Pre-T-Cells
CD5+ Pre-T-Cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
Q.
Dengue virus belongs to______________?
Togaviridae
Rhabdoviridae
Flavi virus
Reoviridae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi virus
Q.
T cell matures in______________?
Payers patch
Lymph node
Thymus
Busra of Fabricius
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thymus
Q.
The presence of Which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility ?
Lipids
Polysaccharide
Protein coat
Enzymes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein coat
Q.
Wasserman test test is diagnostic of__________________?
Gonorrhea
TB
Tyhoid
Syphilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Glasswares are sterilised by______________?
Formaldehyde
Hot air oven
Incineration
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by which of the following_____________?
Boiling
All of the above
Ethanol
Cidex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affets_______________?
Mast cells
Fibroblasts
Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Red blood cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Q.
Which of the following enzyme is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot pathogenic staphylococci_____________?
Coagulase
S protein
Fibrinolysin
Lysozyme
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coagulase
Q.
Secondary response is mediated by_______________?
IgG
IgA
IgE
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Bacterial species which is protective or beneficial to the host is_______________?
Treponema denticola
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Spirochetes
Streptococcus sanguis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus sanguis
Q.
Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve________________?
Stomach
Duodenum
Caecum and large intestine
Jejunum and Ileum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caecum and large intestine
Q.
A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents________________?
Xeno
Allo
ISO
Auto
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Allo
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical mycobacteria by______________?
AFB staining
None of the above
Niacin test
Pas staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Niacin test
Q.
The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by____________?
Translation
Transduction
Conjugation
Cell fusion
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
Sterilisation control for moist heat is
Using non-pathogenic strain of clostridium tetani
using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Using methylene blue
Using chemical indicator
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Q.
Complement binding immunoglobin via the classical pathway is_______________?
IgD & IgE
IgG & IgD
IgG & IgA
IgG & igM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG & igM
Q.
Commonest mycobacterial infection in tropical countries_______________?
M. avium intracellulare
M. tuberculosis
M. leprae
Kansasi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. tuberculosis
Q.
Sterilisation is______________?
All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Pathogens killed but spores are not affected
Only pathogenic micro-organisms killed
Non-pathogenic killed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Q.
Killer and Helper cells are part of_______________?
T cells
Monocytes
B cells
Macrophage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T cells
Q.
Bacteriophage was discovered by_________________?
Metchinkoff
Twort and d
Robert koch
Menkin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Twort and d
Q.
Growth factor needed for Salmonella_________________?
Tryptophan
Niacin
B-12
Citrate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Tryptophan
Q.
Louis Pasteur is not associated with_______________?
Disproved spontaneous regression theory
Introduction of complex media
Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Discovery of Rabies Vaccine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Q.
Synthesis of antibodies in plasma cells occurs in_________________?
Endoplasmic reticulum
Nucleus
Mitochondria
Golgi body
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.
Leishmania is cultured in ________________ media?
NNN
Sabourauds
Tellurite
Chocolate agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NNN
Q.
Purpose of Sterilization is to eliminate________________?
Viruses
Bacteria
Fungus
Spore formers
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spore formers
Q.
The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to_____________?
Kill mircobes
Inhibit microbial growth
Remove microbes
Dehydrate microbial cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Remove microbes
Q.
The only virus, which has double stranded RNA, is______________?
Rhabdo virus
Bunya virus
Calci virus
Reo virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reo virus
Q.
Culture media of candida is_________________?
Methylene blue dextrose agar
Saboraud
All of the above
Pingolevin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saboraud
Q.
L.D bodies are seen in_______________?
Malaria
Kalahazar
Sleeping sickness
Toxoplasmosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kalahazar
Q.
Schuffner
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium malariae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium vivax
Q.
Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus infection during window period ?
IgM anti
HBs Ag
Anti HBs
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM anti
Q.
Delhi boil refer to_______________?
Venereal ulcer
L. Tropica sore
Solar Keratosis
Malignant pustule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: L. Tropica sore
Q.
Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except________________?
Have infections
All are true
50% chances to have AIDS
Failure to thrive
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 50% chances to have AIDS
Q.
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to_______________?
Monocytes
T lymphocytes
B lymphocytes
Histiocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T lymphocytes
Q.
The cell wall deficient bacteria_______________?
Ehrlichiae
Chlamydiae
Rickettsiae
Mycoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycoplasma
Q.
Pasteur developed the vaccine for_______________?
Anthrax
Cholera
All of the above
Rabies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Borrelia vincenti is always associated with______________?
