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TOP Microbiology MCQS Questions
Q.
Bacterial spores are destroyed by_______________?
Disinfection by hypochlorite solution
Boiling at 100
Autoclave
Pasteurisation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The interaction of antigens with antibodies on the surface of a mast cel leads to degranulation and anaphylaxis. The mast cell granules produce anaphylaxis because they contain________________?
Lysosomes
Proteolytic enzymes
Lymphotoxins
Vasoactive mediators
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vasoactive mediators
Q.
Bacteria with potent exotoxin is_______________?
Klebsiella
Pseudomonas
Clostridium tetani
Shigella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani
Q.
True about prions________________?
Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective
Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Viruses which are genetically deficient
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Q.
The best skin disinfectant is________________?
Savlon
None of the above
Alcohol
Chlorhexdine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chlorhexdine
Q.
Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates_____________?
Simple carriers
High infectivity
Late convalescence
Carrier status
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: High infectivity
Q.
The facultative anaerobic bacteria are those who are_______________?
Able to grow in the presence of carbon dioxide
Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Unable to grow in the absence of oxygen
Unable to grow in the presence of oxygen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Q.
A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium malaria
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Erysipelas is caused by________________?
Group A steptococci
Pneumococci
Gonococci
Group B staphylococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B staphylococci
Q.
True about immune response of hepatitis B is__________________?
Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
CMI disappears soon after recover
Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Antibody to HBC is not protective
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Q.
Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria______________?
Lowenstein Jensen Medium
Saborauds agar
Mc Conkey
Loefflers serum slope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Loefflers serum slope
Q.
A full course of immunization agianst. Telanus with 3 doses to Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how many years ?
20
5
10
15
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 10
Q.
Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?
ELISA followed by western blot technique
Virus isolation
Western blot followed by ELISA
Polymers chain reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA followed by western blot technique
Q.
Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-5m in size, multi-septate, chestnut, brown color is characteristic of________________?
Phaeohypomycosis
Histoplasmosis
Rhinosporodiosis
Chromoblastomycosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chromoblastomycosis
Q.
The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell
Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Haemagglutination inhibition test
Haemagglutination test
Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Q.
An oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod which produces a bluish-green pigment has been grown in culture from a swab obtained from an infected burn wound. This organism is susceptible to gentamicin, ticarcillin and tobramicin, but resistant to all the other antibiotics which of the following organisms is it likely to be ?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Proteus miribilis
Klebsiella pnemoniae
Escherichia coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q.
Exaltation is________________?
None
No change
Decreased virulence
Increased Virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increased Virulence
Q.
Which of the following is not true of boiling water_____________?
It can kill hepatitis B virus
Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis
Can kill vegetative bacterial cells
Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Q.
The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is_______________?
IgD
IgG
IgM
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Germ tubes are formed mainly by_______________?
Candida stellatoidea
Candida albicans
Candida tropicalis
Candida pseudotropicalls
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
The best method of sterilization of dressing powder is_____________?
Inspissation
Tyndallization
Autoclaving
Hot air oven
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with______________?
IgA antibodies
Mast cells
IgM antibodies
Lysozyme
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA antibodies
Q.
Loss of capsule in bacteria is generally associated with______________?
increase in invasiveness
Decease in virulence
Inability to spread through tissue
Loss of infectivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Decease in virulence
Q.
Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify______________?
Mycoplasma
Spirochaetes
Rickettsiae
Chlamydiae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochaetes
Q.
Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_____________?
Tuberculosis
Cryptococcosis
Aspergilosis
Candidiasis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candidiasis
Q.
Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans_________________?
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Hot air oven is used for sterilization of all EXCEPT__________________?
Liquid paraffin
Rubber tubes
Glassware
Sharp instrument
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubber tubes
Q.
Which worm is longest________________?
A. Lumbricoides
Hook worm
T. Solium
T. Saginata
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T. Saginata
Q.
Malignant pustule is referred to_________________?
None of the above
Infected squamous cell carcinoma
Facio-cervical actinomycosis
Cutaneous anthrax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cutaneous anthrax
Q.
In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started________________?
Rabies
Herpes
Poliomyelitis
Influenza
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabies
Q.
True about VDRL test________________?
Slide flocculation test
Best followed for drug therapy
All of the above
Non
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is_____________?
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis A virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
Lancefields classification of B hemolytic streptococcus is based on______________?
Type of lipid in cell membrane
Physiological properties
M Protein
Polysaccharide C antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Polysaccharide C antigen
Q.
Virulence of Gonococcus is due to___________________?
Cytolytic enzymes
Cell Membrane
Its intracellular location
Pili
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
Which of the following fulfil all the criterias of kich
None of the above
N. gonorrhoeae
Mycobacterium leprae
Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: None of the above
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria grow_______________?
in the absence of oxygen
differential media
in the presence of nitrogen
in the presence of oxygen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in the absence of oxygen
Q.
Which of the following is an acid-fast bacillus_____________?
Mycobacterium bacilli
All of the above
Treponema pallidum
Neisseria gonorrhea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium bacilli
Q.
Which of the following is obligate aerobe ?
Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Proteus
diphtheria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Q.
Malaria pigment is________________?
Haemoglobin
Haematin-globin pigment
Iron
Bilurubin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haematin-globin pigment
Q.
The key cell types involved in the acquired immunity include all EXCEPT________________?
Antigen presenting cells (APC
T lymphocytes
Erythrocytes
B lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythrocytes
Q.
Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor_____________?
Carbohydrate cell wall
Pyrogenic exotoxin
Streptolysin 0
M protein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pyrogenic exotoxin
Q.
The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as_____________?
Idiotope
Epitope
Clone
Paratope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epitope
Q.
Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose_______________?
Arthus reaction
Contact dermatitis
Serum sickness
Anaphylaxis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Immunoglobulin consists of________________?
1 heavy, 2 light chains
2 light, 2 heavy chains
3 light, 1 heavy chain
1 light, 1 heavy chain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2 light, 2 heavy chains
Q.
Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in________________?
Rabbit testis only
Artificial media
Chick embryos
Tissue culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabbit testis only
Q.
Which of the following characteristics of bacteria is not true?
Unicellular
Cell wall containing muramic acid
Having either DNA or RNA
Free living
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Having either DNA or RNA
Q.
A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT________________?
Teichoplanin
Linezolid
Imipenem
Vancomycin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Imipenem
Q.
The overall effect of HIV is to gradually impair the immune system by interference with______________?
Macrophages
Natural killer cells
Helper T lymphocytes
Plasma cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes
Q.
Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?
Core antigen
Core antibody
Surface antigen
Surface antibody
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Surface antigen
Q.
Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies_____________?
Chicken pox
Measles
Small pox
Rabies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles
Q.
Prozone phenomenon is due to______________?
Excess antigen
Excess antibody
Disproportionate antigen antibody levels
Hyper immune reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Excess antibody
Q.
Actinomycosis is a_________________?
Aerobic bacterial disease
Aerobic fungal disease
Anaerobic bacterial disease
Anaerobic fungal disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic bacterial disease
Q.
HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except________________?
Blood transmission
Needle prick injury
Sexual intercourse
Saliva
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saliva
Q.
Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_______________?
Presence of either DNA or RNA
Complex multiplication
All of the above
Simple structure
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
False +ve for VDRL is seen in______________?
Lepromatous Leprosy
Malaria
All of the above
Yaws
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Most fungi of medical importance belongs to__________________?
Basidiomycetes
Zygomycetes
Ascomycetes
Deuteromycetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deuteromycetes
Q.
Most of the drug resistances occurs due to_____________?
Transduction
Mutation
conjugation
Transformation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: conjugation
Q.
