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TOP Microbiology MCQS Questions
Q.
Bacterial spores are destroyed by_______________?
Boiling at 100
Autoclave
Pasteurisation
Disinfection by hypochlorite solution
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The interaction of antigens with antibodies on the surface of a mast cel leads to degranulation and anaphylaxis. The mast cell granules produce anaphylaxis because they contain________________?
Lymphotoxins
Proteolytic enzymes
Lysosomes
Vasoactive mediators
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vasoactive mediators
Q.
Bacteria with potent exotoxin is_______________?
Shigella
Pseudomonas
Clostridium tetani
Klebsiella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani
Q.
True about prions________________?
Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective
Viruses which are genetically deficient
Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Q.
The best skin disinfectant is________________?
Alcohol
Chlorhexdine
Savlon
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chlorhexdine
Q.
Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates_____________?
Late convalescence
Carrier status
High infectivity
Simple carriers
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: High infectivity
Q.
The facultative anaerobic bacteria are those who are_______________?
Unable to grow in the presence of oxygen
Able to grow in the presence of carbon dioxide
Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Unable to grow in the absence of oxygen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Q.
A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium malaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Erysipelas is caused by________________?
Pneumococci
Gonococci
Group A steptococci
Group B staphylococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B staphylococci
Q.
True about immune response of hepatitis B is__________________?
Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
Antibody to HBC is not protective
Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
CMI disappears soon after recover
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Q.
Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria______________?
Lowenstein Jensen Medium
Mc Conkey
Loefflers serum slope
Saborauds agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Loefflers serum slope
Q.
A full course of immunization agianst. Telanus with 3 doses to Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how many years ?
20
15
5
10
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 10
Q.
Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?
Western blot followed by ELISA
ELISA followed by western blot technique
Virus isolation
Polymers chain reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA followed by western blot technique
Q.
Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-5m in size, multi-septate, chestnut, brown color is characteristic of________________?
Rhinosporodiosis
Chromoblastomycosis
Histoplasmosis
Phaeohypomycosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chromoblastomycosis
Q.
The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell
Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Haemagglutination inhibition test
Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
Haemagglutination test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Q.
An oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod which produces a bluish-green pigment has been grown in culture from a swab obtained from an infected burn wound. This organism is susceptible to gentamicin, ticarcillin and tobramicin, but resistant to all the other antibiotics which of the following organisms is it likely to be ?
Escherichia coli
Proteus miribilis
Klebsiella pnemoniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q.
Exaltation is________________?
None
No change
Increased Virulence
Decreased virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increased Virulence
Q.
Which of the following is not true of boiling water_____________?
Can kill vegetative bacterial cells
It can kill hepatitis B virus
Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis
Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Q.
The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is_______________?
IgG
IgM
IgD
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Germ tubes are formed mainly by_______________?
Candida stellatoidea
Candida albicans
Candida pseudotropicalls
Candida tropicalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
The best method of sterilization of dressing powder is_____________?
Autoclaving
Tyndallization
Hot air oven
Inspissation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with______________?
IgA antibodies
IgM antibodies
Lysozyme
Mast cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA antibodies
Q.
Loss of capsule in bacteria is generally associated with______________?
Inability to spread through tissue
Loss of infectivity
Decease in virulence
increase in invasiveness
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Decease in virulence
Q.
Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify______________?
Chlamydiae
Spirochaetes
Rickettsiae
Mycoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochaetes
Q.
Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_____________?
Aspergilosis
Candidiasis
Tuberculosis
Cryptococcosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candidiasis
Q.
Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans_________________?
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Hot air oven is used for sterilization of all EXCEPT__________________?
Glassware
Liquid paraffin
Sharp instrument
Rubber tubes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubber tubes
Q.
Which worm is longest________________?
T. Solium
Hook worm
T. Saginata
A. Lumbricoides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T. Saginata
Q.
Malignant pustule is referred to_________________?
Facio-cervical actinomycosis
Cutaneous anthrax
None of the above
Infected squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cutaneous anthrax
Q.
In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started________________?
Rabies
Influenza
Poliomyelitis
Herpes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabies
Q.
True about VDRL test________________?
Best followed for drug therapy
All of the above
Slide flocculation test
Non
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is_____________?
Hepatitis A virus
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
Lancefields classification of B hemolytic streptococcus is based on______________?
Physiological properties
Type of lipid in cell membrane
Polysaccharide C antigen
M Protein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Polysaccharide C antigen
Q.
Virulence of Gonococcus is due to___________________?
Its intracellular location
Pili
Cell Membrane
Cytolytic enzymes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
Which of the following fulfil all the criterias of kich
Treponema pallidum
None of the above
N. gonorrhoeae
Mycobacterium leprae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: None of the above
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria grow_______________?
in the presence of oxygen
differential media
in the absence of oxygen
in the presence of nitrogen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in the absence of oxygen
Q.
Which of the following is an acid-fast bacillus_____________?
Mycobacterium bacilli
Treponema pallidum
Neisseria gonorrhea
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium bacilli
Q.
Which of the following is obligate aerobe ?
diphtheria
Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Proteus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Q.
Malaria pigment is________________?
Haematin-globin pigment
Iron
Bilurubin
Haemoglobin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haematin-globin pigment
Q.
The key cell types involved in the acquired immunity include all EXCEPT________________?
Erythrocytes
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
Antigen presenting cells (APC
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythrocytes
Q.
Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor_____________?
Pyrogenic exotoxin
Streptolysin 0
Carbohydrate cell wall
M protein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pyrogenic exotoxin
Q.
The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as_____________?
Epitope
Paratope
Clone
Idiotope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epitope
Q.
Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose_______________?
Anaphylaxis
Contact dermatitis
Arthus reaction
Serum sickness
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Immunoglobulin consists of________________?
3 light, 1 heavy chain
1 light, 1 heavy chain
1 heavy, 2 light chains
2 light, 2 heavy chains
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2 light, 2 heavy chains
Q.
Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in________________?
Tissue culture
Chick embryos
Rabbit testis only
Artificial media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabbit testis only
Q.
Which of the following characteristics of bacteria is not true?
Unicellular
Free living
Having either DNA or RNA
Cell wall containing muramic acid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Having either DNA or RNA
Q.
A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT________________?
Teichoplanin
Vancomycin
Linezolid
Imipenem
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Imipenem
Q.
The overall effect of HIV is to gradually impair the immune system by interference with______________?
Natural killer cells
Helper T lymphocytes
Plasma cells
Macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes
Q.
Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?
Surface antibody
Core antibody
Core antigen
Surface antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Surface antigen
Q.
Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies_____________?
Small pox
Rabies
Chicken pox
Measles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles
Q.
Prozone phenomenon is due to______________?
Excess antibody
Hyper immune reaction
Disproportionate antigen antibody levels
Excess antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Excess antibody
Q.
Actinomycosis is a_________________?
Anaerobic bacterial disease
Aerobic bacterial disease
Anaerobic fungal disease
Aerobic fungal disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic bacterial disease
Q.
HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except________________?
Blood transmission
Saliva
Sexual intercourse
Needle prick injury
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saliva
Q.
Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_______________?
Simple structure
All of the above
Presence of either DNA or RNA
Complex multiplication
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
False +ve for VDRL is seen in______________?
Lepromatous Leprosy
Yaws
Malaria
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Most fungi of medical importance belongs to__________________?
Zygomycetes
Basidiomycetes
Deuteromycetes
Ascomycetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deuteromycetes
Q.
Most of the drug resistances occurs due to_____________?
Transformation
Mutation
Transduction
conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: conjugation
Q.
The bacterial cell wall has all of the following properties except______________?