Treponema vincenti
Spirochaetes
Fusiform bacilli
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fusiform bacilli
Q.
The Manufacturing unit of surgical needle & sutures are sterilized by ________________?
X-Rays
Gamma-Rays
Boiling
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma-Rays
Q.
Glutaraldehyde is preferred more than formaldehyde because______________?
It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Its application is easier
It has got more bacteriostatic activity
It has got more bactericidal activity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Q.
The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is_____________?
Chorio allantoic membrane
Robertoson
Sabourad
Chocolate agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chorio allantoic membrane
Q.
Rh incompatibility is which type of hyper sensitivity reaction ?
Type II
Type IV
Type I
Type III
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Silver impregnation method of staining is useful to demonstrate_____________?
Both of the above
None of the above
Bacterial flagella
Spirochetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both of the above
Q.
Which of the following would you consider to be general properties of viruses______________?
Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses
Contain DNA but no RNA
Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Q.
Dematophytes are fungi infecting________________?
Subcutaneous tissue
Systemic organs
Nails, hair and skin
Superficial skin and deep tissue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nails, hair and skin
Q.
Chlamydia causes all of the following except________________?
Pneumonia
Trachoma
Non-gonococcal urethritis
Parotitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parotitis
Q.
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (SSS syndrome) is due to______________?
Enterotoxin F
Enterotoxin A
Enterotoxin D
Enterotoxin B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterotoxin F
Q.
Leprosy bacilli are transmitted from person to person by all except______________?
From open sore
Dischange from nasal mucosa
Through breast milk
Through intact skin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Through breast milk
Q.
ASO (Antistreptolysin 0) test is uesd for the diagnosis of________________?
Rheumatie fever
Rickettsial fever
Rheumatoid arthritis
Typhoid fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatie fever
Q.
Actinomycetes is______________?
Gram negative bacteria
Fungus
Gram positive bacteria
A yeast like form
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is_____________?
Blue stain
Eosin stain
Haemotoxin stain
Ninhydrin stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ninhydrin stain
Q.
Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by_____________?
Virus
Parasite
Bacteria superadded on virus
Bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
The term animalcules to oral microorganisms is given by__________________?
Socranci
Leumenhoek
Robertson
Wd miller
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leumenhoek
Q.
Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly_______________?
Skin
Lung
Gastrointestinal tract
Nasal mucosa
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gastrointestinal tract
Q.
Phospholipid used to investigate syphilis by the reagin test is________________?
Palmityl lecithin
Cardiolipin
Plasminogen
Serine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiolipin
Q.
Cleavage of IgG molecule by Papin gives rise to:One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments_______________?
Two Fc fragment and one Fab fragment
Two Fc fragments and two Fab fragments
One Fc fragment and four Fab fragments
One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Q.
Following reaction are produced by heterophil antigens except_____________?
Weil-Felix reaction
Forssman antigen antibody reaction
Widal reaction
Paul bunnel reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal reaction
Q.
The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______________?
IgD
IgG
IgA
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV irradiation_______________?
Lipids
Inorganic salts
Nucleic acids
Carbohydrates
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleic acids
Q.
Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by________________?
Epithelial cells
Bacteria
Sucrose
Dextran
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dextran
Q.
The anaphylaxis should be treated first with_____________?
Epinephrine
Antibiotics
Steroids
Anti histamines
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epinephrine
Q.
Dorset
Streptococcus
Gonococcus
Mycobacterium
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best demonstrated by_________________?
Gram
H & E stain
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
PAS stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Q.
The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is______________?
Borrelia burgdorferi
Treponjema pertenue
Treponema pallidum
Borrelia vincenti
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti
Q.
Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is ________________?
Mucor
Aspergillus
Penicillium
Rhizopus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus
Q.
Best method of sterilizing disposable syringes_______________?
U.V. rays
Boiling
Gamma rays
Hot air oven
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma rays
Q.
Anaphylaxis refers to the________________?
Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions
Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens
State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________________?
Basidiomycetes yeast
Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Melanin production related to virulence
Causes meningitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Q.
The Process of attenuation can be achieved by all except___________________?
Growing bacteria in adverse environment
Serial passage in an experimental host
Repeated cultures in artificial media
Growing bacteria in unconventional host
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serial passage in an experimental host
Q.
Probiotic organism used_________________?
Bifido bacteria
Staphylococcus
E coli
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bifido bacteria
Q.
Staphylococcus does not causes_______________?
Scarlet fever
Abscess
Pneumonia
Osteomyelitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Scarlet fever
Q.