The bacterial cell wall has all of the following properties except______________?
It contains D-isomers of amino acids
It consists of a mixed polymer called peptidoglycon
It is the structure principally responsible for the reaction of gram staining
It is a unique flexible plastic structure
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It is a unique flexible plastic structure
Q.
The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is_____________?
Tuberculosis
Herpetic gingivostomatitis
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Apthous stomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Q.
Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in which of the following viruses_____________?
Hepatitis B virus
Measles virus
HIV
Pox virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is______________?
Hemophilia ducreya
Donovania granulomatis
Bartonella henselae
Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bartonella henselae
Q.
Which of the following is not a feature of anaphylaxis ?
passive transfer by serum
None of the above
Immediate reaction
Delayed reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Delayed reaction
Q.
DNA covering material in a virus is called as________________?
Nucleocapsid
Capsomere
Envelope
Capsid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Capsid
Q.
ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______________?
Less sensitive less specific
Less sensitive, more specific
More sensitive, more specific
More sensitive, less specific
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: More sensitive, less specific
Q.
Who first introduced solid media_______________?
Ogston
Hensen
Louis pasteur
Robert koch
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robert koch
Q.
cAMP reaction is shown by which streptococci ?
Group D
Group A
Group B
Group C
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B
Q.
Widal test is specific for____________?
Pemhigoid
Typhoid
Leprosy
Plague
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid
Q.
Which of the following is not a koch
The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue
Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the experimental animals
When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Pure cultures can be obtained
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Q.
All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_________________?
histolytica
gingivalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: gingivalis
Q.
When horse serum is injected intravenoulsy in to a rabbit and again in to the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs as the site of the second injection________________?
Atopy
Anaphylaxis
Arthus phenomenon
Serum sickness
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus phenomenon
Q.
Fimbriae are demonstrated by ___________________?
Biochemical reaction
Haemagglutination test
Gram stain
Culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haemagglutination test
Q.
The following is not true of Candida albicans______________?
Forms Chlamydospores
Yeast like fungus
Blastomeres seen in isolates
Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blastomeres seen in isolates
Q.
The temperature required for cultivating mycobacterium________________?
2 degree
37 degrees
27 degrees
0 degree
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 37 degrees
Q.
All are true about bordetella pertussis except______________?
Most common cause is B. Petrussis
Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
It may occur in children and young adult after vaccination
Bacteria culture from nasopharyngeal swab is the definitive diagnosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Q.
Causative organism of Kalahazar is_______________?
Plasmodium ovaie
Toxoplasma
Entamoeba histolytica
Leishman donovani
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leishman donovani
Q.
Interferon interferes with replication of virus at the time of_____________?
When virus enters the cell
DNA/RNA replication
Protein synthesis
Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein synthesis
Q.
Rideal Walker test is used to determine the efficiency of the_____________?
Disinfectant
Moist heat sterilisation
Antibiotics
Dry heat sterilization
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Disinfectant
Q.
The difference between sterilization and disinfection is that_______________?
Disinfection kills all spores but sterilization does not
Sterilization involves chemicals and disinfection involves physical methods
Sterilization is easier to achieve
Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Q.
The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is_______________?
Lysogeny
Transformation
Translation
Conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysogeny
Q.
For uniform staining reaction, morphology and biochemical activity it is advisable to study bacterial cultures during the_____________?
Logarithmic phase
Death phase
Lag phase
Stationary phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Logarithmic phase
Q.
The structure in involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface is_______________?
Flagella
Fimbria
Capsule
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fimbria
Q.
Vibrio cholera was discovered by_________________?
Virchow
Koch
John snow
Medintoff
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Koch
Q.
Noguchi
Brucella
Bordetella
None of the above
Borrelia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia
Q.
Donovanosis, true is___________________?
Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic
Characterized by painful genital ulcers
Penicillin is drug of choice
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Q.
Which of the following statement about P24 antigen of HIV is Not True ?
Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:
It remains during asymptomatic phase
Virus load parallel P24 titre
It can be detected during the window period
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It remains during asymptomatic phase
Q.
A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?
Xenograft
Isograft
Autograft
Allograft
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Isograft
Q.
In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_______________?
Sporozoite
Gametocyte
Hypnozoite
Merozoite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sporozoite
Q.
Virus infected cell is killed by________________?
Interferons
Autolysis
Macrophages
Neutrophils
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Interferons
Q.
In small intestine, cholera toxin acts by______________?
Active absorption of NaCI
Activation of GTPase
ADP
Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ADP
Q.
Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by_____________?
Nisseria
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus viridans
Haemolytic streptococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus viridans
Q.
Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by______________?
Inspissation
Hot air oven
UV-Radiation
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Candida is most often implicated in causation___________________?
Desert rheumatism
Conjunctivitis
Thrush
Tenea capitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thrush
Q.
Diphtheria is pathogenic only when infected with______________?
Beta phage
Delta Phage
Lambda K12
Alfa phage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Beta phage
Q.
The antigen used in Weil Felix test is obtained from________________?
Staphylococcus
coli
Proteus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to______________?
CD8 T-cells
NK
B
CD4 T-cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4 T-cells
Q.
Actinomycosis is caused by______________?
Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Acid fast, non-motile bacillus
Retrovirus
Fungus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Q.
The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route________________?
Hepatitis D virus
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis C virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______________?
Both are
ELISA IS
Western Blot is
PCR is
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both are
Q.
Lepromin test is useful for________________?
Treatment plan
Prognosis
Epidemiology
Diagnosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prognosis
Q.
Staphylococci typically occur in_________________?
Pairs
Chains
Tetrads
Irregular clusters
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Irregular clusters
Q.
The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the________________?
CL domian
VL domian
CH2 domian
CH1 domian
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CH2 domian
Q.
Multiple drug resistance of bacteria depends on which of the following_______________?
Colicigenic factor (Col)
Fertility factor (F+)
All of the above
Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Q.
Immunity that is conferred to the foetus by transfer of IgG and IgA antibodies is called as______________?
Passive acquired immunity
Natural active immunity
Passive natural immunity
Active acquired immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Passive natural immunity
Q.
Viron is defined as______________?
Extracellular infectious virus particle
A smallest particle similar to virus
Smallest virus
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Extracellular infectious virus particle
Q.
Cough plate method is used to identify________________?
Mycoplasma
Pertussis
Y. pestis
M-Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pertussis
Q.
Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functional of the cell______________?
nucleus
Capsule
membrane
wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: membrane
Q.
A dentist suffred from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is_____________?
Paradoxical carrier
Convalscent carrier
Inactive carrier
Healthy carrier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Convalscent carrier
Q.
Sunlight acts as sterilizing agent because_________________?
Heat
Ozone
Long wavelength
short wave lenght
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: short wave lenght
Q.
Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in______________?
2 weeks
9 weeks
12 weeks
4 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4 weeks
Q.
What is the sequence which a retro virus follows on entering a host cell ?
RNA-DNA
DNA-RNA
DNA-RNA-DNA
RNA -DNA-RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: RNA -DNA-RNA
Q.
Nagglers reaction detects________________?
Lecithinase
Coagulase
Hyaluronidase
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Man is the only reservoir for_______________?
Camphylobacter jejuni
Y. enterocolitica
histolytica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: histolytica
Q.
Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_________________?
Desmolase
Theta toxin
Lecithinase
Cytokinin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except___________________?
Though plasmids
Through bacteriophages
through conjugation
Incorporating part of host DNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is__________________?
Placental transfer of antibodies
Gamma globulin injection
Immune blood transfusion
Hepatitis vaccination
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Placental transfer of antibodies
Q.
