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TOP Microbiology MCQS Questions
Q.
Bacterial spores are destroyed by_______________?
Autoclave
Disinfection by hypochlorite solution
Pasteurisation
Boiling at 100
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The interaction of antigens with antibodies on the surface of a mast cel leads to degranulation and anaphylaxis. The mast cell granules produce anaphylaxis because they contain________________?
Lysosomes
Lymphotoxins
Proteolytic enzymes
Vasoactive mediators
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vasoactive mediators
Q.
Bacteria with potent exotoxin is_______________?
Pseudomonas
Clostridium tetani
Shigella
Klebsiella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani
Q.
True about prions________________?
Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Viruses which are genetically deficient
Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Q.
The best skin disinfectant is________________?
Chlorhexdine
Savlon
Alcohol
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chlorhexdine
Q.
Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates_____________?
Carrier status
Late convalescence
Simple carriers
High infectivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: High infectivity
Q.
The facultative anaerobic bacteria are those who are_______________?
Unable to grow in the presence of oxygen
Able to grow in the presence of carbon dioxide
Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Unable to grow in the absence of oxygen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Q.
A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium malaria
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium vivax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Erysipelas is caused by________________?
Group A steptococci
Gonococci
Pneumococci
Group B staphylococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B staphylococci
Q.
True about immune response of hepatitis B is__________________?
Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Antibody to HBC is not protective
CMI disappears soon after recover
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Q.
Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria______________?
Mc Conkey
Loefflers serum slope
Lowenstein Jensen Medium
Saborauds agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Loefflers serum slope
Q.
A full course of immunization agianst. Telanus with 3 doses to Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how many years ?
5
15
10
20
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 10
Q.
Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?
Polymers chain reaction
ELISA followed by western blot technique
Western blot followed by ELISA
Virus isolation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA followed by western blot technique
Q.
Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-5m in size, multi-septate, chestnut, brown color is characteristic of________________?
Histoplasmosis
Rhinosporodiosis
Chromoblastomycosis
Phaeohypomycosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chromoblastomycosis
Q.
The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell
Haemagglutination test
Haemagglutination inhibition test
Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Q.
An oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod which produces a bluish-green pigment has been grown in culture from a swab obtained from an infected burn wound. This organism is susceptible to gentamicin, ticarcillin and tobramicin, but resistant to all the other antibiotics which of the following organisms is it likely to be ?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Escherichia coli
Proteus miribilis
Klebsiella pnemoniae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q.
Exaltation is________________?
Decreased virulence
Increased Virulence
None
No change
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increased Virulence
Q.
Which of the following is not true of boiling water_____________?
It can kill hepatitis B virus
Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis
Can kill vegetative bacterial cells
Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Q.
The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is_______________?
IgA
IgM
IgD
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Germ tubes are formed mainly by_______________?
Candida tropicalis
Candida stellatoidea
Candida albicans
Candida pseudotropicalls
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
The best method of sterilization of dressing powder is_____________?
Hot air oven
Inspissation
Tyndallization
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with______________?
IgM antibodies
IgA antibodies
Lysozyme
Mast cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA antibodies
Q.
Loss of capsule in bacteria is generally associated with______________?
Inability to spread through tissue
Decease in virulence
increase in invasiveness
Loss of infectivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Decease in virulence
Q.
Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify______________?
Spirochaetes
Rickettsiae
Mycoplasma
Chlamydiae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochaetes
Q.
Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_____________?
Aspergilosis
Candidiasis
Cryptococcosis
Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candidiasis
Q.
Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans_________________?
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Hot air oven is used for sterilization of all EXCEPT__________________?
Sharp instrument
Liquid paraffin
Rubber tubes
Glassware
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubber tubes
Q.
Which worm is longest________________?
Hook worm
A. Lumbricoides
T. Solium
T. Saginata
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T. Saginata
Q.
Malignant pustule is referred to_________________?
Cutaneous anthrax
Facio-cervical actinomycosis
Infected squamous cell carcinoma
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cutaneous anthrax
Q.
In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started________________?
Herpes
Rabies
Influenza
Poliomyelitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabies
Q.
True about VDRL test________________?
Best followed for drug therapy
Non
Slide flocculation test
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is_____________?
Hepatitis A virus
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
Lancefields classification of B hemolytic streptococcus is based on______________?
Physiological properties
Type of lipid in cell membrane
M Protein
Polysaccharide C antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Polysaccharide C antigen
Q.
Virulence of Gonococcus is due to___________________?
Pili
Cell Membrane
Its intracellular location
Cytolytic enzymes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
Which of the following fulfil all the criterias of kich
Mycobacterium leprae
Treponema pallidum
None of the above
N. gonorrhoeae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: None of the above
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria grow_______________?
differential media
in the absence of oxygen
in the presence of oxygen
in the presence of nitrogen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in the absence of oxygen
Q.
Which of the following is an acid-fast bacillus_____________?
Treponema pallidum
Neisseria gonorrhea
Mycobacterium bacilli
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium bacilli
Q.
Which of the following is obligate aerobe ?
Pseudomonas aerogenosa
diphtheria
Proteus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Q.
Malaria pigment is________________?
Haematin-globin pigment
Iron
Bilurubin
Haemoglobin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haematin-globin pigment
Q.
The key cell types involved in the acquired immunity include all EXCEPT________________?
Antigen presenting cells (APC
T lymphocytes
B lymphocytes
Erythrocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythrocytes
Q.
Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor_____________?
M protein
Streptolysin 0
Pyrogenic exotoxin
Carbohydrate cell wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pyrogenic exotoxin
Q.
The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as_____________?
Clone
Paratope
Idiotope
Epitope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epitope
Q.
Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose_______________?
Contact dermatitis
Arthus reaction
Anaphylaxis
Serum sickness
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Immunoglobulin consists of________________?
2 light, 2 heavy chains
1 light, 1 heavy chain
1 heavy, 2 light chains
3 light, 1 heavy chain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2 light, 2 heavy chains
Q.
Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in________________?
Chick embryos
Artificial media
Tissue culture
Rabbit testis only
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabbit testis only
Q.
Which of the following characteristics of bacteria is not true?
Free living
Having either DNA or RNA
Cell wall containing muramic acid
Unicellular
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Having either DNA or RNA
Q.
A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT________________?
Vancomycin
Linezolid
Teichoplanin
Imipenem
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Imipenem
Q.
The overall effect of HIV is to gradually impair the immune system by interference with______________?
Natural killer cells
Helper T lymphocytes
Plasma cells
Macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes
Q.
Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?
Core antibody
Core antigen
Surface antibody
Surface antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Surface antigen
Q.
Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies_____________?
Chicken pox
Measles
Rabies
Small pox
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles
Q.
Prozone phenomenon is due to______________?
Excess antibody
Disproportionate antigen antibody levels
Excess antigen
Hyper immune reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Excess antibody
Q.
Actinomycosis is a_________________?
Aerobic fungal disease
Anaerobic fungal disease
Anaerobic bacterial disease
Aerobic bacterial disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic bacterial disease
Q.
HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except________________?
Needle prick injury
Saliva
Sexual intercourse
Blood transmission
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saliva
Q.
Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_______________?
Presence of either DNA or RNA
All of the above
Simple structure
Complex multiplication
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
False +ve for VDRL is seen in______________?
Lepromatous Leprosy
Yaws
Malaria
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Most fungi of medical importance belongs to__________________?
Zygomycetes
Ascomycetes
Basidiomycetes
Deuteromycetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deuteromycetes
Q.
Most of the drug resistances occurs due to_____________?
Mutation
Transduction
conjugation
Transformation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: conjugation
Q.