Oil and Grease are sterilized by________________?
Ethylene dioxide
Irradiation
Auto claving
Hot air oven
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Most sensitive test for antigen detection is_______________?
Immunoflourescence
Radioimmuno Assay
Passive hemaglutination
ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Radioimmuno Assay
Q.
Antigen combining site of the antibody is____________________?
Epitope
Hapten
Idiotope
Paratope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Paratope
Q.
The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______________?
Necrosis
Erythema
Induration
Vasculitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythema
Q.
The most common site where organisms are present in a typhoid carrier is______________?
Salivary gland
Liver
Gall Bladder
Spleen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gall Bladder
Q.
Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause foetal defect ?
Papilloma
Rubella
Herpes Simplex
Mumps
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Babu, a 28 year old male comes with compaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by____________?
Western blot
P24 antigen
Lymph node biopsy
ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: P24 antigen
Q.
The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is ________________?
Coagulase production
exotoxin production
lecithinase production
hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: hypersensitivity
Q.
In T.B cell mediated immunity is by_______________?
CD 4*
None of the above
B
CD 8*
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD 4*
Q.
Australia antigen is associated with________________?
AIDS
Chronic leukemia
Basal cell carcinoma
Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Q.
Incubation pariod of herpes zoster is________________?
1-2 years
1 months
3-6 months
7-14 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 7-14 days
Q.
Salmonella typhi can be isolated at different times from______________?
Blood
Urine
All of the above
Feaces
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which of the following antibacterial substance is present in eggs and saliva ?
Lysozyme
Secretozyme
Isozyme
Albumin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysozyme
Q.
Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection_________________?
Balantidium coli
Isopora belli
Taenia solium
Giardia lambella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Taenia solium
Q.
Electron microscopic examination of the bacterial flora of necrotising ulcerative gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are______________?
Filamentous rods
Cocci
Spirochetes
Bacteriophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
The most frequently encountered clostridial species in gas gangrene is______________?
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium welchii
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium botulinum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Q fever is caused by________________?
R. quintana
C. burnetti
R. prowozekii
Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C. burnetti
Q.
Mesophilic organisms are those that grow best at temperature of______________?
-20
25
55
-7
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 25
Q.
An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry cough, sputum culture showed growth on charcoal yeast Extract Medium, theorganism is______________?
Legionella
H. influenza
Moraxella catarrhalis
Burkholderia cepacia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Legionella
Q.
Techoic acid is present in_____________?
Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram negative organisms
Cell wall of Gram negative organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram positive organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Q.
Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?
The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission
Causes positive Nagler reaction
The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously
Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Q.
Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by_________________?
Hookworm
Fish tapeworm
Threadworm
Dog tapeworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fish tapeworm
Q.
Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?
Mycobacteria
Coccidia
Prions
Spore
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prions
Q.
Blood agar is________________?
Transport media
Differential media
Simple media
Enriched media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enriched media
Q.
Signs of tyhoid fever is/are_____________________?
Osteomyelitis
All of the above
perforation
Haemorrhage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by ___________________?
Mucor
Cryptococcus
Aspergillus
Candida albicans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction______________?
Staphylococcus
Haemophilus
Proteus
E.coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?
Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity
Immediately wash wound with soap and water
Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Give ARV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Q.
One of the following is a zoonotic disease_____________?
Cholera
Typhoid
Anthrax
Bacillary dysentery
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anthrax
Q.
Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of______________?
Gas gangrene
Wool sorters disease
Malaria
Whooping cough
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gas gangrene
Q.
Which of the following is a live vaccine_____________?
HDCV
Salk
17 D
Hepatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HDCV
Q.
The function of IgD is______________?
Reagin activity
Antigen recognition by B cells
Compliment activation
Localization protection in external secretion
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antigen recognition by B cells
Q.
The following statement is true regarding fungal infection__________________?
Candida infection is usually endogenous
albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals
Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man
Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida infection is usually endogenous
Q.
One of the following staining methods is an example of negative staining_______________?
Fontana
Gram
Zheil-Neilson
India ink preparation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
All are true about widel test except________________________?
Base lines differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative
H antigen cannot differentiate between subtypes
O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Q.
The virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhea include all of the following except____________?
M-Proteins
Pili
IgA Protease
Outer membrane proteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M-Proteins
Q.
Characteristic feature of retrovirus is_____________?
Reverse transcriptase
Restriction endonuclease
Ribonuclease
DNA polymerase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reverse transcriptase
Q.
Serum sickness syndrome is an example of________________?