All are true about legionella pneumophilia except______________?
Person to person transmission
Urine test is a reliable method
Aquatic bodies are main habitat
It can replicate in amoeba
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Person to person transmission
Q.
Smith noguchi
Klebsiella
Bacillus
Spirochetes
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
Tyndallisation is carried out for________________?
Two successive days
60 minutes
One day
Three successive days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Three successive days
Q.
Prions true is____________?
Evokes strong immunogenic reaction
Contains DNA/ RNA
Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Sensitive to most chemical sterilization
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Q.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which of the following________________?
Plasma cells
NK cells
B-cells
Active T cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active T cells
Q.
All are oncogenic except________________?
Aedes
Culex
Mansoni
Anopheles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aedes
Q.
Which of the following viruses appears to be involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi
Human Herpes Virus 3
Human Herpes Virus 4
Human Herpes Virus 8
Human Herpes Virus 1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Human Herpes Virus 4
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Vincent
Caused due to malnutrition
Ulcerative gingivostomatitis
Caused by leptospira interrogans
A symbiotic infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by leptospira interrogans
Q.
Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores can be achieved with_______________?
KOH wet mount
Hematoxylin and Eosin
Grocott Gomori Methenamine silver
Peri-iodic Acid Schiff
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: KOH wet mount
Q.
The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum ?
IgG2
IgG3
IgG1
IgG4
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG1
Q.
Cytopathic effect is shown by_____________?
Bacteria
Anaerobe
Virus
Spirochete
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
Methods for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infection________________?
KOH staining
Wood light examination
Microscopic examination of skin scrapings
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Culture medium used for Bordatella pertussis is_________________?
Bile broth
Wilson Blair medium
Bordet Gengou medium
Robertson cooked meat medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bordet Gengou medium
Q.
Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_____________________?
no antibodies are present in primary HSV
in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis
only after one year
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
Q.
Graft versus host reaction is caused by_________________?
Leukocytes
Monocytes
T-lymphocytes
B-Lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T-lymphocytes
Q.
Black pigmented anaerobes include all of the following except______________?
Prevotella
Buccae
Tannerella
Porphyromonas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Buccae
Q.
A protoplast is best characterized as a bacterial cell______________?
Free of a cell wall and a capsule
containing a cell wall and a capsule
Uniquely sensitive to penicillin
with a cell wall but free of a capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Q.
Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes______________?
Memory B cells
B cells
NK Cells
Cytotoxic T cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NK Cells
Q.
Grape bunch shaped colonies are seen in______________?
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Gonococci
E.coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staphylococcus
Q.
The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is_______________?
EB virus
Adeno
Hepatitis
Parvo virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parvo virus
Q.
Most antibodies are produced in the________________?
Brain and the meninges
Thymus and the appendix
Heart and the liver
Spleen and the lymph nodes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spleen and the lymph nodes
Q.
Post streptococcal acute glomerulo nephritis is an example of________________?
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type III hypersensitivity
Q.
Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups ?
Herpes viruses
Picorna viruses
Flavi viruses
Hepadana viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi viruses
Q.
Phase contrast microscopy is based on principle of__________________?
Light attenuation
Different reflective indices of object
Different refractive indices of object
Light scattering
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Different refractive indices of object
Q.
The medium of choice for culturing yeast from of dimorphic fungi is_________________?
Sabouraud
Any medium incubated at 35-37
Sabouraud
Brain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
The diagnosis of gonorrhea is established by_____________?
Pili agglutination tests
All of the above tests
Haemagglutination tests
Compliment fixation tests
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above tests
Q.
Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to______________?
Hook worm
Thread worm
Ascaris
Guinea worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hook worm
Q.
Candida albicans causes all of the following except______________?
Meningitis
Oral thrush
Endocarditis
Mycetoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycetoma
Q.
CD4 count in normal healthy adult is_______________?
1000
300
200
500
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1000
Q.
A darkfield microscope would be useful in examining blood for_______________?
Actinomyces
Mycobacterium
Treponema
Streptococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema
Q.
Immunoglobulins ar secreted by______________?
Macrophages
Plasma cells
T-cells
Neutrophils
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasma cells
Q.
Haptane is_______________?
None of the above
High molecular protein
Same as epitopes
Carrier required for specific antibody production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Carrier required for specific antibody production
Q.
Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by______________?
Isolation form stool
Isolation from bile
IgM antibodies in serum
Culture from blood
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM antibodies in serum
Q.
VDRL is a________________?
Latex agglutination test
Tube flocculation test
Tube agglutination test
Slide flocculation test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Slide flocculation test
Q.
One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is____________?
Viral interference
Permutation
Supervision
Mutation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Viral interference
Q.
The difference between gram positive and negative bacteria lies in their_______________?
Mesosomes
cell wall
cell membrane
Nuclear material
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cell wall
Q.
The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are______________?
Virus infections
Mycoplasma
Gram negative organisms
Gram positive organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram negative organisms
Q.
Endotoxins differ from exotoxins in that endotoxins______________?
are proteins
activate complement by the alternate pathway
are heat labile
are highly antigenic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: activate complement by the alternate pathway
Q.
The Dane particle is the______________?
HBV
Delta Virus
IgG anti HAV
HBC Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBV
Q.
Tuberculin test screens for_____________?
Hemoral immunity
Complement function
Cell mediated immunity
Phagocyte dysfunction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell mediated immunity
Q.
Endoscopes are sterilized by using_______________?
Gamma radiation
Boiling
Cidex
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Boiling
Q.
One of the following statement about statements about sterilization is not true_______________?
Glass syringes ? Boiling at 169
Liquid paraffin ? Dry heat
Flash pasteurization of milk ? 72
Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Q.
Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?
Proteins
Polysaccharides
Adjuvant
Lipids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteins
Q.
IgG antibodies have a half-life of approximately_______________?
1 week
1 hour
1 Month
1 day
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 Month
Q.
Exotoxins are____________________?
Protein compound
Lipoprotein
Lipid-polysaccharide complex
None
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein compound
Q.
Following is a retrovirus_____________?
Hepatitis virus
Immunodeficiency virus
Influenza
Polio virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immunodeficiency virus
Q.
The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement_________________?
IgE
IgA
IgM
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
The reaginic antibody is________________?
IgA
IgE
IgG
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Kaposi
Between 1000-2000
Above 600
Above 2000
Below 200
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Below 200
Q.
All are not true for cultivation of anaerobic organisms except_______________?
Refrigerator
Incubator
anaerobic jar
Centrifuge
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: anaerobic jar
Q.
Each of the following can cause food poisoning except________________?
Cl. botulinum
Staphylococcus
Cl. difficile
Cl. welchii
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. difficile
Q.
Which of the following does not go into chronic hepatitis stage ?
HBV
HCV
HDV
HEV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HEV
Q.
Physical sterilization was discovered by__________________?
Robert Koch
Joeph Lister
Alexander flemings
John Hunter
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Joeph Lister
Q.
Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito______________?
Sporozoite
Zygote
Gametocyte
Merozoite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gametocyte
Q.
Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with_______________?
Kin Young stain
Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Ziel Nelson
Giemsa stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Q.
Which of the following are correctly matched ?
Transfer of antibody from mother to child is through colostrum and acquired passive immunity naturally
Antigenic stimulus given by vaccine (polio) is artificial active immunity
Injection of antibodies (Hepatitis) is artificially acquired passive immunity
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which is type II hypersensitivity ?
Delayed hypersensitivity
Anaphylaxis
Immune complex mediated
Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Q.
By using phase contrast microscope_______________?
Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
External capsule formation can be observed
Internal metabolic activities can be observed
Internal structures are differentiated in dead cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Q.