The bacterial cell wall has all of the following properties except______________?
It consists of a mixed polymer called peptidoglycon
It is the structure principally responsible for the reaction of gram staining
It contains D-isomers of amino acids
It is a unique flexible plastic structure
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It is a unique flexible plastic structure
Q.
The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is_____________?
Apthous stomatitis
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Herpetic gingivostomatitis
Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Q.
Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in which of the following viruses_____________?
HIV
Pox virus
Hepatitis B virus
Measles virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is______________?
Donovania granulomatis
Hemophilia ducreya
Chlamydia trachomatis
Bartonella henselae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bartonella henselae
Q.
Which of the following is not a feature of anaphylaxis ?
passive transfer by serum
Delayed reaction
Immediate reaction
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Delayed reaction
Q.
DNA covering material in a virus is called as________________?
Envelope
Nucleocapsid
Capsid
Capsomere
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Capsid
Q.
ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______________?
Less sensitive less specific
More sensitive, less specific
Less sensitive, more specific
More sensitive, more specific
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: More sensitive, less specific
Q.
Who first introduced solid media_______________?
Louis pasteur
Hensen
Ogston
Robert koch
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robert koch
Q.
cAMP reaction is shown by which streptococci ?
Group C
Group A
Group B
Group D
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B
Q.
Widal test is specific for____________?
Pemhigoid
Leprosy
Plague
Typhoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid
Q.
Which of the following is not a koch
The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue
Pure cultures can be obtained
When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the experimental animals
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Q.
All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_________________?
histolytica
gingivalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: gingivalis
Q.
When horse serum is injected intravenoulsy in to a rabbit and again in to the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs as the site of the second injection________________?
Anaphylaxis
Serum sickness
Arthus phenomenon
Atopy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus phenomenon
Q.
Fimbriae are demonstrated by ___________________?
Gram stain
Biochemical reaction
Haemagglutination test
Culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haemagglutination test
Q.
The following is not true of Candida albicans______________?
Forms Chlamydospores
Yeast like fungus
Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them
Blastomeres seen in isolates
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blastomeres seen in isolates
Q.
The temperature required for cultivating mycobacterium________________?
0 degree
27 degrees
37 degrees
2 degree
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 37 degrees
Q.
All are true about bordetella pertussis except______________?
Bacteria culture from nasopharyngeal swab is the definitive diagnosis
Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
It may occur in children and young adult after vaccination
Most common cause is B. Petrussis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Q.
Causative organism of Kalahazar is_______________?
Entamoeba histolytica
Plasmodium ovaie
Toxoplasma
Leishman donovani
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leishman donovani
Q.
Interferon interferes with replication of virus at the time of_____________?
Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule
Protein synthesis
When virus enters the cell
DNA/RNA replication
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein synthesis
Q.
Rideal Walker test is used to determine the efficiency of the_____________?
Disinfectant
Moist heat sterilisation
Dry heat sterilization
Antibiotics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Disinfectant
Q.
The difference between sterilization and disinfection is that_______________?
Sterilization involves chemicals and disinfection involves physical methods
Disinfection kills all spores but sterilization does not
Sterilization is easier to achieve
Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Q.
The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is_______________?
Transformation
Conjugation
Translation
Lysogeny
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysogeny
Q.
For uniform staining reaction, morphology and biochemical activity it is advisable to study bacterial cultures during the_____________?
Stationary phase
Logarithmic phase
Death phase
Lag phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Logarithmic phase
Q.
The structure in involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface is_______________?
Flagella
None of the above
Fimbria
Capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fimbria
Q.
Vibrio cholera was discovered by_________________?
John snow
Virchow
Medintoff
Koch
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Koch
Q.
Noguchi
Bordetella
Borrelia
Brucella
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia
Q.
Donovanosis, true is___________________?
Penicillin is drug of choice
Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic
Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Characterized by painful genital ulcers
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Q.
Which of the following statement about P24 antigen of HIV is Not True ?
Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:
It can be detected during the window period
Virus load parallel P24 titre
It remains during asymptomatic phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It remains during asymptomatic phase
Q.
A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?
Autograft
Isograft
Xenograft
Allograft
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Isograft
Q.
In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_______________?
Merozoite
Gametocyte
Hypnozoite
Sporozoite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sporozoite
Q.
Virus infected cell is killed by________________?
Macrophages
Neutrophils
Interferons
Autolysis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Interferons
Q.
In small intestine, cholera toxin acts by______________?
ADP
Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
Active absorption of NaCI
Activation of GTPase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ADP
Q.
Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by_____________?
Haemolytic streptococci
Nisseria
Streptococcus viridans
Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus viridans
Q.
Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by______________?
UV-Radiation
Autoclaving
Inspissation
Hot air oven
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Candida is most often implicated in causation___________________?
Tenea capitis
Desert rheumatism
Conjunctivitis
Thrush
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thrush
Q.
Diphtheria is pathogenic only when infected with______________?
Alfa phage
Beta phage
Lambda K12
Delta Phage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Beta phage
Q.
The antigen used in Weil Felix test is obtained from________________?
Proteus
coli
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to______________?
CD4 T-cells
NK
B
CD8 T-cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4 T-cells
Q.
Actinomycosis is caused by______________?
Retrovirus
Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Acid fast, non-motile bacillus
Fungus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Q.
The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route________________?
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis D virus
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis E virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______________?
ELISA IS
Western Blot is
Both are
PCR is
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both are
Q.
Lepromin test is useful for________________?
Prognosis
Treatment plan
Epidemiology
Diagnosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prognosis
Q.
Staphylococci typically occur in_________________?
Chains
Pairs
Irregular clusters
Tetrads
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Irregular clusters
Q.
The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the________________?
CL domian
CH1 domian
VL domian
CH2 domian
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CH2 domian
Q.
Multiple drug resistance of bacteria depends on which of the following_______________?
All of the above
Fertility factor (F+)
Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Colicigenic factor (Col)
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Q.
Immunity that is conferred to the foetus by transfer of IgG and IgA antibodies is called as______________?
Passive natural immunity
Active acquired immunity
Natural active immunity
Passive acquired immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Passive natural immunity
Q.
Viron is defined as______________?
Extracellular infectious virus particle
Smallest virus
None of the above
A smallest particle similar to virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Extracellular infectious virus particle
Q.
Cough plate method is used to identify________________?
Pertussis
Mycoplasma
Y. pestis
M-Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pertussis
Q.
Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functional of the cell______________?
wall
Capsule
membrane
nucleus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: membrane
Q.
A dentist suffred from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is_____________?
Convalscent carrier
Paradoxical carrier
Inactive carrier
Healthy carrier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Convalscent carrier
Q.
Sunlight acts as sterilizing agent because_________________?
Heat
Long wavelength
short wave lenght
Ozone
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: short wave lenght
Q.
Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in______________?
12 weeks
2 weeks
9 weeks
4 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4 weeks
Q.
What is the sequence which a retro virus follows on entering a host cell ?
RNA -DNA-RNA
DNA-RNA-DNA
DNA-RNA
RNA-DNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: RNA -DNA-RNA
Q.
Nagglers reaction detects________________?
Hyaluronidase
Lecithinase
None of the above
Coagulase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Man is the only reservoir for_______________?
histolytica
Camphylobacter jejuni
Y. enterocolitica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: histolytica
Q.
Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_________________?
Cytokinin
Desmolase
Lecithinase
Theta toxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except___________________?
Through bacteriophages
Incorporating part of host DNA
through conjugation
Though plasmids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is__________________?
Placental transfer of antibodies
Gamma globulin injection
Immune blood transfusion
Hepatitis vaccination
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Placental transfer of antibodies
Q.