It is a unique flexible plastic structure
It consists of a mixed polymer called peptidoglycon
It contains D-isomers of amino acids
It is the structure principally responsible for the reaction of gram staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It is a unique flexible plastic structure
Q.
The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is_____________?
Apthous stomatitis
Tuberculosis
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Herpetic gingivostomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Q.
Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in which of the following viruses_____________?
Hepatitis B virus
Pox virus
Measles virus
HIV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is______________?
Donovania granulomatis
Bartonella henselae
Hemophilia ducreya
Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bartonella henselae
Q.
Which of the following is not a feature of anaphylaxis ?
Delayed reaction
Immediate reaction
passive transfer by serum
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Delayed reaction
Q.
DNA covering material in a virus is called as________________?
Envelope
Capsid
Capsomere
Nucleocapsid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Capsid
Q.
ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______________?
Less sensitive less specific
More sensitive, more specific
More sensitive, less specific
Less sensitive, more specific
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: More sensitive, less specific
Q.
Who first introduced solid media_______________?
Louis pasteur
Ogston
Hensen
Robert koch
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robert koch
Q.
cAMP reaction is shown by which streptococci ?
Group A
Group B
Group D
Group C
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B
Q.
Widal test is specific for____________?
Plague
Typhoid
Leprosy
Pemhigoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid
Q.
Which of the following is not a koch
Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the experimental animals
When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue
Pure cultures can be obtained
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Q.
All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_________________?
histolytica
gingivalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: gingivalis
Q.
When horse serum is injected intravenoulsy in to a rabbit and again in to the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs as the site of the second injection________________?
Serum sickness
Arthus phenomenon
Atopy
Anaphylaxis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus phenomenon
Q.
Fimbriae are demonstrated by ___________________?
Gram stain
Haemagglutination test
Culture
Biochemical reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haemagglutination test
Q.
The following is not true of Candida albicans______________?
Forms Chlamydospores
Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them
Blastomeres seen in isolates
Yeast like fungus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blastomeres seen in isolates
Q.
The temperature required for cultivating mycobacterium________________?
2 degree
27 degrees
0 degree
37 degrees
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 37 degrees
Q.
All are true about bordetella pertussis except______________?
Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Bacteria culture from nasopharyngeal swab is the definitive diagnosis
It may occur in children and young adult after vaccination
Most common cause is B. Petrussis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Q.
Causative organism of Kalahazar is_______________?
Entamoeba histolytica
Toxoplasma
Plasmodium ovaie
Leishman donovani
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leishman donovani
Q.
Interferon interferes with replication of virus at the time of_____________?
Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule
When virus enters the cell
DNA/RNA replication
Protein synthesis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein synthesis
Q.
Rideal Walker test is used to determine the efficiency of the_____________?
Dry heat sterilization
Disinfectant
Antibiotics
Moist heat sterilisation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Disinfectant
Q.
The difference between sterilization and disinfection is that_______________?
Sterilization involves chemicals and disinfection involves physical methods
Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Disinfection kills all spores but sterilization does not
Sterilization is easier to achieve
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Q.
The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is_______________?
Conjugation
Lysogeny
Translation
Transformation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysogeny
Q.
For uniform staining reaction, morphology and biochemical activity it is advisable to study bacterial cultures during the_____________?
Lag phase
Stationary phase
Logarithmic phase
Death phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Logarithmic phase
Q.
The structure in involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface is_______________?
Capsule
None of the above
Fimbria
Flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fimbria
Q.
Vibrio cholera was discovered by_________________?
Koch
John snow
Medintoff
Virchow
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Koch
Q.
Noguchi
Borrelia
None of the above
Bordetella
Brucella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia
Q.
Donovanosis, true is___________________?
Characterized by painful genital ulcers
Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic
Penicillin is drug of choice
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Q.
Which of the following statement about P24 antigen of HIV is Not True ?
Virus load parallel P24 titre
Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:
It can be detected during the window period
It remains during asymptomatic phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It remains during asymptomatic phase
Q.
A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?
Allograft
Isograft
Autograft
Xenograft
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Isograft
Q.
In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_______________?
Gametocyte
Merozoite
Sporozoite
Hypnozoite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sporozoite
Q.
Virus infected cell is killed by________________?
Neutrophils
Macrophages
Autolysis
Interferons
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Interferons
Q.
In small intestine, cholera toxin acts by______________?
Activation of GTPase
Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
ADP
Active absorption of NaCI
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ADP
Q.
Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by_____________?
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus viridans
Haemolytic streptococci
Nisseria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus viridans
Q.
Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by______________?
Inspissation
Autoclaving
Hot air oven
UV-Radiation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Candida is most often implicated in causation___________________?
Tenea capitis
Conjunctivitis
Thrush
Desert rheumatism
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thrush
Q.
Diphtheria is pathogenic only when infected with______________?
Beta phage
Delta Phage
Alfa phage
Lambda K12
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Beta phage
Q.
The antigen used in Weil Felix test is obtained from________________?
Staphylococcus
Proteus
coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to______________?
CD8 T-cells
NK
CD4 T-cells
B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4 T-cells
Q.
Actinomycosis is caused by______________?
Fungus
Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Retrovirus
Acid fast, non-motile bacillus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Q.
The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route________________?
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis D virus
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis C virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______________?
ELISA IS
PCR is
Both are
Western Blot is
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both are
Q.
Lepromin test is useful for________________?
Diagnosis
Treatment plan
Epidemiology
Prognosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prognosis
Q.
Staphylococci typically occur in_________________?
Chains
Tetrads
Pairs
Irregular clusters
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Irregular clusters
Q.
The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the________________?
CH2 domian
CL domian
VL domian
CH1 domian
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CH2 domian
Q.
Multiple drug resistance of bacteria depends on which of the following_______________?
All of the above
Colicigenic factor (Col)
Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Fertility factor (F+)
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Q.
Immunity that is conferred to the foetus by transfer of IgG and IgA antibodies is called as______________?
Natural active immunity
Passive acquired immunity
Active acquired immunity
Passive natural immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Passive natural immunity
Q.
Viron is defined as______________?
Smallest virus
A smallest particle similar to virus
Extracellular infectious virus particle
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Extracellular infectious virus particle
Q.
Cough plate method is used to identify________________?
Pertussis
M-Tuberculosis
Y. pestis
Mycoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pertussis
Q.
Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functional of the cell______________?
wall
nucleus
membrane
Capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: membrane
Q.
A dentist suffred from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is_____________?
Healthy carrier
Inactive carrier
Paradoxical carrier
Convalscent carrier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Convalscent carrier
Q.
Sunlight acts as sterilizing agent because_________________?
Ozone
Long wavelength
short wave lenght
Heat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: short wave lenght
Q.
Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in______________?
12 weeks
9 weeks
2 weeks
4 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4 weeks
Q.
What is the sequence which a retro virus follows on entering a host cell ?
RNA -DNA-RNA
DNA-RNA
RNA-DNA
DNA-RNA-DNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: RNA -DNA-RNA
Q.
Nagglers reaction detects________________?
Hyaluronidase
None of the above
Lecithinase
Coagulase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Man is the only reservoir for_______________?
histolytica
Camphylobacter jejuni
Y. enterocolitica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: histolytica
Q.
Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_________________?
Lecithinase
Cytokinin
Desmolase
Theta toxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except___________________?
through conjugation
Though plasmids
Through bacteriophages
Incorporating part of host DNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is__________________?
Gamma globulin injection
Hepatitis vaccination
Placental transfer of antibodies
Immune blood transfusion
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Placental transfer of antibodies
Q.
All are true about legionella pneumophilia except______________?