One of the following is a treponemal test for diagnosis of syphilis_____________?
Wasserman test
Kahn test
FTAB
Widal test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: FTAB
Q.
Which of the following have the capability to produce extra cellular polysaccharides______________?
Strep. Mutans
Strep. pyogenes
Enterococcus
Peptostreptococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strep. Mutans
Q.
Opportunistic infection is caused by___________________?
Aspergillus
Mucor
Penicillium
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The minimum time required for the sterilization of surgical instruments by moist heat at 134
15 minutes
30 minutes
3 minutes
60 minutes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3 minutes
Q.
Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti_________________?
Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Body is slender and long
Terminal nuclei absent
Causes filariasis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Q.
Granules in the corynebacterium diphtheria are called by following names, except______________?
Metachromatic granules
Babes Ernst granules
Refractile granules
Voluntin granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile granules
Q.
Neurotoxin of tetanus acts on______________?
Synapse
Spinal card
Muscle
Brain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spinal card
Q.
Sporulation occurs in__________________?
Log phase
Stationary phase
Lag phase
Decline phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
True about HIV are all except______________?
Attacks CD4 cells
Decrease CD4 count in late stages
Macrophages are the reservoir
DNA virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: DNA virus
Q.
IgG has subclasses_______________?
2
4
3
1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4
Q.
Anti HBsAB indicates______________?
Good prognosis
Resistance to hepatitis B
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Acute infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Good prognosis
Q.
Causative agents of Vincent
Borrelia burgoloferi and lactobacillus
Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Leptospira and Treponema pallidum
Borrelia recurrents and bateroides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Q.
Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______________?
Serum sickness
Atopic allergy
Transfusion reaction
Contact dermatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is________________?
ELISA
Counter immune electroporesis
Indirect hemagglutination
Microscopy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA
Q.
Test for differentiating virulent form non-virulent tubercular bacilli_____________?
Niacin test
Catalase peroxidase test
Neutral red test
Aryl sulphatase test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neutral red test
Q.
Rickettsiae__________________?
Multiply within living cell
All of the above
Respond to tetracycline therapy
Transmitted by arthropod vectors
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Virus is cultured in_______________?
Embryonated egg
Nonembryonated egg
Rogosa medium
Saubourd
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Embryonated egg
Q.
Disinfection frees the surface from______________?
Vegetative forms
None of the above
Spore forms
Both of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vegetative forms
Q.
Human immunoglobulins are divided based on_____________?
Functional differences
None of the above
Structural differences
Complemented fixation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Structural differences
Q.
Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to__________________?
Capsule
Exotoxin
Endotoxin
Invasion
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Exotoxin
Q.
Chemotactic cytokine is_________________?
IL-8
IL-1
IL-6
TNF
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IL-8
Q.
The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in vivo from one bacterium to another by_____________?
Conjugation
Transduction
Transformation
Rarefaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
The culture media for fungus is__________________?
Sabourauds medium
Chocolate agar medium
NNN medium
Tellurite medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabourauds medium
Q.
Immunoglobin, Which is produced first by the fetus in response to infection_______________?
IgG
IgM
IgD
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Which of the following is an enrichment medium________________?
Nutrient Broth
Selenite F Broth
Mac Conkey agar
Blood agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Selenite F Broth
Q.
What is the transport medium for cholera___________________?
B & C
Cary Blair Medium
Tellurite Medium
Venkatraman
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: B & C
Q.
A type of immediately occuring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called_____________?
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type I hypersensitivity
Q.
Same or closely related antigens present in different biological species are known as________________?
Isoantigens
Haptens
Suquestrated antigens
Heterophile antigens
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Heterophile antigens
Q.
One of the following is an agglutination test in the diagnosis of typhoid___________?
Eleks test
Mantoux test
Widal test
Wasserman test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
Sterilization is a process in which_________________?
Deactivate all pathogens not spores
Kill all pathogenic micro-organisms
Kill all non-pathogenic micro-organisms in the environment
Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Q.
Human immune deficiency virus is ________________ virus?
Rhabdo
Rheo
Retro
Flavi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Retro
Q.
A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned in to an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis______________?
Trichrome Methylene blue
Acid Fast Stain
Calcoflour White
Carbol Fuschin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trichrome Methylene blue
Q.
Half-life of free HIV in plasma is________________?
3 months
6 hours
12 hours
24 hours
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 6 hours
Q.
Among The infectious diseases transmitted by food, one is___________________?
Diptheria
Tuberculosis
Viral stomatitis
Typhoid fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid fever
Q.
Moist heat kills all of the following EXCEPT_______________?
Mycobacterium
Coxiella burnetti
Brucella
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coxiella burnetti
Q.
The Ig found in exocrine secretions is_____________?
IgM
IgD
IgA
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Operation theatres are sterilized by_____________?
Carbolic acid spraying
Washing with soap and water
ETO gas
Formaldehyde fumigation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Formaldehyde fumigation
Q.
Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci________________?
Sarcina
Staphylococcus
Aerococcus
Micrococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sarcina
Q.
About Bacteroids True are all Except_______________?
Present mainly in mixed infections
Susceptible to many antibiotics
Bile resistant anerobes
Most common species is B fragilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Susceptible to many antibiotics
Q.
Encapsulation in bacteria helps in__________________?
Prevent their phagocytosis
Spore formation
Oxygen effect
Decreased virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prevent their phagocytosis
Q.
In initial stages of tyhoid, salmonella can be detected in________________?
Feacus
Blood
All of the above
Urine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood
Q.
All of the following are true of streptococcus except_____________?
Most common in humans
Shows adherence to dental enamel
It
Most common is animals
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It
Q.
Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phase of the bacterial growth curve______________?
Lag
Decline
Stationary phase
Exponential growth
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
Viruses can be cultured in all except_______________?
Guinea pigs
Cell culture
Blood agar
Chick embryo
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood agar
Q.
Kolmer test is a screening test done for_________________?
Syphilis
Gonorrhea
Tuberculosis
Lymphoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Function of T-lymphocyte is/are________________?
Rosette formation
All of the above
Lymphokine production
Production of interferon
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The following are applicable to bacterial genoms except________________?
It is circular
It is composed of DNA
Its DNA has both introns and extrons
It doe not contain histones
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Q.
EBV causes all except_________________?
Burkitt
Infectious mononucleosis
Carcinoma of nasopharynx
Papilloma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma
Q.
Which of the following is not used as disinfectant________________?
2% Lysol
1-2% cetrimide
5% chloroxylene
100% alcohol
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 100% alcohol
Q.
Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by_______________?
M. ulcerans
M. chelonae
M. smegmatis
M. Kansasii
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. chelonae
Q.
All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except____________?
Hepatitis B
HIV
Hepatitis E
Hepatitis C
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Which of the following correctly indicates the infectivity of hepatitis virus in human ?
HBCAg
Anti-HBS
HBeAg
Anti-HBC
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBeAg
Q.
In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except__________________?
Malabsorption
Spleen sequestration
Hemolysis
Bone marrow depression
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Malabsorption
Q.
Which of the following is not a pox virus ?
chicken pox
Molluscum contagiosum
Small pox
Cowpox
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: chicken pox
Q.
A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is______________?
Pyte-ferraco stain
Methanamine silver stain
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
India ink preparation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
Staphylococcal food poisoning includes the following features_______________?
Incubation period of 24 hours
Heat labile enterotoxin
Common with dairy products
Requires immediate antibiotics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Common with dairy products
Q.
Causative organism for gas gangrene_______________?
Clostridium welchii
Coli
Strep. Faecalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Streptococcus is classified based on__________________?