All are true about legionella pneumophilia except______________?
Aquatic bodies are main habitat
Urine test is a reliable method
It can replicate in amoeba
Person to person transmission
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Person to person transmission
Q.
Smith noguchi
Bacillus
Klebsiella
Spirochetes
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
Tyndallisation is carried out for________________?
One day
Two successive days
60 minutes
Three successive days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Three successive days
Q.
Prions true is____________?
Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Sensitive to most chemical sterilization
Evokes strong immunogenic reaction
Contains DNA/ RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Q.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which of the following________________?
Active T cells
NK cells
Plasma cells
B-cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active T cells
Q.
All are oncogenic except________________?
Aedes
Mansoni
Anopheles
Culex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aedes
Q.
Which of the following viruses appears to be involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi
Human Herpes Virus 4
Human Herpes Virus 3
Human Herpes Virus 8
Human Herpes Virus 1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Human Herpes Virus 4
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Vincent
Ulcerative gingivostomatitis
A symbiotic infection
Caused due to malnutrition
Caused by leptospira interrogans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by leptospira interrogans
Q.
Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores can be achieved with_______________?
KOH wet mount
Peri-iodic Acid Schiff
Grocott Gomori Methenamine silver
Hematoxylin and Eosin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: KOH wet mount
Q.
The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum ?
IgG2
IgG1
IgG4
IgG3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG1
Q.
Cytopathic effect is shown by_____________?
Bacteria
Spirochete
Anaerobe
Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
Methods for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infection________________?
Microscopic examination of skin scrapings
All of the above
KOH staining
Wood light examination
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Culture medium used for Bordatella pertussis is_________________?
Wilson Blair medium
Robertson cooked meat medium
Bordet Gengou medium
Bile broth
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bordet Gengou medium
Q.
Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_____________________?
only after one year
no antibodies are present in primary HSV
in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
Q.
Graft versus host reaction is caused by_________________?
Leukocytes
Monocytes
T-lymphocytes
B-Lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T-lymphocytes
Q.
Black pigmented anaerobes include all of the following except______________?
Porphyromonas
Buccae
Tannerella
Prevotella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Buccae
Q.
A protoplast is best characterized as a bacterial cell______________?
Uniquely sensitive to penicillin
containing a cell wall and a capsule
Free of a cell wall and a capsule
with a cell wall but free of a capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Q.
Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes______________?
NK Cells
Cytotoxic T cells
Memory B cells
B cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NK Cells
Q.
Grape bunch shaped colonies are seen in______________?
E.coli
Staphylococcus
Gonococci
Streptococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staphylococcus
Q.
The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is_______________?
EB virus
Adeno
Parvo virus
Hepatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parvo virus
Q.
Most antibodies are produced in the________________?
Spleen and the lymph nodes
Brain and the meninges
Heart and the liver
Thymus and the appendix
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spleen and the lymph nodes
Q.
Post streptococcal acute glomerulo nephritis is an example of________________?
Type II hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type III hypersensitivity
Q.
Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups ?
Hepadana viruses
Flavi viruses
Picorna viruses
Herpes viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi viruses
Q.
Phase contrast microscopy is based on principle of__________________?
Different refractive indices of object
Light attenuation
Different reflective indices of object
Light scattering
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Different refractive indices of object
Q.
The medium of choice for culturing yeast from of dimorphic fungi is_________________?
Brain
Sabouraud
Any medium incubated at 35-37
Sabouraud
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
The diagnosis of gonorrhea is established by_____________?
All of the above tests
Pili agglutination tests
Compliment fixation tests
Haemagglutination tests
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above tests
Q.
Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to______________?
Thread worm
Guinea worm
Ascaris
Hook worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hook worm
Q.
Candida albicans causes all of the following except______________?
Oral thrush
Meningitis
Mycetoma
Endocarditis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycetoma
Q.
CD4 count in normal healthy adult is_______________?
200
1000
500
300
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1000
Q.
A darkfield microscope would be useful in examining blood for_______________?
Actinomyces
Streptococcus
Treponema
Mycobacterium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema
Q.
Immunoglobulins ar secreted by______________?
T-cells
Macrophages
Neutrophils
Plasma cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasma cells
Q.
Haptane is_______________?
None of the above
High molecular protein
Carrier required for specific antibody production
Same as epitopes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Carrier required for specific antibody production
Q.
Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by______________?
Isolation form stool
Isolation from bile
IgM antibodies in serum
Culture from blood
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM antibodies in serum
Q.
VDRL is a________________?
Slide flocculation test
Latex agglutination test
Tube agglutination test
Tube flocculation test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Slide flocculation test
Q.
One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is____________?
Permutation
Mutation
Viral interference
Supervision
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Viral interference
Q.
The difference between gram positive and negative bacteria lies in their_______________?
cell wall
Nuclear material
Mesosomes
cell membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cell wall
Q.
The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are______________?
Virus infections
Gram negative organisms
Gram positive organisms
Mycoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram negative organisms
Q.
Endotoxins differ from exotoxins in that endotoxins______________?
are highly antigenic
activate complement by the alternate pathway
are proteins
are heat labile
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: activate complement by the alternate pathway
Q.
The Dane particle is the______________?
Delta Virus
HBV
HBC Ag
IgG anti HAV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBV
Q.
Tuberculin test screens for_____________?
Hemoral immunity
Complement function
Phagocyte dysfunction
Cell mediated immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell mediated immunity
Q.
Endoscopes are sterilized by using_______________?
Gamma radiation
Cidex
Boiling
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Boiling
Q.
One of the following statement about statements about sterilization is not true_______________?
Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Glass syringes ? Boiling at 169
Flash pasteurization of milk ? 72
Liquid paraffin ? Dry heat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Q.
Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?
Polysaccharides
Lipids
Adjuvant
Proteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteins
Q.
IgG antibodies have a half-life of approximately_______________?
1 hour
1 Month
1 day
1 week
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 Month
Q.
Exotoxins are____________________?
Protein compound
Lipid-polysaccharide complex
None
Lipoprotein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein compound
Q.
Following is a retrovirus_____________?
Immunodeficiency virus
Influenza
Hepatitis virus
Polio virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immunodeficiency virus
Q.
The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement_________________?
IgE
IgG
IgA
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
The reaginic antibody is________________?
IgE
IgA
IgD
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Kaposi
Below 200
Above 2000
Between 1000-2000
Above 600
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Below 200
Q.
All are not true for cultivation of anaerobic organisms except_______________?
anaerobic jar
Refrigerator
Incubator
Centrifuge
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: anaerobic jar
Q.
Each of the following can cause food poisoning except________________?
Cl. welchii
Cl. difficile
Cl. botulinum
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. difficile
Q.
Which of the following does not go into chronic hepatitis stage ?
HEV
HBV
HCV
HDV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HEV
Q.
Physical sterilization was discovered by__________________?
Joeph Lister
Robert Koch
Alexander flemings
John Hunter
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Joeph Lister
Q.
Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito______________?
Merozoite
Gametocyte
Zygote
Sporozoite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gametocyte
Q.
Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with_______________?
Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Giemsa stain
Ziel Nelson
Kin Young stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Q.
Which of the following are correctly matched ?
Antigenic stimulus given by vaccine (polio) is artificial active immunity
Transfer of antibody from mother to child is through colostrum and acquired passive immunity naturally
Injection of antibodies (Hepatitis) is artificially acquired passive immunity
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which is type II hypersensitivity ?
Anaphylaxis
Immune complex mediated
Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Delayed hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Q.
By using phase contrast microscope_______________?
External capsule formation can be observed
Internal structures are differentiated in dead cells
Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Internal metabolic activities can be observed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Q.