Person to person transmission
Aquatic bodies are main habitat
It can replicate in amoeba
Urine test is a reliable method
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Person to person transmission
Q.
Smith noguchi
Spirochetes
Salmonella
Klebsiella
Bacillus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
Tyndallisation is carried out for________________?
Two successive days
60 minutes
One day
Three successive days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Three successive days
Q.
Prions true is____________?
Evokes strong immunogenic reaction
Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Sensitive to most chemical sterilization
Contains DNA/ RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Q.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which of the following________________?
Active T cells
B-cells
Plasma cells
NK cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active T cells
Q.
All are oncogenic except________________?
Aedes
Anopheles
Culex
Mansoni
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aedes
Q.
Which of the following viruses appears to be involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi
Human Herpes Virus 1
Human Herpes Virus 8
Human Herpes Virus 4
Human Herpes Virus 3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Human Herpes Virus 4
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Vincent
Caused by leptospira interrogans
Caused due to malnutrition
Ulcerative gingivostomatitis
A symbiotic infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by leptospira interrogans
Q.
Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores can be achieved with_______________?
Grocott Gomori Methenamine silver
Hematoxylin and Eosin
Peri-iodic Acid Schiff
KOH wet mount
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: KOH wet mount
Q.
The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum ?
IgG3
IgG2
IgG4
IgG1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG1
Q.
Cytopathic effect is shown by_____________?
Bacteria
Virus
Anaerobe
Spirochete
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
Methods for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infection________________?
Microscopic examination of skin scrapings
Wood light examination
KOH staining
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Culture medium used for Bordatella pertussis is_________________?
Bile broth
Bordet Gengou medium
Robertson cooked meat medium
Wilson Blair medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bordet Gengou medium
Q.
Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_____________________?
only after one year
in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
no antibodies are present in primary HSV
antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
Q.
Graft versus host reaction is caused by_________________?
T-lymphocytes
B-Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Leukocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T-lymphocytes
Q.
Black pigmented anaerobes include all of the following except______________?
Tannerella
Buccae
Porphyromonas
Prevotella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Buccae
Q.
A protoplast is best characterized as a bacterial cell______________?
Free of a cell wall and a capsule
with a cell wall but free of a capsule
containing a cell wall and a capsule
Uniquely sensitive to penicillin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Q.
Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes______________?
NK Cells
Cytotoxic T cells
B cells
Memory B cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NK Cells
Q.
Grape bunch shaped colonies are seen in______________?
Gonococci
Streptococcus
E.coli
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staphylococcus
Q.
The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is_______________?
Parvo virus
Hepatitis
Adeno
EB virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parvo virus
Q.
Most antibodies are produced in the________________?
Spleen and the lymph nodes
Brain and the meninges
Thymus and the appendix
Heart and the liver
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spleen and the lymph nodes
Q.
Post streptococcal acute glomerulo nephritis is an example of________________?
Type III hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type III hypersensitivity
Q.
Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups ?
Flavi viruses
Herpes viruses
Hepadana viruses
Picorna viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi viruses
Q.
Phase contrast microscopy is based on principle of__________________?
Different reflective indices of object
Light scattering
Different refractive indices of object
Light attenuation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Different refractive indices of object
Q.
The medium of choice for culturing yeast from of dimorphic fungi is_________________?
Brain
Any medium incubated at 35-37
Sabouraud
Sabouraud
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
The diagnosis of gonorrhea is established by_____________?
All of the above tests
Compliment fixation tests
Pili agglutination tests
Haemagglutination tests
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above tests
Q.
Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to______________?
Ascaris
Hook worm
Thread worm
Guinea worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hook worm
Q.
Candida albicans causes all of the following except______________?
Mycetoma
Meningitis
Oral thrush
Endocarditis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycetoma
Q.
CD4 count in normal healthy adult is_______________?
200
300
1000
500
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1000
Q.
A darkfield microscope would be useful in examining blood for_______________?
Treponema
Actinomyces
Streptococcus
Mycobacterium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema
Q.
Immunoglobulins ar secreted by______________?
T-cells
Neutrophils
Plasma cells
Macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasma cells
Q.
Haptane is_______________?
High molecular protein
None of the above
Same as epitopes
Carrier required for specific antibody production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Carrier required for specific antibody production
Q.
Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by______________?
IgM antibodies in serum
Isolation form stool
Culture from blood
Isolation from bile
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM antibodies in serum
Q.
VDRL is a________________?
Tube flocculation test
Tube agglutination test
Slide flocculation test
Latex agglutination test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Slide flocculation test
Q.
One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is____________?
Permutation
Viral interference
Mutation
Supervision
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Viral interference
Q.
The difference between gram positive and negative bacteria lies in their_______________?
Mesosomes
cell wall
cell membrane
Nuclear material
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cell wall
Q.
The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are______________?
Mycoplasma
Virus infections
Gram negative organisms
Gram positive organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram negative organisms
Q.
Endotoxins differ from exotoxins in that endotoxins______________?
are highly antigenic
are heat labile
are proteins
activate complement by the alternate pathway
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: activate complement by the alternate pathway
Q.
The Dane particle is the______________?
Delta Virus
HBV
IgG anti HAV
HBC Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBV
Q.
Tuberculin test screens for_____________?
Phagocyte dysfunction
Cell mediated immunity
Hemoral immunity
Complement function
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell mediated immunity
Q.
Endoscopes are sterilized by using_______________?
Gamma radiation
Autoclaving
Cidex
Boiling
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Boiling
Q.
One of the following statement about statements about sterilization is not true_______________?
Glass syringes ? Boiling at 169
Flash pasteurization of milk ? 72
Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Liquid paraffin ? Dry heat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Q.
Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?
Adjuvant
Proteins
Polysaccharides
Lipids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteins
Q.
IgG antibodies have a half-life of approximately_______________?
1 week
1 hour
1 Month
1 day
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 Month
Q.
Exotoxins are____________________?
Lipid-polysaccharide complex
None
Lipoprotein
Protein compound
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein compound
Q.
Following is a retrovirus_____________?
Polio virus
Hepatitis virus
Immunodeficiency virus
Influenza
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immunodeficiency virus
Q.
The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement_________________?
IgA
IgG
IgE
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
The reaginic antibody is________________?
IgG
IgE
IgD
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Kaposi
Between 1000-2000
Above 600
Above 2000
Below 200
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Below 200
Q.
All are not true for cultivation of anaerobic organisms except_______________?
Centrifuge
Refrigerator
anaerobic jar
Incubator
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: anaerobic jar
Q.
Each of the following can cause food poisoning except________________?
Cl. welchii
Cl. difficile
Cl. botulinum
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. difficile
Q.
Which of the following does not go into chronic hepatitis stage ?
HCV
HBV
HDV
HEV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HEV
Q.
Physical sterilization was discovered by__________________?
John Hunter
Robert Koch
Joeph Lister
Alexander flemings
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Joeph Lister
Q.
Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito______________?
Merozoite
Sporozoite
Zygote
Gametocyte
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gametocyte
Q.
Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with_______________?
Kin Young stain
Ziel Nelson
Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Giemsa stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Q.
Which of the following are correctly matched ?
Transfer of antibody from mother to child is through colostrum and acquired passive immunity naturally
Injection of antibodies (Hepatitis) is artificially acquired passive immunity
All of the above
Antigenic stimulus given by vaccine (polio) is artificial active immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which is type II hypersensitivity ?
Immune complex mediated
Anaphylaxis
Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Delayed hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Q.
By using phase contrast microscope_______________?
External capsule formation can be observed
Internal structures are differentiated in dead cells
Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Internal metabolic activities can be observed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Q.