Bile Solubility
Cell wall carbohydrate
M Protein
Cultural characteristics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall carbohydrate
Q.
compared with autoclave, use of a dry heat over for sterilization has the following disadvantages______________?
Time-consuming
Less effective
Causes instruments to rust
Causes sharp instruments to dull
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Time-consuming
Q.
Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces?
Pili
Capsule
Mesosomes
Flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except_____________?
Salmonella typhi
Neisseria meningitides
Legionella pneumophila
Streptococcus pyogenes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus pyogenes
Q.
The best sterilization method for a hand-piece is________________?
All of the above
Ethylene oxide gas
dry heat
chemical vapour
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ethylene oxide gas
Q.
Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is____________?
Secretory IgA
Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Sialoperoxidase
Histidine rich proteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Q.
Sleeping sickness is caused by_______________?
Sand fly
Reduvid bug
House fly
Tick
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reduvid bug
Q.
The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_____________?
Kerison
Pilomatrixoma
Alopecia areata
Tenia incognito
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kerison
Q.
Steam under pressure in used in ________ sterilization?
Kochs sterilizer
Pasteurization
hot air oven
Autoclave
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The small nonparticulate protein leading to enhanced replication of HBV as well as HIV is______________?
HBx Ag
HBs Ag
Hbe Ag
HBc Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBx Ag
Q.
T cells multiplication is stimulated by_______________?
Heat
Phytohaemagglutinin
Macrolin
Bovine serum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Phytohaemagglutinin
Q.
Bacteria reproduce mainly by______________?
Sporing
Bacterial components produced by host cells
Binary fission
Budding
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Binary fission
Q.
The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine doses not play a major role is______________?
Arthus reaction
Urticaria
Asthma
Anaphylaxis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus reaction
Q.
Robertsons cooked meat medium is best suited for cultivation of_______________?
S. epidermidis
Choleria
Clostridia
Mycobacterium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridia
Q.
A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates________________?
Acute infection
Convalescence
Carrier state
Prodromal phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acute infection
Q.
Which of the following organisms does NOT react with gram
Streptococcus mutan
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Actinomyces israelii
Candida albicans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q.
Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins ?
IgM
IgE
IgA
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Disinfection of the rooms can be done by using_______________?
High efficiency particle arrestors
40% formaldehyde vapour
20% phenol
Chlorine gas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 40% formaldehyde vapour
Q.
Negative staining is used to demonstrate________________?
Bacterial spore
Bacterial capsule
Bacterial fimbriae
Bacterial Flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacterial fimbriae
Q.
Which is not true about vibrio cholera_________________?
It is non-halophilic
Man is the only natural host
Grows on simple media
Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Q.
Group A carbohydrate of Str. pyogenes cross reacts with human_________________?
Myocardium
Synovial fluid
Cardiac valves
Vascular intima
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiac valves
Q.
Pneumococus can be differentiated from streptococcus by________________?
Bile solubility
Gram staining
Growth characteristics
Type of hemolysis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bile solubility
Q.
Phage conversion is required for________________?
Diptheria
Tularemia
Gonorrhoea
All o f the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Diptheria
Q.
parasitic inflammation would show predominantly____________________?
Neutrophilis
Eosinophils
Lymphocytes
Basophils
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Eosinophils
Q.
Pseudohphae are seen in____________?
Aspergillus
Candida albicans
Alternaria
Osporium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?
Trench fever
Epidemic typhus
Relapsing fever
Q fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Q fever
Q.
The causative organism of syphilis is___________?
Chalamydia trachomatis
Leptospira interrogans
Borrelia burgolorferi
Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema pallidum
Q.
Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except______________?
Giardia lambia
Strongyloides
Entamoeba
Ascaris lumbriocoides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strongyloides
Q.
Toxoids are_________________?
non-antigenic and non-toxic
non-antigenic and toxic
antigenic and non-toxic
antigenic and toxic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: antigenic and non-toxic
Q.
Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000_________________?
J piece
H chain
L chain
Secretory piece
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: H chain
Q.
IL-1 is produced by_________________?
Helper B cells
Monocytes
Helper T cells
Macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Macrophages
Q.
In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by_____________?
Widal test
Stool culture
Blood culture
Urine culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except__________________?
Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection
All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Found exclusively in human beings.
Most common cause of urethritis is male
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Q.
Pigs are important source of_____________?
Kuru
Yellow fever
Japanese encephalitis
Rabies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Japanese encephalitis
Q.
A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains and haemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism ?
Cataslase positive
Optochin sensitivity
Bile solubility
Bacitracin sensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacitracin sensitivity
Q.
Organ of locomotion in bacteria is________________?
Fimbria
Flagella
Capsule
Cell wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flagella
Q.
All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except______________?
Colony morphology on saliva agar
Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide
Gram staining
Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram staining
Q.
Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in______________?
Hood worm
Ascariasis
Tapeworm
Ascariasis and tapeworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ascariasis
Q.
Bacteria with tuft of flagella at one end are called_______________?
Lophotrichate
Bipolar
Monotrichate
Peritrichate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lophotrichate
Q.
Certain viruses have been isolated in crytalline form and have been found to be_____________?
Nucleotides
Nucleoproteins
Scleroproteins
Phospholipids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleoproteins
Q.
Fungal infection of human beings is called as_____________?
Fungosis
Mucorsis
Mycosis
Micromia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycosis
Q.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa_________________?
Produces heat stable enterotoxin
Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.
Causes Shangai fever
Does not produce any pigment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Causes Shangai fever
Q.
The world german measles is applied for_____________?
Rubeola
Herpes simplex
Herpetic ginglvostomatitis
Rubella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Which of the following provides best gurantee for sterlization in the heat sterilizer ?
Recording a temperature/ pressure readings from sterilizer guage
Using chemical indicator strip or pouch
Determining the ability of a sterilizer to kill the hepatitis B virus
Using a bacterial spore test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Using a bacterial spore test
Q.
Active artificial immunization is induced by the administration of all of the following EXCEPT______________?
Antitoxins
Toxoids
Bacterial products
Vaccines
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antitoxins
Q.
Plaque test is used routinely in virology lab
To separate specific clone of virus
To prepare vaccines
Identification of viral disease
To maintain certain viral culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Identification of viral disease
Q.
The commonest method of detection of diptheria carriers is_______________?
Schick test
Casoni
Dick test
Charles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Schick test
Q.
Most common tumor associated with AIDS is______________?
Kaposi
Ewing
Melanoma
Carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kaposi
Q.
Which of the following is a RNA virus ?
Papavo virus
Herpes Virus
Measles virus
Adeno virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
A 6 year old boy comes with abdominal pain, vomiting after consuming mild products within 6 hours. The most likely organism responsible is______________?
Clostridium botulinum
B.Cereus
Salmonella
Staph. aureus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staph. aureus
Q.
The medium of choice for growing most fungi is_______________?
Thioglycollate medium
Blood agar
Sabouraud
Tissue culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
Hydatid cyst is__________________?
Viral
Parasitic in nature
Congenital
Fungal
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parasitic in nature
Q.
Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called______________?
Chemotaxis
CFT
De coding
Opsonisation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Opsonisation
Q.
The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is___________________?
15%
10%
5%
2%
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2%
Q.
Selective media for MYCOBACTERIUM _____________?
Sabourauds medium
Agar
Loefflers serum slope
Lowenstein Jensen medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lowenstein Jensen medium
Q.
A sporangium contains_______________?
Spherules
Oidia
porangiospores
Chlamydospores
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: porangiospores
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria can be cultured in__________________?
Loefflers medium
Sabourauds agar
Robertson cooked meat medium
L-J medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robertson cooked meat medium
Q.