One of the following is a treponemal test for diagnosis of syphilis_____________?
Wasserman test
FTAB
Kahn test
Widal test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: FTAB
Q.
Which of the following have the capability to produce extra cellular polysaccharides______________?
Peptostreptococcus
Strep. Mutans
Enterococcus
Strep. pyogenes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strep. Mutans
Q.
Opportunistic infection is caused by___________________?
Penicillium
Aspergillus
Mucor
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The minimum time required for the sterilization of surgical instruments by moist heat at 134
30 minutes
3 minutes
60 minutes
15 minutes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3 minutes
Q.
Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti_________________?
Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Causes filariasis
Terminal nuclei absent
Body is slender and long
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Q.
Granules in the corynebacterium diphtheria are called by following names, except______________?
Voluntin granules
Metachromatic granules
Refractile granules
Babes Ernst granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile granules
Q.
Neurotoxin of tetanus acts on______________?
Muscle
Brain
Synapse
Spinal card
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spinal card
Q.
Sporulation occurs in__________________?
Decline phase
Stationary phase
Log phase
Lag phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
True about HIV are all except______________?
DNA virus
Attacks CD4 cells
Decrease CD4 count in late stages
Macrophages are the reservoir
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: DNA virus
Q.
IgG has subclasses_______________?
2
4
1
3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4
Q.
Anti HBsAB indicates______________?
Resistance to hepatitis B
Acute infection
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Good prognosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Good prognosis
Q.
Causative agents of Vincent
Borrelia recurrents and bateroides
Leptospira and Treponema pallidum
Borrelia burgoloferi and lactobacillus
Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Q.
Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______________?
Contact dermatitis
Serum sickness
Atopic allergy
Transfusion reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is________________?
Counter immune electroporesis
Microscopy
ELISA
Indirect hemagglutination
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA
Q.
Test for differentiating virulent form non-virulent tubercular bacilli_____________?
Aryl sulphatase test
Catalase peroxidase test
Neutral red test
Niacin test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neutral red test
Q.
Rickettsiae__________________?
Multiply within living cell
All of the above
Transmitted by arthropod vectors
Respond to tetracycline therapy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Virus is cultured in_______________?
Rogosa medium
Embryonated egg
Saubourd
Nonembryonated egg
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Embryonated egg
Q.
Disinfection frees the surface from______________?
None of the above
Spore forms
Both of the above
Vegetative forms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vegetative forms
Q.
Human immunoglobulins are divided based on_____________?
Complemented fixation
None of the above
Functional differences
Structural differences
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Structural differences
Q.
Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to__________________?
Invasion
Capsule
Endotoxin
Exotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Exotoxin
Q.
Chemotactic cytokine is_________________?
IL-1
IL-6
TNF
IL-8
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IL-8
Q.
The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in vivo from one bacterium to another by_____________?
Rarefaction
Transformation
Transduction
Conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
The culture media for fungus is__________________?
Sabourauds medium
Tellurite medium
NNN medium
Chocolate agar medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabourauds medium
Q.
Immunoglobin, Which is produced first by the fetus in response to infection_______________?
IgD
IgM
IgG
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Which of the following is an enrichment medium________________?
Mac Conkey agar
Selenite F Broth
Nutrient Broth
Blood agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Selenite F Broth
Q.
What is the transport medium for cholera___________________?
B & C
Cary Blair Medium
Venkatraman
Tellurite Medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: B & C
Q.
A type of immediately occuring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called_____________?
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type I hypersensitivity
Q.
Same or closely related antigens present in different biological species are known as________________?
Isoantigens
Suquestrated antigens
Heterophile antigens
Haptens
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Heterophile antigens
Q.
One of the following is an agglutination test in the diagnosis of typhoid___________?
Mantoux test
Widal test
Eleks test
Wasserman test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
Sterilization is a process in which_________________?
Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Kill all pathogenic micro-organisms
Deactivate all pathogens not spores
Kill all non-pathogenic micro-organisms in the environment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Q.
Human immune deficiency virus is ________________ virus?
Flavi
Retro
Rhabdo
Rheo
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Retro
Q.
A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned in to an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis______________?
Acid Fast Stain
Trichrome Methylene blue
Calcoflour White
Carbol Fuschin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trichrome Methylene blue
Q.
Half-life of free HIV in plasma is________________?
24 hours
6 hours
3 months
12 hours
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 6 hours
Q.
Among The infectious diseases transmitted by food, one is___________________?
Diptheria
Tuberculosis
Viral stomatitis
Typhoid fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid fever
Q.
Moist heat kills all of the following EXCEPT_______________?
Brucella
Salmonella
Mycobacterium
Coxiella burnetti
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coxiella burnetti
Q.
The Ig found in exocrine secretions is_____________?
IgA
IgM
IgG
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Operation theatres are sterilized by_____________?
Carbolic acid spraying
Formaldehyde fumigation
Washing with soap and water
ETO gas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Formaldehyde fumigation
Q.
Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci________________?
Staphylococcus
Aerococcus
Micrococcus
Sarcina
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sarcina
Q.
About Bacteroids True are all Except_______________?
Bile resistant anerobes
Most common species is B fragilis
Susceptible to many antibiotics
Present mainly in mixed infections
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Susceptible to many antibiotics
Q.
Encapsulation in bacteria helps in__________________?
Spore formation
Oxygen effect
Decreased virulence
Prevent their phagocytosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prevent their phagocytosis
Q.
In initial stages of tyhoid, salmonella can be detected in________________?
Urine
Blood
Feacus
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood
Q.
All of the following are true of streptococcus except_____________?
It
Shows adherence to dental enamel
Most common is animals
Most common in humans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It
Q.
Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phase of the bacterial growth curve______________?
Exponential growth
Stationary phase
Decline
Lag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
Viruses can be cultured in all except_______________?
Cell culture
Chick embryo
Guinea pigs
Blood agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood agar
Q.
Kolmer test is a screening test done for_________________?
Tuberculosis
Syphilis
Gonorrhea
Lymphoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Function of T-lymphocyte is/are________________?
Rosette formation
All of the above
Production of interferon
Lymphokine production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The following are applicable to bacterial genoms except________________?
It doe not contain histones
It is circular
It is composed of DNA
Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Q.
EBV causes all except_________________?
Papilloma
Infectious mononucleosis
Carcinoma of nasopharynx
Burkitt
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma
Q.
Which of the following is not used as disinfectant________________?
1-2% cetrimide
5% chloroxylene
100% alcohol
2% Lysol
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 100% alcohol
Q.
Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by_______________?
M. ulcerans
M. Kansasii
M. smegmatis
M. chelonae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. chelonae
Q.
All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except____________?
HIV
Hepatitis E
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Which of the following correctly indicates the infectivity of hepatitis virus in human ?
Anti-HBS
Anti-HBC
HBCAg
HBeAg
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBeAg
Q.
In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except__________________?
Malabsorption
Hemolysis
Spleen sequestration
Bone marrow depression
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Malabsorption
Q.
Which of the following is not a pox virus ?
Cowpox
Molluscum contagiosum
Small pox
chicken pox
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: chicken pox
Q.
A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is______________?
India ink preparation
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Methanamine silver stain
Pyte-ferraco stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
Staphylococcal food poisoning includes the following features_______________?
Requires immediate antibiotics
Heat labile enterotoxin
Common with dairy products
Incubation period of 24 hours
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Common with dairy products
Q.
Causative organism for gas gangrene_______________?
Coli
Clostridium welchii
Strep. Faecalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Streptococcus is classified based on__________________?