One of the following is a treponemal test for diagnosis of syphilis_____________?
FTAB
Wasserman test
Kahn test
Widal test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: FTAB
Q.
Which of the following have the capability to produce extra cellular polysaccharides______________?
Strep. Mutans
Peptostreptococcus
Strep. pyogenes
Enterococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strep. Mutans
Q.
Opportunistic infection is caused by___________________?
All of the above
Aspergillus
Penicillium
Mucor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The minimum time required for the sterilization of surgical instruments by moist heat at 134
15 minutes
60 minutes
30 minutes
3 minutes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3 minutes
Q.
Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti_________________?
Body is slender and long
Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Causes filariasis
Terminal nuclei absent
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Q.
Granules in the corynebacterium diphtheria are called by following names, except______________?
Refractile granules
Voluntin granules
Babes Ernst granules
Metachromatic granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile granules
Q.
Neurotoxin of tetanus acts on______________?
Muscle
Synapse
Spinal card
Brain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spinal card
Q.
Sporulation occurs in__________________?
Stationary phase
Lag phase
Log phase
Decline phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
True about HIV are all except______________?
Decrease CD4 count in late stages
DNA virus
Macrophages are the reservoir
Attacks CD4 cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: DNA virus
Q.
IgG has subclasses_______________?
1
2
4
3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4
Q.
Anti HBsAB indicates______________?
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Resistance to hepatitis B
Good prognosis
Acute infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Good prognosis
Q.
Causative agents of Vincent
Borrelia burgoloferi and lactobacillus
Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Borrelia recurrents and bateroides
Leptospira and Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Q.
Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______________?
Contact dermatitis
Transfusion reaction
Serum sickness
Atopic allergy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is________________?
Indirect hemagglutination
Microscopy
Counter immune electroporesis
ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA
Q.
Test for differentiating virulent form non-virulent tubercular bacilli_____________?
Niacin test
Catalase peroxidase test
Neutral red test
Aryl sulphatase test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neutral red test
Q.
Rickettsiae__________________?
All of the above
Transmitted by arthropod vectors
Multiply within living cell
Respond to tetracycline therapy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Virus is cultured in_______________?
Nonembryonated egg
Embryonated egg
Rogosa medium
Saubourd
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Embryonated egg
Q.
Disinfection frees the surface from______________?
Vegetative forms
Spore forms
Both of the above
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vegetative forms
Q.
Human immunoglobulins are divided based on_____________?
Complemented fixation
Functional differences
None of the above
Structural differences
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Structural differences
Q.
Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to__________________?
Endotoxin
Invasion
Exotoxin
Capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Exotoxin
Q.
Chemotactic cytokine is_________________?
IL-8
TNF
IL-6
IL-1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IL-8
Q.
The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in vivo from one bacterium to another by_____________?
Transformation
Transduction
Rarefaction
Conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
The culture media for fungus is__________________?
NNN medium
Chocolate agar medium
Sabourauds medium
Tellurite medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabourauds medium
Q.
Immunoglobin, Which is produced first by the fetus in response to infection_______________?
IgG
IgM
IgD
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Which of the following is an enrichment medium________________?
Selenite F Broth
Nutrient Broth
Blood agar
Mac Conkey agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Selenite F Broth
Q.
What is the transport medium for cholera___________________?
Venkatraman
Tellurite Medium
Cary Blair Medium
B & C
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: B & C
Q.
A type of immediately occuring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called_____________?
Type III hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type I hypersensitivity
Q.
Same or closely related antigens present in different biological species are known as________________?
Haptens
Heterophile antigens
Suquestrated antigens
Isoantigens
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Heterophile antigens
Q.
One of the following is an agglutination test in the diagnosis of typhoid___________?
Eleks test
Widal test
Mantoux test
Wasserman test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
Sterilization is a process in which_________________?
Deactivate all pathogens not spores
Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Kill all pathogenic micro-organisms
Kill all non-pathogenic micro-organisms in the environment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Q.
Human immune deficiency virus is ________________ virus?
Retro
Rhabdo
Rheo
Flavi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Retro
Q.
A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned in to an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis______________?
Trichrome Methylene blue
Acid Fast Stain
Calcoflour White
Carbol Fuschin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trichrome Methylene blue
Q.
Half-life of free HIV in plasma is________________?
12 hours
24 hours
3 months
6 hours
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 6 hours
Q.
Among The infectious diseases transmitted by food, one is___________________?
Typhoid fever
Diptheria
Tuberculosis
Viral stomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid fever
Q.
Moist heat kills all of the following EXCEPT_______________?
Salmonella
Coxiella burnetti
Brucella
Mycobacterium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coxiella burnetti
Q.
The Ig found in exocrine secretions is_____________?
IgA
IgG
IgM
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Operation theatres are sterilized by_____________?
Carbolic acid spraying
Formaldehyde fumigation
ETO gas
Washing with soap and water
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Formaldehyde fumigation
Q.
Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci________________?
Staphylococcus
Micrococcus
Sarcina
Aerococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sarcina
Q.
About Bacteroids True are all Except_______________?
Susceptible to many antibiotics
Most common species is B fragilis
Bile resistant anerobes
Present mainly in mixed infections
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Susceptible to many antibiotics
Q.
Encapsulation in bacteria helps in__________________?
Oxygen effect
Decreased virulence
Spore formation
Prevent their phagocytosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prevent their phagocytosis
Q.
In initial stages of tyhoid, salmonella can be detected in________________?
Feacus
Blood
All of the above
Urine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood
Q.
All of the following are true of streptococcus except_____________?
Shows adherence to dental enamel
It
Most common in humans
Most common is animals
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It
Q.
Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phase of the bacterial growth curve______________?
Lag
Exponential growth
Stationary phase
Decline
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
Viruses can be cultured in all except_______________?
Blood agar
Guinea pigs
Cell culture
Chick embryo
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood agar
Q.
Kolmer test is a screening test done for_________________?
Lymphoma
Gonorrhea
Syphilis
Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Function of T-lymphocyte is/are________________?
Production of interferon
Lymphokine production
All of the above
Rosette formation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The following are applicable to bacterial genoms except________________?
It is composed of DNA
Its DNA has both introns and extrons
It doe not contain histones
It is circular
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Q.
EBV causes all except_________________?
Papilloma
Burkitt
Infectious mononucleosis
Carcinoma of nasopharynx
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma
Q.
Which of the following is not used as disinfectant________________?
100% alcohol
1-2% cetrimide
2% Lysol
5% chloroxylene
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 100% alcohol
Q.
Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by_______________?
M. ulcerans
M. Kansasii
M. chelonae
M. smegmatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. chelonae
Q.
All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except____________?
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
HIV
Hepatitis E
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Which of the following correctly indicates the infectivity of hepatitis virus in human ?
HBCAg
Anti-HBS
Anti-HBC
HBeAg
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBeAg
Q.
In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except__________________?
Malabsorption
Bone marrow depression
Spleen sequestration
Hemolysis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Malabsorption
Q.
Which of the following is not a pox virus ?
Cowpox
Small pox
chicken pox
Molluscum contagiosum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: chicken pox
Q.
A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is______________?
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
India ink preparation
Pyte-ferraco stain
Methanamine silver stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
Staphylococcal food poisoning includes the following features_______________?
Heat labile enterotoxin
Common with dairy products
Requires immediate antibiotics
Incubation period of 24 hours
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Common with dairy products
Q.
Causative organism for gas gangrene_______________?
Coli
Strep. Faecalis
Clostridium welchii
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Streptococcus is classified based on__________________?