All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except________________?
Cysts are 8 nucleated
Trophozoites colonise in the colon
The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides
Cysts are 4 nucleated
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cysts are 8 nucleated
Q.
Gram -ve bacteria stain during gram staining____________?
Red color
Colorless
Green
Blue color
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Red color
Q.
The optimal time and temperature required for sterilization in an autoclave is___________________?
121
140
121
121
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 121
Q.
Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus ?
Condyloma acuminatum
Keratoacanthoma
Focal epithelial hyperplasia
Verruca vulgaris
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Keratoacanthoma
Q.
IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by______________?
Plasma cells
Lymphocytes
Platelet
Activated macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Activated macrophages
Q.
The major intestinal pathogens which are non-lactose fermenters are_________________?
Salmonella
Escherichia
Paracolons
Klebsiella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salmonella
Q.
Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by________________?
DNA probe
Culture
Direct microscopy
ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Culture
Q.
Which component of the cell wall is responsible________________?
Region III
Region II
Boivin antigen
Region I
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Region III
Q.
In patients with asthma due to an allergic cause the serum levels of which immunoglobulin increase____________________?
IgA
IgM
IgE
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Which regards to temperature requirement, most pathogenic bacteria are_____________?
Thermophiles
Mesophiles
Psychrophiles
Cryophiles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mesophiles
Q.
Negative phase is seen in ________ immunity?
Local
Active
Passive
Herd
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active
Q.
Bacterial cell does not possess___________________?
Cell wall
dna
Mitochondria
Ribosome
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mitochondria
Q.
Australian antigen is_______________?
None of the above
HB Ag
HBV
HBs AG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBs AG
Q.
Which does not have a viral etiology______________?
Carcinoma Cervix
Lymphoma
Hepatoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Endotoxins are produced by________________?
Virus
Fungi
Gram +ve bacteria
Gram -ve bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram -ve bacteria
Q.
EBV is responsible for all except______________?
Burkitt
Hepatoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Complement factor through which common pathway begins___________________?
C3
Protein B
C2
C5
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C3
Q.
Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is___________________?
Spleen
Lungs
Brain
Liver
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Liver
Q.
The time gap between appearance of Koplik
2 weeks
3-4 days
24 Hrs
10 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3-4 days
Q.
CD4 cells recognize the antigens in association with_____________?
MHC II
B-cell receptor
MHC I
MHC III
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: MHC II
Q.
Each of the following viruses possesses an outer lipoprotein envelope except_____________?
Human immunodeficiency virus
Varicella Zoster Virus
Influenza Virus
Papilloma Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma Virus
Q.
Mark true in following ?
Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
None of the above
Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Q.
First released immunoglobulin after primary immunization_______________?
IgM
IgD
IgG
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is_________________?
Escherichia coli
Streptococcus fecalis
Neisseria gonorrhea
T-strain mycoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Escherichia coli
Q.
Black water fever is caused by______________?
Microfilaria
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium falciparum
Leishmania donovani
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______________?
Comma
Dot
Sickle
Banana
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sickle
Q.
Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____________?
6 months
1 week
3 months
6 week
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 week
Q.
About Psedomonas. All are true except________________?
Most common organism is burn patient
Can grow in disinfectants in hospital
Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Strick aerobes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except_______________?
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through conjugation
Through bacteriophages
Through plasmids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____________?
Type 6,12,18
6,8,11
3,10,19
16,18,31
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 16,18,31
Q.
Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except_______________?
Tissue culture
Animals
Embryonated eggs
Chemically defined media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chemically defined media
Q.
Type of receptor present on T-cells are__________________?
Ig A
Ig G
Prostaglandins
CD4
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4
Q.
All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_____________?
Glycogen mass
Refractile nucleus
Eccentric nucleus
Chromatid bars
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile nucleus
Q.
Leprosy bacilli can be grown in_________________?
Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Tail of guinea pig
Testes of albino rats
Testes of guinea pig
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Q.
Group A B-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the pharynx may be followed in some by_____________?
Typhoid fever
Syphilis
Rheumatic fever
Diphtheria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatic fever
Q.
Secretory Ig is_______________?
IgE
IgA
IgD
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Which of the following viruses does not infect salivary glands ?
Hepatitis C
Orthomyxovirus
Echo virus
HIV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxovirus
Q.
Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following________________?
Salk vaccine
All of the above
Tetanus toxoid
Sabin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salk vaccine
Q.
True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by_______________?
Cow
Dogs
cats
Rats
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cats
Q.
Candidal hyphae can be stained using_______________?
Periodic acid schiff stain
Toluidine blue stain
Van Gieson
Masson Trichrome stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Periodic acid schiff stain
Q.
The prototype of Type II hypersensitivity reaction is__________________?
Arthus reaction
Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Contact dermatitis
SLE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Q.
The earliest identifiable cells of T-Cell lineage during maturation are_______________?
CD8+ Pro-T-Cells
CD8+ Pre-T-Cells
CD5+ Pre-T-Cells
CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
Q.
Dengue virus belongs to______________?
Reoviridae
Togaviridae
Flavi virus
Rhabdoviridae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi virus
Q.
T cell matures in______________?
Busra of Fabricius
Lymph node
Payers patch
Thymus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thymus
Q.
The presence of Which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility ?
Enzymes
Lipids
Protein coat
Polysaccharide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein coat
Q.
Wasserman test test is diagnostic of__________________?
Syphilis
Gonorrhea
Tyhoid
TB
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Glasswares are sterilised by______________?
Formaldehyde
Incineration
Hot air oven
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by which of the following_____________?
All of the above
Ethanol
Boiling
Cidex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affets_______________?
Mast cells
Red blood cells
Fibroblasts
Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Q.
Which of the following enzyme is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot pathogenic staphylococci_____________?
S protein
Coagulase
Lysozyme
Fibrinolysin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coagulase
Q.
Secondary response is mediated by_______________?
IgA
IgE
IgM
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Bacterial species which is protective or beneficial to the host is_______________?
Spirochetes
Treponema denticola
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Streptococcus sanguis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus sanguis
Q.
Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve________________?
Jejunum and Ileum
Duodenum
Stomach
Caecum and large intestine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caecum and large intestine
Q.
A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents________________?
Xeno
Allo
ISO
Auto
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Allo
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical mycobacteria by______________?
Pas staining
Niacin test
None of the above
AFB staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Niacin test
Q.
The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by____________?
Conjugation
Translation
Cell fusion
Transduction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
Sterilisation control for moist heat is
using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Using non-pathogenic strain of clostridium tetani
Using methylene blue
Using chemical indicator
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Q.
Complement binding immunoglobin via the classical pathway is_______________?
IgG & IgD
IgG & IgA
IgD & IgE
IgG & igM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG & igM
Q.
Commonest mycobacterial infection in tropical countries_______________?
M. leprae
M. avium intracellulare
Kansasi
M. tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. tuberculosis
Q.
Sterilisation is______________?
Only pathogenic micro-organisms killed
Non-pathogenic killed
Pathogens killed but spores are not affected
All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Q.
Killer and Helper cells are part of_______________?
B cells
Macrophage
T cells
Monocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T cells
Q.
Bacteriophage was discovered by_________________?
Twort and d
Robert koch
Metchinkoff
Menkin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Twort and d
Q.
Growth factor needed for Salmonella_________________?
Niacin
Citrate
Tryptophan
B-12
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Tryptophan
Q.
Louis Pasteur is not associated with_______________?
Disproved spontaneous regression theory
Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Discovery of Rabies Vaccine
Introduction of complex media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Q.