M Protein
Cultural characteristics
Cell wall carbohydrate
Bile Solubility
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall carbohydrate
Q.
compared with autoclave, use of a dry heat over for sterilization has the following disadvantages______________?
Time-consuming
Less effective
Causes instruments to rust
Causes sharp instruments to dull
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Time-consuming
Q.
Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces?
Pili
Mesosomes
Capsule
Flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except_____________?
Legionella pneumophila
Salmonella typhi
Neisseria meningitides
Streptococcus pyogenes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus pyogenes
Q.
The best sterilization method for a hand-piece is________________?
chemical vapour
All of the above
Ethylene oxide gas
dry heat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ethylene oxide gas
Q.
Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is____________?
Secretory IgA
Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Histidine rich proteins
Sialoperoxidase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Q.
Sleeping sickness is caused by_______________?
Tick
House fly
Sand fly
Reduvid bug
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reduvid bug
Q.
The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_____________?
Kerison
Pilomatrixoma
Tenia incognito
Alopecia areata
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kerison
Q.
Steam under pressure in used in ________ sterilization?
Autoclave
Kochs sterilizer
hot air oven
Pasteurization
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The small nonparticulate protein leading to enhanced replication of HBV as well as HIV is______________?
Hbe Ag
HBs Ag
HBx Ag
HBc Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBx Ag
Q.
T cells multiplication is stimulated by_______________?
Macrolin
Bovine serum
Heat
Phytohaemagglutinin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Phytohaemagglutinin
Q.
Bacteria reproduce mainly by______________?
Budding
Bacterial components produced by host cells
Binary fission
Sporing
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Binary fission
Q.
The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine doses not play a major role is______________?
Asthma
Anaphylaxis
Arthus reaction
Urticaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus reaction
Q.
Robertsons cooked meat medium is best suited for cultivation of_______________?
Choleria
Clostridia
S. epidermidis
Mycobacterium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridia
Q.
A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates________________?
Prodromal phase
Acute infection
Carrier state
Convalescence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acute infection
Q.
Which of the following organisms does NOT react with gram
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Streptococcus mutan
Actinomyces israelii
Candida albicans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q.
Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins ?
IgA
IgM
IgG
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Disinfection of the rooms can be done by using_______________?
40% formaldehyde vapour
High efficiency particle arrestors
Chlorine gas
20% phenol
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 40% formaldehyde vapour
Q.
Negative staining is used to demonstrate________________?
Bacterial Flagella
Bacterial capsule
Bacterial fimbriae
Bacterial spore
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacterial fimbriae
Q.
Which is not true about vibrio cholera_________________?
Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Grows on simple media
Man is the only natural host
It is non-halophilic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Q.
Group A carbohydrate of Str. pyogenes cross reacts with human_________________?
Vascular intima
Cardiac valves
Myocardium
Synovial fluid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiac valves
Q.
Pneumococus can be differentiated from streptococcus by________________?
Gram staining
Growth characteristics
Type of hemolysis
Bile solubility
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bile solubility
Q.
Phage conversion is required for________________?
Diptheria
Gonorrhoea
Tularemia
All o f the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Diptheria
Q.
parasitic inflammation would show predominantly____________________?
Eosinophils
Lymphocytes
Basophils
Neutrophilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Eosinophils
Q.
Pseudohphae are seen in____________?
Aspergillus
Alternaria
Candida albicans
Osporium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?
Trench fever
Epidemic typhus
Q fever
Relapsing fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Q fever
Q.
The causative organism of syphilis is___________?
Leptospira interrogans
Treponema pallidum
Borrelia burgolorferi
Chalamydia trachomatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema pallidum
Q.
Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except______________?
Giardia lambia
Ascaris lumbriocoides
Entamoeba
Strongyloides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strongyloides
Q.
Toxoids are_________________?
non-antigenic and non-toxic
non-antigenic and toxic
antigenic and toxic
antigenic and non-toxic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: antigenic and non-toxic
Q.
Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000_________________?
Secretory piece
L chain
H chain
J piece
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: H chain
Q.
IL-1 is produced by_________________?
Helper T cells
Monocytes
Macrophages
Helper B cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Macrophages
Q.
In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by_____________?
Stool culture
Blood culture
Widal test
Urine culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except__________________?
All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection
Found exclusively in human beings.
Most common cause of urethritis is male
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Q.
Pigs are important source of_____________?
Japanese encephalitis
Kuru
Rabies
Yellow fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Japanese encephalitis
Q.
A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains and haemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism ?
Bile solubility
Bacitracin sensitivity
Cataslase positive
Optochin sensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacitracin sensitivity
Q.
Organ of locomotion in bacteria is________________?
Flagella
Capsule
Fimbria
Cell wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flagella
Q.
All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except______________?
Colony morphology on saliva agar
Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide
Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital
Gram staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram staining
Q.
Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in______________?
Ascariasis and tapeworm
Ascariasis
Tapeworm
Hood worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ascariasis
Q.
Bacteria with tuft of flagella at one end are called_______________?
Monotrichate
Lophotrichate
Peritrichate
Bipolar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lophotrichate
Q.
Certain viruses have been isolated in crytalline form and have been found to be_____________?
Nucleoproteins
Phospholipids
Scleroproteins
Nucleotides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleoproteins
Q.
Fungal infection of human beings is called as_____________?
Mucorsis
Micromia
Fungosis
Mycosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycosis
Q.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa_________________?
Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.
Causes Shangai fever
Produces heat stable enterotoxin
Does not produce any pigment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Causes Shangai fever
Q.
The world german measles is applied for_____________?
Herpetic ginglvostomatitis
Rubella
Herpes simplex
Rubeola
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Which of the following provides best gurantee for sterlization in the heat sterilizer ?
Using a bacterial spore test
Determining the ability of a sterilizer to kill the hepatitis B virus
Recording a temperature/ pressure readings from sterilizer guage
Using chemical indicator strip or pouch
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Using a bacterial spore test
Q.
Active artificial immunization is induced by the administration of all of the following EXCEPT______________?
Antitoxins
Vaccines
Toxoids
Bacterial products
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antitoxins
Q.
Plaque test is used routinely in virology lab
To maintain certain viral culture
Identification of viral disease
To prepare vaccines
To separate specific clone of virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Identification of viral disease
Q.
The commonest method of detection of diptheria carriers is_______________?
Schick test
Dick test
Casoni
Charles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Schick test
Q.
Most common tumor associated with AIDS is______________?
Melanoma
Kaposi
Ewing
Carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kaposi
Q.
Which of the following is a RNA virus ?
Measles virus
Herpes Virus
Papavo virus
Adeno virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
A 6 year old boy comes with abdominal pain, vomiting after consuming mild products within 6 hours. The most likely organism responsible is______________?
B.Cereus
Salmonella
Clostridium botulinum
Staph. aureus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staph. aureus
Q.
The medium of choice for growing most fungi is_______________?
Blood agar
Sabouraud
Thioglycollate medium
Tissue culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
Hydatid cyst is__________________?
Viral
Congenital
Parasitic in nature
Fungal
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parasitic in nature
Q.
Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called______________?
CFT
Opsonisation
De coding
Chemotaxis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Opsonisation
Q.
The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is___________________?
15%
10%
5%
2%
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2%
Q.
Selective media for MYCOBACTERIUM _____________?
Lowenstein Jensen medium
Loefflers serum slope
Sabourauds medium
Agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lowenstein Jensen medium
Q.
A sporangium contains_______________?
Spherules
Chlamydospores
porangiospores
Oidia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: porangiospores
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria can be cultured in__________________?
Loefflers medium
L-J medium
Sabourauds agar
Robertson cooked meat medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robertson cooked meat medium
Q.
All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except________________?