Cell-mediated immunity
Anaphylactic
Systemic arthus reaction
Angioneurotic edema
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Systemic arthus reaction
Q.
The Window period in HIV infection means______________?
The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
None of the above
The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab
The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
Q.
Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to________________?
reduce the toxigenicity
Increase antigenicity
Reduce the antigenicity
Increase toxigenicity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increase antigenicity
Q.
Which of the following is true about amoebic liver disease ?
Non-suppurative form is the serious form of extra intestinal amoebiasis
Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Left lobe of liver is commonly involved
Portal system is the main filtration system
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Q.
Teichoic acid is present in cell walls of_________________?
Yeast
Protozoa
Gram positive bacteria
Gram negative bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Grave
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Madura mycosis produces______________?
Red granules
Brown to black granules
No granules
White to yellow granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: White to yellow granules
Q.
A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?
Brucella spp
Pasturella spp
Francisella spp
Bartonella spp
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Brucella spp
Q.
Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a_______________?
ELISA
Western Blot
RIPA
Immunodot
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Western Blot
Q.
Rabies virus________________?
Dermatotropic
Neurotropic
Cytotropic
Chromophilic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neurotropic
Q.
Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is_______________?
IgM
IgA
IgG
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
B.C.G untrue is_____________?
T.B vaccine
Orally administered
live vaccine
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orally administered
Q.
In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a_______________?
Toxin
Hapten
Carrier
Super antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hapten
Q.
Thread worm is______________?
Enterobius
Ascaris
Necator
Ancylostoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterobius
Q.
Endotoxin have all but one of the properties given below_______________?
Not secreted outside the cell
Produced by gram positive bacteria
Cannot be toxoided
Produced by gram negative bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Produced by gram positive bacteria
Q.
The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is___________?
Mannitol fermentation
Detection of coagulase
The catalase test
Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Detection of coagulase
Q.
Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus is due to ________________________?
Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Lack of nucleic acid in the cell wall
Pleomorphism
Penicillin analogue production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Q.
Influenza is caused by_____________?
Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Q.
Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is_________________?
1:2
1:3
3:1
2:1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2:1
Q.
On a stained slide, clostridium tetani has the appearance of a__________________?
Bunch of a
Chain of beads
Drum stick
Safely pin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Drum stick
Q.
Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine ?
Tuberculosis (BCG)
Typhoid
Cholera
Varicella Zoster virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cholera
Q.
which of the following is anaerobic_______________?
Bacteroides
Klebsiella
Pseudomonas
E.coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacteroides
Q.
Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstratig________________?
Trophozoites in the feces
Cysts in the intestine
Cysts in the sterile pus
Trophozoites in the pus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites in the pus
Q.
The urine sample of a patient has been sent to the laboratory to look for Leptospira. The specimen is to be screened by use of the__________________?
Dark ground microscope
Inverted microscope
Electron microscope
Scanning microscope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dark ground microscope
Q.
Function of Ig A is________________?
Activates macrophages
Kills virus infected cells
Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Circulating antibody
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Q.
Aflatoxins are produced by________________?
Aspergillus niger
All of the above
Aspergillus flavus
Aspergillus fumigatus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus flavus
Q.
The chemotactic factor is______________?
C4a
C3b
C5a
C2a
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C5a
Q.
Characters of exotoxin include all, except_______________?
Protein polysaccharide complex
Heat labile
Highly potent
Has specific tissue affinity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein polysaccharide complex
Q.
Leptospirosis, all are true except______________?
Faeces & urine of rodents is the cause
It is sensitive to penicillin
Incubation period is 10 days
Onset of IgM in 2 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Onset of IgM in 2 days
Q.
Which of the following belongs to cell fraction derived vaccine______________?
Rubella
Measles
Mumps
Hepatitis B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B
Q.
The killer cells are associated with immunologic response___________________?
Type I
Type II
Type IV
Type III
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
The term epitope refers to________________?
Hapten
Immunogen
Smallest antigenic determinant
complete antigen molecule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Smallest antigenic determinant
Q.
Drumstick appearance is seen in______________?
Cl. tetanomorphum
Cl. tetani
Cl. sphenoids
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. tetani
Q.
The commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercie bacilli________________?
Acridine orange
Congo red
Auramine and Rhodamine
Thioglavin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine and Rhodamine
Q.
Common name for Trichuris trichura________________?
Tape worm
Round worm
Whip worm
Seat woman
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Whip worm
Q.
Herpes virus_____________?
Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane
None of the above
Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Q.
The specific test for Treponema pallidum is___________?