Synthesis of antibodies in plasma cells occurs in_________________?
Nucleus
Golgi body
Endoplasmic reticulum
Mitochondria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.
Leishmania is cultured in ________________ media?
Sabourauds
NNN
Tellurite
Chocolate agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NNN
Q.
Purpose of Sterilization is to eliminate________________?
Viruses
Spore formers
Bacteria
Fungus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spore formers
Q.
The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to_____________?
Kill mircobes
Remove microbes
Dehydrate microbial cells
Inhibit microbial growth
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Remove microbes
Q.
The only virus, which has double stranded RNA, is______________?
Calci virus
Reo virus
Bunya virus
Rhabdo virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reo virus
Q.
Culture media of candida is_________________?
Methylene blue dextrose agar
Saboraud
All of the above
Pingolevin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saboraud
Q.
L.D bodies are seen in_______________?
Toxoplasmosis
Kalahazar
Sleeping sickness
Malaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kalahazar
Q.
Schuffner
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium malariae
Plasmodium ovale
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium vivax
Q.
Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus infection during window period ?
Anti HBs
HBs Ag
IgM anti
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM anti
Q.
Delhi boil refer to_______________?
Solar Keratosis
L. Tropica sore
Venereal ulcer
Malignant pustule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: L. Tropica sore
Q.
Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except________________?
Failure to thrive
Have infections
50% chances to have AIDS
All are true
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 50% chances to have AIDS
Q.
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to_______________?
Monocytes
B lymphocytes
Histiocytes
T lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T lymphocytes
Q.
The cell wall deficient bacteria_______________?
Ehrlichiae
Chlamydiae
Rickettsiae
Mycoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycoplasma
Q.
Pasteur developed the vaccine for_______________?
Anthrax
Rabies
All of the above
Cholera
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Borrelia vincenti is always associated with______________?
Treponema vincenti
None of the above
Spirochaetes
Fusiform bacilli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fusiform bacilli
Q.
The Manufacturing unit of surgical needle & sutures are sterilized by ________________?
X-Rays
Boiling
Autoclaving
Gamma-Rays
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma-Rays
Q.
Glutaraldehyde is preferred more than formaldehyde because______________?
It has got more bacteriostatic activity
It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Its application is easier
It has got more bactericidal activity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Q.
The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is_____________?
Chocolate agar
Robertoson
Sabourad
Chorio allantoic membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chorio allantoic membrane
Q.
Rh incompatibility is which type of hyper sensitivity reaction ?
Type I
Type III
Type II
Type IV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Silver impregnation method of staining is useful to demonstrate_____________?
Spirochetes
Both of the above
Bacterial flagella
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both of the above
Q.
Which of the following would you consider to be general properties of viruses______________?
New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses
Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids
Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Contain DNA but no RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Q.
Dematophytes are fungi infecting________________?
Superficial skin and deep tissue
Nails, hair and skin
Subcutaneous tissue
Systemic organs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nails, hair and skin
Q.
Chlamydia causes all of the following except________________?
Trachoma
Pneumonia
Non-gonococcal urethritis
Parotitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parotitis
Q.
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (SSS syndrome) is due to______________?
Enterotoxin D
Enterotoxin B
Enterotoxin F
Enterotoxin A
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterotoxin F
Q.
Leprosy bacilli are transmitted from person to person by all except______________?
Dischange from nasal mucosa
Through breast milk
From open sore
Through intact skin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Through breast milk
Q.
ASO (Antistreptolysin 0) test is uesd for the diagnosis of________________?
Rheumatoid arthritis
Typhoid fever
Rickettsial fever
Rheumatie fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatie fever
Q.
Actinomycetes is______________?
Gram negative bacteria
Fungus
A yeast like form
Gram positive bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is_____________?
Ninhydrin stain
Haemotoxin stain
Eosin stain
Blue stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ninhydrin stain
Q.
Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by_____________?
Virus
Parasite
Bacteria
Bacteria superadded on virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
The term animalcules to oral microorganisms is given by__________________?
Wd miller
Socranci
Robertson
Leumenhoek
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leumenhoek
Q.
Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly_______________?
Lung
Gastrointestinal tract
Skin
Nasal mucosa
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gastrointestinal tract
Q.
Phospholipid used to investigate syphilis by the reagin test is________________?
Plasminogen
Palmityl lecithin
Serine
Cardiolipin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiolipin
Q.
Cleavage of IgG molecule by Papin gives rise to:One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments_______________?
One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
One Fc fragment and four Fab fragments
Two Fc fragment and one Fab fragment
Two Fc fragments and two Fab fragments
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Q.
Following reaction are produced by heterophil antigens except_____________?
Weil-Felix reaction
Widal reaction
Paul bunnel reaction
Forssman antigen antibody reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal reaction
Q.
The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______________?
IgE
IgG
IgA
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV irradiation_______________?
Inorganic salts
Carbohydrates
Nucleic acids
Lipids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleic acids
Q.
Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by________________?
Dextran
Bacteria
Sucrose
Epithelial cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dextran
Q.
The anaphylaxis should be treated first with_____________?
Epinephrine
Antibiotics
Anti histamines
Steroids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epinephrine
Q.
Dorset
Gonococcus
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Mycobacterium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best demonstrated by_________________?
H & E stain
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Gram
PAS stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Q.
The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is______________?
Borrelia vincenti
Treponjema pertenue
Treponema pallidum
Borrelia burgdorferi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti
Q.
Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is ________________?
Penicillium
Rhizopus
Aspergillus
Mucor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus
Q.
Best method of sterilizing disposable syringes_______________?
Hot air oven
Gamma rays
U.V. rays
Boiling
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma rays
Q.
Anaphylaxis refers to the________________?
Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions
Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens
Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________________?
Melanin production related to virulence
Causes meningitis
Basidiomycetes yeast
Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Q.
The Process of attenuation can be achieved by all except___________________?
Repeated cultures in artificial media
Serial passage in an experimental host
Growing bacteria in unconventional host
Growing bacteria in adverse environment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serial passage in an experimental host
Q.
Probiotic organism used_________________?
Bifido bacteria
Salmonella
Staphylococcus
E coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bifido bacteria
Q.
Staphylococcus does not causes_______________?
Abscess
Pneumonia
Osteomyelitis
Scarlet fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Scarlet fever
Q.
Oil and Grease are sterilized by________________?
Hot air oven
Auto claving
Ethylene dioxide
Irradiation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Most sensitive test for antigen detection is_______________?
ELISA
Passive hemaglutination
Immunoflourescence
Radioimmuno Assay
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Radioimmuno Assay
Q.
Antigen combining site of the antibody is____________________?
Paratope
Hapten
Idiotope
Epitope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Paratope
Q.
The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______________?
Erythema
Induration
Vasculitis
Necrosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythema
Q.
The most common site where organisms are present in a typhoid carrier is______________?
Spleen
Gall Bladder
Liver
Salivary gland
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gall Bladder
Q.
Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause foetal defect ?
Mumps
Papilloma
Rubella
Herpes Simplex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Babu, a 28 year old male comes with compaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by____________?
Lymph node biopsy
P24 antigen
Western blot
ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: P24 antigen
Q.
The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is ________________?
lecithinase production
Coagulase production
exotoxin production
hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: hypersensitivity
Q.
In T.B cell mediated immunity is by_______________?
None of the above
CD 4*
CD 8*
B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD 4*
Q.
Australia antigen is associated with________________?
Basal cell carcinoma
Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
AIDS
Chronic leukemia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Q.
Incubation pariod of herpes zoster is________________?
1 months
1-2 years
7-14 days
3-6 months
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 7-14 days
Q.
Salmonella typhi can be isolated at different times from______________?