The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides
Cysts are 8 nucleated
Cysts are 4 nucleated
Trophozoites colonise in the colon
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cysts are 8 nucleated
Q.
Gram -ve bacteria stain during gram staining____________?
Green
Blue color
Colorless
Red color
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Red color
Q.
The optimal time and temperature required for sterilization in an autoclave is___________________?
140
121
121
121
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 121
Q.
Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus ?
Focal epithelial hyperplasia
Keratoacanthoma
Condyloma acuminatum
Verruca vulgaris
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Keratoacanthoma
Q.
IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by______________?
Lymphocytes
Activated macrophages
Platelet
Plasma cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Activated macrophages
Q.
The major intestinal pathogens which are non-lactose fermenters are_________________?
Salmonella
Klebsiella
Escherichia
Paracolons
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salmonella
Q.
Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by________________?
ELISA
DNA probe
Culture
Direct microscopy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Culture
Q.
Which component of the cell wall is responsible________________?
Region II
Region I
Boivin antigen
Region III
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Region III
Q.
In patients with asthma due to an allergic cause the serum levels of which immunoglobulin increase____________________?
IgD
IgA
IgE
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Which regards to temperature requirement, most pathogenic bacteria are_____________?
Psychrophiles
Mesophiles
Thermophiles
Cryophiles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mesophiles
Q.
Negative phase is seen in ________ immunity?
Active
Local
Passive
Herd
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active
Q.
Bacterial cell does not possess___________________?
Cell wall
dna
Ribosome
Mitochondria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mitochondria
Q.
Australian antigen is_______________?
HBV
None of the above
HBs AG
HB Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBs AG
Q.
Which does not have a viral etiology______________?
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Carcinoma Cervix
Lymphoma
Hepatoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Endotoxins are produced by________________?
Gram +ve bacteria
Gram -ve bacteria
Fungi
Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram -ve bacteria
Q.
EBV is responsible for all except______________?
Hepatoma
Infectious mononucleosis
Burkitt
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Complement factor through which common pathway begins___________________?
C2
Protein B
C5
C3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C3
Q.
Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is___________________?
Lungs
Brain
Liver
Spleen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Liver
Q.
The time gap between appearance of Koplik
10 days
3-4 days
2 weeks
24 Hrs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3-4 days
Q.
CD4 cells recognize the antigens in association with_____________?
B-cell receptor
MHC III
MHC I
MHC II
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: MHC II
Q.
Each of the following viruses possesses an outer lipoprotein envelope except_____________?
Papilloma Virus
Influenza Virus
Varicella Zoster Virus
Human immunodeficiency virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma Virus
Q.
Mark true in following ?
Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
None of the above
Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Q.
First released immunoglobulin after primary immunization_______________?
IgG
IgE
IgM
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is_________________?
T-strain mycoplasma
Streptococcus fecalis
Neisseria gonorrhea
Escherichia coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Escherichia coli
Q.
Black water fever is caused by______________?
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax
Leishmania donovani
Microfilaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______________?
Dot
Comma
Banana
Sickle
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sickle
Q.
Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____________?
6 months
6 week
3 months
1 week
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 week
Q.
About Psedomonas. All are true except________________?
Can grow in disinfectants in hospital
Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Most common organism is burn patient
Strick aerobes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except_______________?
Through plasmids
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through bacteriophages
Through conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____________?
16,18,31
3,10,19
6,8,11
Type 6,12,18
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 16,18,31
Q.
Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except_______________?
Tissue culture
Embryonated eggs
Chemically defined media
Animals
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chemically defined media
Q.
Type of receptor present on T-cells are__________________?
Ig A
Ig G
Prostaglandins
CD4
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4
Q.
All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_____________?
Chromatid bars
Eccentric nucleus
Refractile nucleus
Glycogen mass
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile nucleus
Q.
Leprosy bacilli can be grown in_________________?
Tail of guinea pig
Testes of albino rats
Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Testes of guinea pig
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Q.
Group A B-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the pharynx may be followed in some by_____________?
Syphilis
Diphtheria
Typhoid fever
Rheumatic fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatic fever
Q.
Secretory Ig is_______________?
IgE
IgA
IgM
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Which of the following viruses does not infect salivary glands ?
Hepatitis C
Echo virus
HIV
Orthomyxovirus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxovirus
Q.
Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following________________?
Salk vaccine
All of the above
Tetanus toxoid
Sabin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salk vaccine
Q.
True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by_______________?
Rats
cats
Cow
Dogs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cats
Q.
Candidal hyphae can be stained using_______________?
Toluidine blue stain
Masson Trichrome stain
Van Gieson
Periodic acid schiff stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Periodic acid schiff stain
Q.
The prototype of Type II hypersensitivity reaction is__________________?
Arthus reaction
Contact dermatitis
Auto immune hemolytic anemia
SLE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Q.
The earliest identifiable cells of T-Cell lineage during maturation are_______________?
CD8+ Pre-T-Cells
CD8+ Pro-T-Cells
CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
CD5+ Pre-T-Cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
Q.
Dengue virus belongs to______________?
Togaviridae
Flavi virus
Rhabdoviridae
Reoviridae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi virus
Q.
T cell matures in______________?
Payers patch
Busra of Fabricius
Lymph node
Thymus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thymus
Q.
The presence of Which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility ?
Lipids
Enzymes
Polysaccharide
Protein coat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein coat
Q.
Wasserman test test is diagnostic of__________________?
Syphilis
Tyhoid
TB
Gonorrhea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Glasswares are sterilised by______________?
Autoclaving
Hot air oven
Incineration
Formaldehyde
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by which of the following_____________?
All of the above
Ethanol
Cidex
Boiling
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affets_______________?
Fibroblasts
Mast cells
Red blood cells
Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Q.
Which of the following enzyme is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot pathogenic staphylococci_____________?
Lysozyme
S protein
Coagulase
Fibrinolysin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coagulase
Q.
Secondary response is mediated by_______________?
IgE
IgA
IgM
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Bacterial species which is protective or beneficial to the host is_______________?
Treponema denticola
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Streptococcus sanguis
Spirochetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus sanguis
Q.
Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve________________?
Jejunum and Ileum
Stomach
Duodenum
Caecum and large intestine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caecum and large intestine
Q.
A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents________________?
ISO
Allo
Xeno
Auto
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Allo
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical mycobacteria by______________?
Niacin test
AFB staining
None of the above
Pas staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Niacin test
Q.
The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by____________?
Conjugation
Transduction
Cell fusion
Translation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
Sterilisation control for moist heat is
Using non-pathogenic strain of clostridium tetani
Using methylene blue
using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Using chemical indicator
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Q.
Complement binding immunoglobin via the classical pathway is_______________?
IgG & IgA
IgG & IgD
IgG & igM
IgD & IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG & igM
Q.
Commonest mycobacterial infection in tropical countries_______________?
Kansasi
M. tuberculosis
M. avium intracellulare
M. leprae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. tuberculosis
Q.
Sterilisation is______________?
Pathogens killed but spores are not affected
Only pathogenic micro-organisms killed
Non-pathogenic killed
All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Q.
Killer and Helper cells are part of_______________?
Monocytes
T cells
B cells
Macrophage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T cells
Q.
Bacteriophage was discovered by_________________?
Twort and d
Metchinkoff
Robert koch
Menkin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Twort and d
Q.
Growth factor needed for Salmonella_________________?
B-12
Niacin
Tryptophan
Citrate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Tryptophan
Q.
Louis Pasteur is not associated with_______________?
Introduction of complex media
Disproved spontaneous regression theory
Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Discovery of Rabies Vaccine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Q.
Synthesis of antibodies in plasma cells occurs in_________________?