M Protein
Cell wall carbohydrate
Cultural characteristics
Bile Solubility
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall carbohydrate
Q.
compared with autoclave, use of a dry heat over for sterilization has the following disadvantages______________?
Less effective
Causes instruments to rust
Causes sharp instruments to dull
Time-consuming
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Time-consuming
Q.
Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces?
Capsule
Flagella
Mesosomes
Pili
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except_____________?
Salmonella typhi
Neisseria meningitides
Legionella pneumophila
Streptococcus pyogenes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus pyogenes
Q.
The best sterilization method for a hand-piece is________________?
All of the above
Ethylene oxide gas
dry heat
chemical vapour
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ethylene oxide gas
Q.
Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is____________?
Sialoperoxidase
Histidine rich proteins
Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Secretory IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Q.
Sleeping sickness is caused by_______________?
Reduvid bug
Sand fly
Tick
House fly
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reduvid bug
Q.
The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_____________?
Kerison
Tenia incognito
Alopecia areata
Pilomatrixoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kerison
Q.
Steam under pressure in used in ________ sterilization?
Kochs sterilizer
Pasteurization
hot air oven
Autoclave
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The small nonparticulate protein leading to enhanced replication of HBV as well as HIV is______________?
HBx Ag
HBc Ag
HBs Ag
Hbe Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBx Ag
Q.
T cells multiplication is stimulated by_______________?
Phytohaemagglutinin
Macrolin
Bovine serum
Heat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Phytohaemagglutinin
Q.
Bacteria reproduce mainly by______________?
Budding
Binary fission
Sporing
Bacterial components produced by host cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Binary fission
Q.
The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine doses not play a major role is______________?
Urticaria
Anaphylaxis
Arthus reaction
Asthma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus reaction
Q.
Robertsons cooked meat medium is best suited for cultivation of_______________?
Clostridia
S. epidermidis
Choleria
Mycobacterium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridia
Q.
A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates________________?
Acute infection
Convalescence
Carrier state
Prodromal phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acute infection
Q.
Which of the following organisms does NOT react with gram
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Actinomyces israelii
Streptococcus mutan
Candida albicans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q.
Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins ?
IgA
IgE
IgG
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Disinfection of the rooms can be done by using_______________?
High efficiency particle arrestors
20% phenol
40% formaldehyde vapour
Chlorine gas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 40% formaldehyde vapour
Q.
Negative staining is used to demonstrate________________?
Bacterial capsule
Bacterial Flagella
Bacterial fimbriae
Bacterial spore
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacterial fimbriae
Q.
Which is not true about vibrio cholera_________________?
Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Man is the only natural host
Grows on simple media
It is non-halophilic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Q.
Group A carbohydrate of Str. pyogenes cross reacts with human_________________?
Myocardium
Synovial fluid
Vascular intima
Cardiac valves
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiac valves
Q.
Pneumococus can be differentiated from streptococcus by________________?
Gram staining
Type of hemolysis
Bile solubility
Growth characteristics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bile solubility
Q.
Phage conversion is required for________________?
Gonorrhoea
Tularemia
Diptheria
All o f the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Diptheria
Q.
parasitic inflammation would show predominantly____________________?
Lymphocytes
Eosinophils
Basophils
Neutrophilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Eosinophils
Q.
Pseudohphae are seen in____________?
Aspergillus
Alternaria
Candida albicans
Osporium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?
Trench fever
Q fever
Epidemic typhus
Relapsing fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Q fever
Q.
The causative organism of syphilis is___________?
Treponema pallidum
Borrelia burgolorferi
Leptospira interrogans
Chalamydia trachomatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema pallidum
Q.
Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except______________?
Strongyloides
Giardia lambia
Entamoeba
Ascaris lumbriocoides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strongyloides
Q.
Toxoids are_________________?
non-antigenic and non-toxic
antigenic and non-toxic
antigenic and toxic
non-antigenic and toxic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: antigenic and non-toxic
Q.
Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000_________________?
Secretory piece
J piece
L chain
H chain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: H chain
Q.
IL-1 is produced by_________________?
Monocytes
Helper T cells
Helper B cells
Macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Macrophages
Q.
In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by_____________?
Widal test
Stool culture
Blood culture
Urine culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except__________________?
Most common cause of urethritis is male
Found exclusively in human beings.
All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Q.
Pigs are important source of_____________?
Yellow fever
Rabies
Japanese encephalitis
Kuru
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Japanese encephalitis
Q.
A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains and haemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism ?
Bile solubility
Cataslase positive
Bacitracin sensitivity
Optochin sensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacitracin sensitivity
Q.
Organ of locomotion in bacteria is________________?
Fimbria
Cell wall
Capsule
Flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flagella
Q.
All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except______________?
Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide
Colony morphology on saliva agar
Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital
Gram staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram staining
Q.
Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in______________?
Hood worm
Tapeworm
Ascariasis
Ascariasis and tapeworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ascariasis
Q.
Bacteria with tuft of flagella at one end are called_______________?
Monotrichate
Lophotrichate
Bipolar
Peritrichate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lophotrichate
Q.
Certain viruses have been isolated in crytalline form and have been found to be_____________?
Scleroproteins
Nucleoproteins
Nucleotides
Phospholipids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleoproteins
Q.
Fungal infection of human beings is called as_____________?
Mycosis
Mucorsis
Fungosis
Micromia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycosis
Q.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa_________________?
Does not produce any pigment
Causes Shangai fever
Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.
Produces heat stable enterotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Causes Shangai fever
Q.
The world german measles is applied for_____________?
Herpes simplex
Rubeola
Rubella
Herpetic ginglvostomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Which of the following provides best gurantee for sterlization in the heat sterilizer ?
Using a bacterial spore test
Determining the ability of a sterilizer to kill the hepatitis B virus
Recording a temperature/ pressure readings from sterilizer guage
Using chemical indicator strip or pouch
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Using a bacterial spore test
Q.
Active artificial immunization is induced by the administration of all of the following EXCEPT______________?
Toxoids
Antitoxins
Bacterial products
Vaccines
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antitoxins
Q.
Plaque test is used routinely in virology lab
To separate specific clone of virus
To maintain certain viral culture
To prepare vaccines
Identification of viral disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Identification of viral disease
Q.
The commonest method of detection of diptheria carriers is_______________?
Charles
Schick test
Dick test
Casoni
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Schick test
Q.
Most common tumor associated with AIDS is______________?
Carcinoma
Kaposi
Ewing
Melanoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kaposi
Q.
Which of the following is a RNA virus ?
Measles virus
Herpes Virus
Papavo virus
Adeno virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
A 6 year old boy comes with abdominal pain, vomiting after consuming mild products within 6 hours. The most likely organism responsible is______________?
Salmonella
Clostridium botulinum
Staph. aureus
B.Cereus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staph. aureus
Q.
The medium of choice for growing most fungi is_______________?
Sabouraud
Blood agar
Thioglycollate medium
Tissue culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
Hydatid cyst is__________________?
Congenital
Fungal
Viral
Parasitic in nature
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parasitic in nature
Q.
Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called______________?
Opsonisation
CFT
De coding
Chemotaxis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Opsonisation
Q.
The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is___________________?
2%
10%
5%
15%
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2%
Q.
Selective media for MYCOBACTERIUM _____________?
Agar
Sabourauds medium
Loefflers serum slope
Lowenstein Jensen medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lowenstein Jensen medium
Q.
A sporangium contains_______________?
Oidia
Spherules
porangiospores
Chlamydospores
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: porangiospores
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria can be cultured in__________________?
Robertson cooked meat medium
Loefflers medium
Sabourauds agar
L-J medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robertson cooked meat medium
Q.