Feaces
All of the above
Urine
Blood
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which of the following antibacterial substance is present in eggs and saliva ?
Lysozyme
Isozyme
Albumin
Secretozyme
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysozyme
Q.
Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection_________________?
Giardia lambella
Isopora belli
Taenia solium
Balantidium coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Taenia solium
Q.
Electron microscopic examination of the bacterial flora of necrotising ulcerative gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are______________?
Spirochetes
Bacteriophages
Filamentous rods
Cocci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
The most frequently encountered clostridial species in gas gangrene is______________?
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium welchii
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Q fever is caused by________________?
R. prowozekii
R. quintana
C. burnetti
Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C. burnetti
Q.
Mesophilic organisms are those that grow best at temperature of______________?
-20
55
-7
25
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 25
Q.
An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry cough, sputum culture showed growth on charcoal yeast Extract Medium, theorganism is______________?
Moraxella catarrhalis
Legionella
Burkholderia cepacia
H. influenza
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Legionella
Q.
Techoic acid is present in_____________?
Cytoplasm of Gram positive organisms
Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram negative organisms
Cell wall of Gram negative organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Q.
Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?
Causes positive Nagler reaction
Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously
The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Q.
Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by_________________?
Hookworm
Dog tapeworm
Threadworm
Fish tapeworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fish tapeworm
Q.
Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?
Prions
Coccidia
Mycobacteria
Spore
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prions
Q.
Blood agar is________________?
Differential media
Simple media
Enriched media
Transport media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enriched media
Q.
Signs of tyhoid fever is/are_____________________?
Osteomyelitis
Haemorrhage
All of the above
perforation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by ___________________?
Aspergillus
Mucor
Candida albicans
Cryptococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction______________?
Proteus
Staphylococcus
Haemophilus
E.coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?
Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity
Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Immediately wash wound with soap and water
Give ARV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Q.
One of the following is a zoonotic disease_____________?
Typhoid
Anthrax
Bacillary dysentery
Cholera
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anthrax
Q.
Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of______________?
Wool sorters disease
Whooping cough
Gas gangrene
Malaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gas gangrene
Q.
Which of the following is a live vaccine_____________?
HDCV
Hepatitis
17 D
Salk
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HDCV
Q.
The function of IgD is______________?
Antigen recognition by B cells
Reagin activity
Compliment activation
Localization protection in external secretion
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antigen recognition by B cells
Q.
The following statement is true regarding fungal infection__________________?
Candida infection is usually endogenous
Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal
albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals
Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida infection is usually endogenous
Q.
One of the following staining methods is an example of negative staining_______________?
India ink preparation
Fontana
Gram
Zheil-Neilson
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
All are true about widel test except________________________?
H antigen cannot differentiate between subtypes
Base lines differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Q.
The virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhea include all of the following except____________?
Outer membrane proteins
Pili
IgA Protease
M-Proteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M-Proteins
Q.
Characteristic feature of retrovirus is_____________?
Reverse transcriptase
DNA polymerase
Ribonuclease
Restriction endonuclease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reverse transcriptase
Q.
Serum sickness syndrome is an example of________________?
Anaphylactic
Systemic arthus reaction
Angioneurotic edema
Cell-mediated immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Systemic arthus reaction
Q.
The Window period in HIV infection means______________?
None of the above
The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS
The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
Q.
Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to________________?
Increase toxigenicity
Reduce the antigenicity
reduce the toxigenicity
Increase antigenicity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increase antigenicity
Q.
Which of the following is true about amoebic liver disease ?
Portal system is the main filtration system
Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Left lobe of liver is commonly involved
Non-suppurative form is the serious form of extra intestinal amoebiasis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Q.
Teichoic acid is present in cell walls of_________________?
Yeast
Gram positive bacteria
Protozoa
Gram negative bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Grave
Type IV
Type III
Type I
Type II
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Madura mycosis produces______________?
Red granules
Brown to black granules
No granules
White to yellow granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: White to yellow granules
Q.
A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?
Bartonella spp
Pasturella spp
Brucella spp
Francisella spp
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Brucella spp
Q.
Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a_______________?
Immunodot
Western Blot
RIPA
ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Western Blot
Q.
Rabies virus________________?
Neurotropic
Chromophilic
Dermatotropic
Cytotropic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neurotropic
Q.
Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is_______________?
IgM
IgA
IgG
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
B.C.G untrue is_____________?
All of the above
Orally administered
live vaccine
T.B vaccine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orally administered
Q.
In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a_______________?
Hapten
Super antigen
Toxin
Carrier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hapten
Q.
Thread worm is______________?
Enterobius
Necator
Ascaris
Ancylostoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterobius
Q.
Endotoxin have all but one of the properties given below_______________?
Cannot be toxoided
Produced by gram positive bacteria
Not secreted outside the cell
Produced by gram negative bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Produced by gram positive bacteria
Q.
The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is___________?
The catalase test
Detection of coagulase
Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes
Mannitol fermentation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Detection of coagulase
Q.
Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus is due to ________________________?
Penicillin analogue production
Pleomorphism
Lack of nucleic acid in the cell wall
Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Q.
Influenza is caused by_____________?
Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Q.
Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is_________________?
2:1
3:1
1:2
1:3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2:1
Q.
On a stained slide, clostridium tetani has the appearance of a__________________?
Drum stick
Safely pin
Bunch of a
Chain of beads
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Drum stick
Q.
Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine ?
Typhoid
Tuberculosis (BCG)
Cholera
Varicella Zoster virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cholera
Q.
which of the following is anaerobic_______________?
Pseudomonas
E.coli
Klebsiella
Bacteroides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacteroides
Q.
Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstratig________________?
Cysts in the sterile pus
Cysts in the intestine
Trophozoites in the feces
Trophozoites in the pus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites in the pus
Q.
The urine sample of a patient has been sent to the laboratory to look for Leptospira. The specimen is to be screened by use of the__________________?
Inverted microscope
Dark ground microscope
Electron microscope
Scanning microscope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dark ground microscope
Q.
Function of Ig A is________________?
Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Activates macrophages
Circulating antibody
Kills virus infected cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Q.
Aflatoxins are produced by________________?
Aspergillus fumigatus
Aspergillus flavus
All of the above
Aspergillus niger
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus flavus
Q.
The chemotactic factor is______________?
C3b
C4a
C5a
C2a
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C5a
Q.
Characters of exotoxin include all, except_______________?
Highly potent
Has specific tissue affinity
Heat labile
Protein polysaccharide complex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein polysaccharide complex
Q.
Leptospirosis, all are true except______________?
It is sensitive to penicillin
Faeces & urine of rodents is the cause
Incubation period is 10 days
Onset of IgM in 2 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Onset of IgM in 2 days
Q.
Which of the following belongs to cell fraction derived vaccine______________?
Measles
Mumps
Hepatitis B
Rubella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B
Q.
The killer cells are associated with immunologic response___________________?
Type I
Type III
Type II
Type IV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
The term epitope refers to________________?
complete antigen molecule
Smallest antigenic determinant
Immunogen
Hapten
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Smallest antigenic determinant
Q.
Drumstick appearance is seen in______________?
All of the above
Cl. tetani
Cl. sphenoids
Cl. tetanomorphum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. tetani
Q.
The commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercie bacilli________________?
Congo red
Acridine orange
Auramine and Rhodamine
Thioglavin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine and Rhodamine
Q.
Common name for Trichuris trichura________________?
Whip worm
Round worm
Tape worm
Seat woman
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Whip worm
Q.
Herpes virus_____________?
None of the above
Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane
Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Q.
The specific test for Treponema pallidum is___________?