Golgi body
Mitochondria
Endoplasmic reticulum
Nucleus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.
Leishmania is cultured in ________________ media?
Sabourauds
Chocolate agar
NNN
Tellurite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NNN
Q.
Purpose of Sterilization is to eliminate________________?
Bacteria
Spore formers
Viruses
Fungus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spore formers
Q.
The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to_____________?
Dehydrate microbial cells
Kill mircobes
Remove microbes
Inhibit microbial growth
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Remove microbes
Q.
The only virus, which has double stranded RNA, is______________?
Bunya virus
Calci virus
Rhabdo virus
Reo virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reo virus
Q.
Culture media of candida is_________________?
Saboraud
Methylene blue dextrose agar
Pingolevin
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saboraud
Q.
L.D bodies are seen in_______________?
Toxoplasmosis
Malaria
Kalahazar
Sleeping sickness
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kalahazar
Q.
Schuffner
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium malariae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium vivax
Q.
Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus infection during window period ?
HBs Ag
Anti HBs
IgM anti
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM anti
Q.
Delhi boil refer to_______________?
Malignant pustule
L. Tropica sore
Solar Keratosis
Venereal ulcer
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: L. Tropica sore
Q.
Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except________________?
50% chances to have AIDS
All are true
Have infections
Failure to thrive
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 50% chances to have AIDS
Q.
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to_______________?
Histiocytes
T lymphocytes
B lymphocytes
Monocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T lymphocytes
Q.
The cell wall deficient bacteria_______________?
Rickettsiae
Mycoplasma
Chlamydiae
Ehrlichiae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycoplasma
Q.
Pasteur developed the vaccine for_______________?
Cholera
All of the above
Rabies
Anthrax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Borrelia vincenti is always associated with______________?
Treponema vincenti
Spirochaetes
None of the above
Fusiform bacilli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fusiform bacilli
Q.
The Manufacturing unit of surgical needle & sutures are sterilized by ________________?
X-Rays
Boiling
Gamma-Rays
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma-Rays
Q.
Glutaraldehyde is preferred more than formaldehyde because______________?
It has got more bactericidal activity
It has got more bacteriostatic activity
It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Its application is easier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Q.
The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is_____________?
Chorio allantoic membrane
Chocolate agar
Sabourad
Robertoson
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chorio allantoic membrane
Q.
Rh incompatibility is which type of hyper sensitivity reaction ?
Type I
Type IV
Type II
Type III
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Silver impregnation method of staining is useful to demonstrate_____________?
Spirochetes
Both of the above
None of the above
Bacterial flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both of the above
Q.
Which of the following would you consider to be general properties of viruses______________?
Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids
Contain DNA but no RNA
New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Q.
Dematophytes are fungi infecting________________?
Subcutaneous tissue
Superficial skin and deep tissue
Nails, hair and skin
Systemic organs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nails, hair and skin
Q.
Chlamydia causes all of the following except________________?
Pneumonia
Non-gonococcal urethritis
Trachoma
Parotitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parotitis
Q.
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (SSS syndrome) is due to______________?
Enterotoxin F
Enterotoxin B
Enterotoxin D
Enterotoxin A
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterotoxin F
Q.
Leprosy bacilli are transmitted from person to person by all except______________?
Dischange from nasal mucosa
From open sore
Through breast milk
Through intact skin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Through breast milk
Q.
ASO (Antistreptolysin 0) test is uesd for the diagnosis of________________?
Typhoid fever
Rheumatoid arthritis
Rheumatie fever
Rickettsial fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatie fever
Q.
Actinomycetes is______________?
A yeast like form
Fungus
Gram positive bacteria
Gram negative bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is_____________?
Eosin stain
Blue stain
Ninhydrin stain
Haemotoxin stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ninhydrin stain
Q.
Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by_____________?
Bacteria superadded on virus
Parasite
Virus
Bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
The term animalcules to oral microorganisms is given by__________________?
Socranci
Leumenhoek
Wd miller
Robertson
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leumenhoek
Q.
Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly_______________?
Lung
Skin
Gastrointestinal tract
Nasal mucosa
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gastrointestinal tract
Q.
Phospholipid used to investigate syphilis by the reagin test is________________?
Plasminogen
Cardiolipin
Palmityl lecithin
Serine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiolipin
Q.
Cleavage of IgG molecule by Papin gives rise to:One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments_______________?
One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Two Fc fragments and two Fab fragments
Two Fc fragment and one Fab fragment
One Fc fragment and four Fab fragments
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Q.
Following reaction are produced by heterophil antigens except_____________?
Weil-Felix reaction
Paul bunnel reaction
Widal reaction
Forssman antigen antibody reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal reaction
Q.
The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______________?
IgD
IgA
IgG
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV irradiation_______________?
Lipids
Carbohydrates
Inorganic salts
Nucleic acids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleic acids
Q.
Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by________________?
Bacteria
Sucrose
Epithelial cells
Dextran
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dextran
Q.
The anaphylaxis should be treated first with_____________?
Steroids
Antibiotics
Epinephrine
Anti histamines
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epinephrine
Q.
Dorset
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Gonococcus
Mycobacterium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best demonstrated by_________________?
Gram
PAS stain
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
H & E stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Q.
The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is______________?
Treponjema pertenue
Borrelia burgdorferi
Treponema pallidum
Borrelia vincenti
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti
Q.
Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is ________________?
Aspergillus
Mucor
Rhizopus
Penicillium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus
Q.
Best method of sterilizing disposable syringes_______________?
Hot air oven
U.V. rays
Boiling
Gamma rays
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma rays
Q.
Anaphylaxis refers to the________________?
Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens
Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions
State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________________?
Basidiomycetes yeast
Melanin production related to virulence
Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Causes meningitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Q.
The Process of attenuation can be achieved by all except___________________?
Serial passage in an experimental host
Growing bacteria in unconventional host
Repeated cultures in artificial media
Growing bacteria in adverse environment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serial passage in an experimental host
Q.
Probiotic organism used_________________?
Bifido bacteria
Staphylococcus
E coli
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bifido bacteria
Q.
Staphylococcus does not causes_______________?
Pneumonia
Abscess
Osteomyelitis
Scarlet fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Scarlet fever
Q.
Oil and Grease are sterilized by________________?
Irradiation
Auto claving
Ethylene dioxide
Hot air oven
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Most sensitive test for antigen detection is_______________?
Immunoflourescence
Radioimmuno Assay
ELISA
Passive hemaglutination
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Radioimmuno Assay
Q.
Antigen combining site of the antibody is____________________?
Hapten
Paratope
Idiotope
Epitope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Paratope
Q.
The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______________?
Erythema
Necrosis
Vasculitis
Induration
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythema
Q.
The most common site where organisms are present in a typhoid carrier is______________?
Spleen
Liver
Gall Bladder
Salivary gland
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gall Bladder
Q.
Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause foetal defect ?
Mumps
Herpes Simplex
Rubella
Papilloma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Babu, a 28 year old male comes with compaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by____________?
Western blot
Lymph node biopsy
P24 antigen
ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: P24 antigen
Q.
The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is ________________?
lecithinase production
hypersensitivity
Coagulase production
exotoxin production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: hypersensitivity
Q.
In T.B cell mediated immunity is by_______________?
CD 4*
B
None of the above
CD 8*
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD 4*
Q.
Australia antigen is associated with________________?
AIDS
Basal cell carcinoma
Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Chronic leukemia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Q.
Incubation pariod of herpes zoster is________________?
1 months
3-6 months
1-2 years
7-14 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 7-14 days
Q.
Salmonella typhi can be isolated at different times from______________?