All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except________________?
Cysts are 4 nucleated
Cysts are 8 nucleated
Trophozoites colonise in the colon
The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cysts are 8 nucleated
Q.
Gram -ve bacteria stain during gram staining____________?
Red color
Colorless
Blue color
Green
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Red color
Q.
The optimal time and temperature required for sterilization in an autoclave is___________________?
121
140
121
121
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 121
Q.
Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus ?
Condyloma acuminatum
Keratoacanthoma
Verruca vulgaris
Focal epithelial hyperplasia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Keratoacanthoma
Q.
IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by______________?
Activated macrophages
Plasma cells
Platelet
Lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Activated macrophages
Q.
The major intestinal pathogens which are non-lactose fermenters are_________________?
Escherichia
Klebsiella
Paracolons
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salmonella
Q.
Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by________________?
Culture
ELISA
DNA probe
Direct microscopy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Culture
Q.
Which component of the cell wall is responsible________________?
Region III
Region I
Boivin antigen
Region II
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Region III
Q.
In patients with asthma due to an allergic cause the serum levels of which immunoglobulin increase____________________?
IgE
IgM
IgD
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Which regards to temperature requirement, most pathogenic bacteria are_____________?
Thermophiles
Cryophiles
Psychrophiles
Mesophiles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mesophiles
Q.
Negative phase is seen in ________ immunity?
Active
Herd
Passive
Local
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active
Q.
Bacterial cell does not possess___________________?
dna
Cell wall
Mitochondria
Ribosome
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mitochondria
Q.
Australian antigen is_______________?
None of the above
HB Ag
HBV
HBs AG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBs AG
Q.
Which does not have a viral etiology______________?
Carcinoma Cervix
Lymphoma
Hepatoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Endotoxins are produced by________________?
Gram +ve bacteria
Virus
Fungi
Gram -ve bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram -ve bacteria
Q.
EBV is responsible for all except______________?
Hepatoma
Burkitt
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Complement factor through which common pathway begins___________________?
C3
Protein B
C5
C2
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C3
Q.
Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is___________________?
Liver
Spleen
Brain
Lungs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Liver
Q.
The time gap between appearance of Koplik
10 days
3-4 days
2 weeks
24 Hrs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3-4 days
Q.
CD4 cells recognize the antigens in association with_____________?
MHC II
MHC I
B-cell receptor
MHC III
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: MHC II
Q.
Each of the following viruses possesses an outer lipoprotein envelope except_____________?
Papilloma Virus
Human immunodeficiency virus
Influenza Virus
Varicella Zoster Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma Virus
Q.
Mark true in following ?
Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
None of the above
Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Q.
First released immunoglobulin after primary immunization_______________?
IgE
IgM
IgG
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is_________________?
Escherichia coli
T-strain mycoplasma
Neisseria gonorrhea
Streptococcus fecalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Escherichia coli
Q.
Black water fever is caused by______________?
Plasmodium falciparum
Leishmania donovani
Plasmodium vivax
Microfilaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______________?
Comma
Banana
Sickle
Dot
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sickle
Q.
Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____________?
6 week
1 week
6 months
3 months
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 week
Q.
About Psedomonas. All are true except________________?
Strick aerobes
Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Most common organism is burn patient
Can grow in disinfectants in hospital
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except_______________?
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through conjugation
Through bacteriophages
Through plasmids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____________?
Type 6,12,18
3,10,19
6,8,11
16,18,31
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 16,18,31
Q.
Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except_______________?
Tissue culture
Chemically defined media
Embryonated eggs
Animals
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chemically defined media
Q.
Type of receptor present on T-cells are__________________?
Prostaglandins
Ig A
CD4
Ig G
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4
Q.
All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_____________?
Eccentric nucleus
Glycogen mass
Refractile nucleus
Chromatid bars
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile nucleus
Q.
Leprosy bacilli can be grown in_________________?
Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Testes of albino rats
Testes of guinea pig
Tail of guinea pig
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Q.
Group A B-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the pharynx may be followed in some by_____________?
Rheumatic fever
Syphilis
Diphtheria
Typhoid fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatic fever
Q.
Secretory Ig is_______________?
IgM
IgE
IgD
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Which of the following viruses does not infect salivary glands ?
Orthomyxovirus
Echo virus
HIV
Hepatitis C
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxovirus
Q.
Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following________________?
Sabin
All of the above
Salk vaccine
Tetanus toxoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salk vaccine
Q.
True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by_______________?
Rats
Cow
cats
Dogs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cats
Q.
Candidal hyphae can be stained using_______________?
Toluidine blue stain
Van Gieson
Periodic acid schiff stain
Masson Trichrome stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Periodic acid schiff stain
Q.
The prototype of Type II hypersensitivity reaction is__________________?
Auto immune hemolytic anemia
SLE
Contact dermatitis
Arthus reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Q.
The earliest identifiable cells of T-Cell lineage during maturation are_______________?
CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
CD5+ Pre-T-Cells
CD8+ Pre-T-Cells
CD8+ Pro-T-Cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
Q.
Dengue virus belongs to______________?
Togaviridae
Reoviridae
Flavi virus
Rhabdoviridae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi virus
Q.
T cell matures in______________?
Busra of Fabricius
Payers patch
Lymph node
Thymus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thymus
Q.
The presence of Which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility ?
Enzymes
Protein coat
Polysaccharide
Lipids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein coat
Q.
Wasserman test test is diagnostic of__________________?
Gonorrhea
Syphilis
Tyhoid
TB
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Glasswares are sterilised by______________?
Hot air oven
Formaldehyde
Incineration
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by which of the following_____________?
Cidex
All of the above
Boiling
Ethanol
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affets_______________?
Mast cells
Fibroblasts
Red blood cells
Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Q.
Which of the following enzyme is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot pathogenic staphylococci_____________?
Fibrinolysin
Coagulase
S protein
Lysozyme
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coagulase
Q.
Secondary response is mediated by_______________?
IgM
IgG
IgE
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Bacterial species which is protective or beneficial to the host is_______________?
Treponema denticola
Streptococcus sanguis
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Spirochetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus sanguis
Q.
Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve________________?
Stomach
Jejunum and Ileum
Duodenum
Caecum and large intestine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caecum and large intestine
Q.
A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents________________?
ISO
Xeno
Allo
Auto
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Allo
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical mycobacteria by______________?
Pas staining
None of the above
Niacin test
AFB staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Niacin test
Q.
The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by____________?
Transduction
Translation
Cell fusion
Conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
Sterilisation control for moist heat is
Using methylene blue
using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Using chemical indicator
Using non-pathogenic strain of clostridium tetani
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Q.
Complement binding immunoglobin via the classical pathway is_______________?
IgD & IgE
IgG & igM
IgG & IgA
IgG & IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG & igM
Q.
Commonest mycobacterial infection in tropical countries_______________?
Kansasi
M. leprae
M. avium intracellulare
M. tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. tuberculosis
Q.
Sterilisation is______________?
Pathogens killed but spores are not affected
All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Non-pathogenic killed
Only pathogenic micro-organisms killed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Q.
Killer and Helper cells are part of_______________?
Macrophage
T cells
Monocytes
B cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T cells
Q.
Bacteriophage was discovered by_________________?
Robert koch
Metchinkoff
Twort and d
Menkin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Twort and d
Q.
Growth factor needed for Salmonella_________________?
B-12
Niacin
Tryptophan
Citrate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Tryptophan
Q.
Louis Pasteur is not associated with_______________?
Introduction of complex media
Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Disproved spontaneous regression theory
Discovery of Rabies Vaccine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Q.
Synthesis of antibodies in plasma cells occurs in_________________?
Mitochondria
Nucleus
Endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi body
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.
Leishmania is cultured in ________________ media?
Chocolate agar
Sabourauds
NNN
Tellurite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NNN
Q.
Purpose of Sterilization is to eliminate________________?
Viruses
Spore formers
Fungus
Bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spore formers
Q.
The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to_____________?
Kill mircobes
Remove microbes
Inhibit microbial growth
Dehydrate microbial cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Remove microbes
Q.
The only virus, which has double stranded RNA, is______________?
Rhabdo virus
Reo virus
Calci virus
Bunya virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reo virus
Q.
Culture media of candida is_________________?
Methylene blue dextrose agar
Saboraud
Pingolevin
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saboraud
Q.
L.D bodies are seen in_______________?
Sleeping sickness
Kalahazar
Toxoplasmosis
Malaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kalahazar
Q.
Schuffner
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium malariae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium vivax
Q.
Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus infection during window period ?
None of the above
IgM anti
Anti HBs
HBs Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM anti
Q.
Delhi boil refer to_______________?
Venereal ulcer
Malignant pustule
L. Tropica sore
Solar Keratosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: L. Tropica sore
Q.
Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except________________?
Failure to thrive
All are true
50% chances to have AIDS
Have infections
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 50% chances to have AIDS
Q.
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to_______________?
Histiocytes
B lymphocytes
Monocytes
T lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T lymphocytes
Q.
The cell wall deficient bacteria_______________?
Rickettsiae
Mycoplasma
Chlamydiae
Ehrlichiae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycoplasma
Q.
Pasteur developed the vaccine for_______________?
Rabies
Cholera
All of the above
Anthrax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Borrelia vincenti is always associated with______________?
Fusiform bacilli
Spirochaetes
None of the above
Treponema vincenti
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fusiform bacilli
Q.
The Manufacturing unit of surgical needle & sutures are sterilized by ________________?
Gamma-Rays
Boiling
Autoclaving
X-Rays
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma-Rays
Q.
Glutaraldehyde is preferred more than formaldehyde because______________?
Its application is easier
It has got more bactericidal activity
It has got more bacteriostatic activity
It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Q.
The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is_____________?
Chorio allantoic membrane
Chocolate agar
Sabourad
Robertoson
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chorio allantoic membrane
Q.
Rh incompatibility is which type of hyper sensitivity reaction ?
Type II
Type IV
Type I
Type III
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Silver impregnation method of staining is useful to demonstrate_____________?
Both of the above
None of the above
Bacterial flagella
Spirochetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both of the above
Q.
Which of the following would you consider to be general properties of viruses______________?
Contain DNA but no RNA
Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids
Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Q.
Dematophytes are fungi infecting________________?
Nails, hair and skin
Systemic organs
Superficial skin and deep tissue
Subcutaneous tissue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nails, hair and skin
Q.
Chlamydia causes all of the following except________________?
Pneumonia
Non-gonococcal urethritis
Trachoma
Parotitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parotitis
Q.
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (SSS syndrome) is due to______________?
Enterotoxin A
Enterotoxin B
Enterotoxin D
Enterotoxin F
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterotoxin F
Q.
Leprosy bacilli are transmitted from person to person by all except______________?
From open sore
Through breast milk
Dischange from nasal mucosa
Through intact skin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Through breast milk
Q.
ASO (Antistreptolysin 0) test is uesd for the diagnosis of________________?
Rheumatoid arthritis
Rheumatie fever
Rickettsial fever
Typhoid fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatie fever
Q.
Actinomycetes is______________?
Gram negative bacteria
A yeast like form
Fungus
Gram positive bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is_____________?
Haemotoxin stain
Ninhydrin stain
Eosin stain
Blue stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ninhydrin stain
Q.
Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by_____________?
Virus
Parasite
Bacteria
Bacteria superadded on virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
The term animalcules to oral microorganisms is given by__________________?
Leumenhoek
Robertson
Wd miller
Socranci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leumenhoek
Q.
Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly_______________?
Gastrointestinal tract
Skin
Lung
Nasal mucosa
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gastrointestinal tract
Q.
Phospholipid used to investigate syphilis by the reagin test is________________?
Plasminogen
Serine
Cardiolipin
Palmityl lecithin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiolipin
Q.
Cleavage of IgG molecule by Papin gives rise to:One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments_______________?
Two Fc fragment and one Fab fragment
One Fc fragment and four Fab fragments
Two Fc fragments and two Fab fragments
One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Q.
Following reaction are produced by heterophil antigens except_____________?
Weil-Felix reaction
Widal reaction
Paul bunnel reaction
Forssman antigen antibody reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal reaction
Q.
The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______________?
IgD
IgG
IgA
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV irradiation_______________?
Lipids
Nucleic acids
Inorganic salts
Carbohydrates
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleic acids
Q.
Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by________________?
Epithelial cells
Sucrose
Bacteria
Dextran
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dextran
Q.
The anaphylaxis should be treated first with_____________?
Anti histamines
Epinephrine
Steroids
Antibiotics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epinephrine
Q.
Dorset
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Gonococcus
Mycobacterium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best demonstrated by_________________?
H & E stain
PAS stain
Gram
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Q.
The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is______________?
Borrelia burgdorferi
Borrelia vincenti
Treponjema pertenue
Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti
Q.
Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is ________________?
Penicillium
Aspergillus
Rhizopus
Mucor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus
Q.
Best method of sterilizing disposable syringes_______________?
U.V. rays
Hot air oven
Boiling
Gamma rays
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma rays
Q.
Anaphylaxis refers to the________________?
Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens
Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions
Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________________?
Melanin production related to virulence
Causes meningitis
Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Basidiomycetes yeast
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Q.
The Process of attenuation can be achieved by all except___________________?
Repeated cultures in artificial media
Growing bacteria in adverse environment
Serial passage in an experimental host
Growing bacteria in unconventional host
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serial passage in an experimental host
Q.
Probiotic organism used_________________?
Staphylococcus
Bifido bacteria
Salmonella
E coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bifido bacteria
Q.
Staphylococcus does not causes_______________?
Osteomyelitis
Abscess
Pneumonia
Scarlet fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Scarlet fever
Q.
Oil and Grease are sterilized by________________?
Ethylene dioxide
Auto claving
Irradiation
Hot air oven
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Most sensitive test for antigen detection is_______________?
ELISA
Immunoflourescence
Radioimmuno Assay
Passive hemaglutination
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Radioimmuno Assay
Q.
Antigen combining site of the antibody is____________________?
Idiotope
Hapten
Paratope
Epitope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Paratope
Q.
The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______________?
Vasculitis
Induration
Erythema
Necrosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythema
Q.
The most common site where organisms are present in a typhoid carrier is______________?
Salivary gland
Liver
Spleen
Gall Bladder
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gall Bladder
Q.
Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause foetal defect ?
Papilloma
Herpes Simplex
Rubella
Mumps
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Babu, a 28 year old male comes with compaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by____________?
P24 antigen
Western blot
Lymph node biopsy
ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: P24 antigen
Q.
The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is ________________?
Coagulase production
hypersensitivity
lecithinase production
exotoxin production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: hypersensitivity
Q.
In T.B cell mediated immunity is by_______________?
B
None of the above
CD 4*
CD 8*
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD 4*
Q.
Australia antigen is associated with________________?
Basal cell carcinoma
Chronic leukemia
AIDS
Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Q.
Incubation pariod of herpes zoster is________________?
1 months
7-14 days
3-6 months
1-2 years
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 7-14 days
Q.
Salmonella typhi can be isolated at different times from______________?