Urine
All of the above
Blood
Feaces
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which of the following antibacterial substance is present in eggs and saliva ?
Albumin
Lysozyme
Isozyme
Secretozyme
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysozyme
Q.
Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection_________________?
Taenia solium
Giardia lambella
Balantidium coli
Isopora belli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Taenia solium
Q.
Electron microscopic examination of the bacterial flora of necrotising ulcerative gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are______________?
Cocci
Filamentous rods
Spirochetes
Bacteriophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
The most frequently encountered clostridial species in gas gangrene is______________?
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium welchii
Clostridium difficile
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Q fever is caused by________________?
R. quintana
R. prowozekii
Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
C. burnetti
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C. burnetti
Q.
Mesophilic organisms are those that grow best at temperature of______________?
-20
55
25
-7
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 25
Q.
An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry cough, sputum culture showed growth on charcoal yeast Extract Medium, theorganism is______________?
Burkholderia cepacia
Moraxella catarrhalis
H. influenza
Legionella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Legionella
Q.
Techoic acid is present in_____________?
Cytoplasm of Gram positive organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram negative organisms
Cell wall of Gram negative organisms
Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Q.
Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?
The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously
Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Causes positive Nagler reaction
The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Q.
Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by_________________?
Dog tapeworm
Fish tapeworm
Threadworm
Hookworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fish tapeworm
Q.
Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?
Spore
Prions
Coccidia
Mycobacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prions
Q.
Blood agar is________________?
Transport media
Enriched media
Differential media
Simple media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enriched media
Q.
Signs of tyhoid fever is/are_____________________?
Osteomyelitis
All of the above
Haemorrhage
perforation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by ___________________?
Aspergillus
Cryptococcus
Mucor
Candida albicans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction______________?
Proteus
Staphylococcus
Haemophilus
E.coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?
Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Give ARV
Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity
Immediately wash wound with soap and water
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Q.
One of the following is a zoonotic disease_____________?
Cholera
Anthrax
Bacillary dysentery
Typhoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anthrax
Q.
Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of______________?
Gas gangrene
Malaria
Whooping cough
Wool sorters disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gas gangrene
Q.
Which of the following is a live vaccine_____________?
HDCV
17 D
Hepatitis
Salk
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HDCV
Q.
The function of IgD is______________?
Compliment activation
Antigen recognition by B cells
Localization protection in external secretion
Reagin activity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antigen recognition by B cells
Q.
The following statement is true regarding fungal infection__________________?
albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals
Candida infection is usually endogenous
Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal
Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida infection is usually endogenous
Q.
One of the following staining methods is an example of negative staining_______________?
India ink preparation
Fontana
Zheil-Neilson
Gram
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
All are true about widel test except________________________?
High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative
Base lines differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
H antigen cannot differentiate between subtypes
O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Q.
The virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhea include all of the following except____________?
IgA Protease
M-Proteins
Outer membrane proteins
Pili
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M-Proteins
Q.
Characteristic feature of retrovirus is_____________?
DNA polymerase
Reverse transcriptase
Restriction endonuclease
Ribonuclease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reverse transcriptase
Q.
Serum sickness syndrome is an example of________________?
Anaphylactic
Systemic arthus reaction
Angioneurotic edema
Cell-mediated immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Systemic arthus reaction
Q.
The Window period in HIV infection means______________?
None of the above
The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab
The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
Q.
Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to________________?
reduce the toxigenicity
Increase antigenicity
Reduce the antigenicity
Increase toxigenicity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increase antigenicity
Q.
Which of the following is true about amoebic liver disease ?
Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Left lobe of liver is commonly involved
Portal system is the main filtration system
Non-suppurative form is the serious form of extra intestinal amoebiasis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Q.
Teichoic acid is present in cell walls of_________________?
Yeast
Protozoa
Gram negative bacteria
Gram positive bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Grave
Type II
Type III
Type I
Type IV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Madura mycosis produces______________?
White to yellow granules
Brown to black granules
No granules
Red granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: White to yellow granules
Q.
A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?
Brucella spp
Bartonella spp
Pasturella spp
Francisella spp
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Brucella spp
Q.
Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a_______________?
Immunodot
ELISA
Western Blot
RIPA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Western Blot
Q.
Rabies virus________________?
Neurotropic
Chromophilic
Dermatotropic
Cytotropic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neurotropic
Q.
Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is_______________?
IgM
IgA
IgG
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
B.C.G untrue is_____________?
live vaccine
T.B vaccine
Orally administered
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orally administered
Q.
In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a_______________?
Super antigen
Carrier
Hapten
Toxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hapten
Q.
Thread worm is______________?
Enterobius
Ascaris
Ancylostoma
Necator
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterobius
Q.
Endotoxin have all but one of the properties given below_______________?
Produced by gram negative bacteria
Cannot be toxoided
Produced by gram positive bacteria
Not secreted outside the cell
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Produced by gram positive bacteria
Q.
The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is___________?
Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes
The catalase test
Mannitol fermentation
Detection of coagulase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Detection of coagulase
Q.
Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus is due to ________________________?
Pleomorphism
Lack of nucleic acid in the cell wall
Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Penicillin analogue production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Q.
Influenza is caused by_____________?
Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Q.
Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is_________________?
2:1
1:3
1:2
3:1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2:1
Q.
On a stained slide, clostridium tetani has the appearance of a__________________?
Bunch of a
Chain of beads
Drum stick
Safely pin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Drum stick
Q.
Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine ?
Varicella Zoster virus
Cholera
Tuberculosis (BCG)
Typhoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cholera
Q.
which of the following is anaerobic_______________?
E.coli
Pseudomonas
Klebsiella
Bacteroides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacteroides
Q.
Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstratig________________?
Trophozoites in the feces
Trophozoites in the pus
Cysts in the sterile pus
Cysts in the intestine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites in the pus
Q.
The urine sample of a patient has been sent to the laboratory to look for Leptospira. The specimen is to be screened by use of the__________________?
Scanning microscope
Electron microscope
Inverted microscope
Dark ground microscope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dark ground microscope
Q.
Function of Ig A is________________?
Kills virus infected cells
Circulating antibody
Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Activates macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Q.
Aflatoxins are produced by________________?
Aspergillus flavus
Aspergillus fumigatus
All of the above
Aspergillus niger
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus flavus
Q.
The chemotactic factor is______________?
C3b
C5a
C4a
C2a
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C5a
Q.
Characters of exotoxin include all, except_______________?
Highly potent
Heat labile
Has specific tissue affinity
Protein polysaccharide complex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein polysaccharide complex
Q.
Leptospirosis, all are true except______________?
Incubation period is 10 days
It is sensitive to penicillin
Faeces & urine of rodents is the cause
Onset of IgM in 2 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Onset of IgM in 2 days
Q.
Which of the following belongs to cell fraction derived vaccine______________?
Rubella
Measles
Mumps
Hepatitis B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B
Q.
The killer cells are associated with immunologic response___________________?
Type IV
Type III
Type II
Type I
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
The term epitope refers to________________?
complete antigen molecule
Hapten
Smallest antigenic determinant
Immunogen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Smallest antigenic determinant
Q.
Drumstick appearance is seen in______________?
Cl. tetanomorphum
Cl. tetani
Cl. sphenoids
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. tetani
Q.
The commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercie bacilli________________?
Congo red
Thioglavin
Auramine and Rhodamine
Acridine orange
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine and Rhodamine
Q.
Common name for Trichuris trichura________________?
Round worm
Whip worm
Seat woman
Tape worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Whip worm
Q.
Herpes virus_____________?
Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
None of the above
Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane
Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Q.
The specific test for Treponema pallidum is___________?