All of the above
Blood
Urine
Feaces
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which of the following antibacterial substance is present in eggs and saliva ?
Lysozyme
Albumin
Isozyme
Secretozyme
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysozyme
Q.
Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection_________________?
Giardia lambella
Taenia solium
Balantidium coli
Isopora belli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Taenia solium
Q.
Electron microscopic examination of the bacterial flora of necrotising ulcerative gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are______________?
Cocci
Filamentous rods
Spirochetes
Bacteriophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
The most frequently encountered clostridial species in gas gangrene is______________?
Clostridium welchii
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium difficile
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Q fever is caused by________________?
C. burnetti
Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
R. quintana
R. prowozekii
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C. burnetti
Q.
Mesophilic organisms are those that grow best at temperature of______________?
-7
-20
55
25
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 25
Q.
An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry cough, sputum culture showed growth on charcoal yeast Extract Medium, theorganism is______________?
Moraxella catarrhalis
H. influenza
Burkholderia cepacia
Legionella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Legionella
Q.
Techoic acid is present in_____________?
Cytoplasm of Gram positive organisms
Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Cell wall of Gram negative organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram negative organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Q.
Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?
Causes positive Nagler reaction
The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously
The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission
Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Q.
Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by_________________?
Dog tapeworm
Hookworm
Threadworm
Fish tapeworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fish tapeworm
Q.
Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?
Mycobacteria
Prions
Coccidia
Spore
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prions
Q.
Blood agar is________________?
Enriched media
Transport media
Differential media
Simple media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enriched media
Q.
Signs of tyhoid fever is/are_____________________?
perforation
All of the above
Osteomyelitis
Haemorrhage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by ___________________?
Aspergillus
Candida albicans
Cryptococcus
Mucor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction______________?
Proteus
Haemophilus
E.coli
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?
Immediately wash wound with soap and water
Give ARV
Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Q.
One of the following is a zoonotic disease_____________?
Anthrax
Cholera
Bacillary dysentery
Typhoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anthrax
Q.
Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of______________?
Gas gangrene
Whooping cough
Malaria
Wool sorters disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gas gangrene
Q.
Which of the following is a live vaccine_____________?
HDCV
Hepatitis
Salk
17 D
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HDCV
Q.
The function of IgD is______________?
Reagin activity
Compliment activation
Localization protection in external secretion
Antigen recognition by B cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antigen recognition by B cells
Q.
The following statement is true regarding fungal infection__________________?
albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals
Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man
Candida infection is usually endogenous
Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida infection is usually endogenous
Q.
One of the following staining methods is an example of negative staining_______________?
Zheil-Neilson
Gram
India ink preparation
Fontana
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
All are true about widel test except________________________?
O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative
Base lines differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
H antigen cannot differentiate between subtypes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Q.
The virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhea include all of the following except____________?
M-Proteins
Outer membrane proteins
IgA Protease
Pili
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M-Proteins
Q.
Characteristic feature of retrovirus is_____________?
DNA polymerase
Restriction endonuclease
Reverse transcriptase
Ribonuclease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reverse transcriptase
Q.
Serum sickness syndrome is an example of________________?
Systemic arthus reaction
Anaphylactic
Cell-mediated immunity
Angioneurotic edema
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Systemic arthus reaction
Q.
The Window period in HIV infection means______________?
The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab
The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
None of the above
The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
Q.
Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to________________?
reduce the toxigenicity
Increase antigenicity
Increase toxigenicity
Reduce the antigenicity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increase antigenicity
Q.
Which of the following is true about amoebic liver disease ?
Portal system is the main filtration system
Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Left lobe of liver is commonly involved
Non-suppurative form is the serious form of extra intestinal amoebiasis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Q.
Teichoic acid is present in cell walls of_________________?
Protozoa
Gram negative bacteria
Yeast
Gram positive bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Grave
Type II
Type IV
Type III
Type I
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Madura mycosis produces______________?
No granules
Red granules
Brown to black granules
White to yellow granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: White to yellow granules
Q.
A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?
Bartonella spp
Pasturella spp
Francisella spp
Brucella spp
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Brucella spp
Q.
Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a_______________?
ELISA
Western Blot
Immunodot
RIPA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Western Blot
Q.
Rabies virus________________?
Chromophilic
Dermatotropic
Neurotropic
Cytotropic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neurotropic
Q.
Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is_______________?
IgA
IgM
IgG
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
B.C.G untrue is_____________?
All of the above
T.B vaccine
Orally administered
live vaccine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orally administered
Q.
In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a_______________?
Hapten
Carrier
Toxin
Super antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hapten
Q.
Thread worm is______________?
Enterobius
Necator
Ascaris
Ancylostoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterobius
Q.
Endotoxin have all but one of the properties given below_______________?
Not secreted outside the cell
Produced by gram positive bacteria
Cannot be toxoided
Produced by gram negative bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Produced by gram positive bacteria
Q.
The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is___________?
Mannitol fermentation
The catalase test
Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes
Detection of coagulase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Detection of coagulase
Q.
Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus is due to ________________________?
Pleomorphism
Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Lack of nucleic acid in the cell wall
Penicillin analogue production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Q.
Influenza is caused by_____________?
Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Q.
Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is_________________?
1:3
2:1
1:2
3:1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2:1
Q.
On a stained slide, clostridium tetani has the appearance of a__________________?
Bunch of a
Chain of beads
Drum stick
Safely pin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Drum stick
Q.
Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine ?
Cholera
Typhoid
Varicella Zoster virus
Tuberculosis (BCG)
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cholera
Q.
which of the following is anaerobic_______________?
Pseudomonas
Bacteroides
Klebsiella
E.coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacteroides
Q.
Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstratig________________?
Trophozoites in the pus
Cysts in the sterile pus
Cysts in the intestine
Trophozoites in the feces
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites in the pus
Q.
The urine sample of a patient has been sent to the laboratory to look for Leptospira. The specimen is to be screened by use of the__________________?
Scanning microscope
Inverted microscope
Electron microscope
Dark ground microscope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dark ground microscope
Q.
Function of Ig A is________________?
Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Activates macrophages
Circulating antibody
Kills virus infected cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Q.
Aflatoxins are produced by________________?
Aspergillus flavus
Aspergillus niger
All of the above
Aspergillus fumigatus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus flavus
Q.
The chemotactic factor is______________?
C3b
C5a
C4a
C2a
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C5a
Q.
Characters of exotoxin include all, except_______________?
Highly potent
Heat labile
Protein polysaccharide complex
Has specific tissue affinity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein polysaccharide complex
Q.
Leptospirosis, all are true except______________?
Onset of IgM in 2 days
Faeces & urine of rodents is the cause
It is sensitive to penicillin
Incubation period is 10 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Onset of IgM in 2 days
Q.
Which of the following belongs to cell fraction derived vaccine______________?
Hepatitis B
Measles
Mumps
Rubella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B
Q.
The killer cells are associated with immunologic response___________________?
Type III
Type I
Type IV
Type II
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
The term epitope refers to________________?
Smallest antigenic determinant
Immunogen
complete antigen molecule
Hapten
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Smallest antigenic determinant
Q.
Drumstick appearance is seen in______________?
Cl. sphenoids
Cl. tetanomorphum
All of the above
Cl. tetani
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. tetani
Q.
The commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercie bacilli________________?
Acridine orange
Congo red
Thioglavin
Auramine and Rhodamine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine and Rhodamine
Q.
Common name for Trichuris trichura________________?
Seat woman
Round worm
Tape worm
Whip worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Whip worm
Q.
Herpes virus_____________?
Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane
Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Q.
The specific test for Treponema pallidum is___________?