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TOP Microbiology MCQS Questions
Q.
Bacterial spores are destroyed by_______________?
Pasteurisation
Boiling at 100
Autoclave
Disinfection by hypochlorite solution
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The interaction of antigens with antibodies on the surface of a mast cel leads to degranulation and anaphylaxis. The mast cell granules produce anaphylaxis because they contain________________?
Vasoactive mediators
Lysosomes
Lymphotoxins
Proteolytic enzymes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vasoactive mediators
Q.
Bacteria with potent exotoxin is_______________?
Klebsiella
Pseudomonas
Shigella
Clostridium tetani
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani
Q.
True about prions________________?
Viruses which are genetically deficient
Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective
Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Q.
The best skin disinfectant is________________?
Alcohol
Savlon
None of the above
Chlorhexdine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chlorhexdine
Q.
Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates_____________?
Late convalescence
Simple carriers
Carrier status
High infectivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: High infectivity
Q.
The facultative anaerobic bacteria are those who are_______________?
Unable to grow in the absence of oxygen
Unable to grow in the presence of oxygen
Able to grow in the presence of carbon dioxide
Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Q.
A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium malaria
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium vivax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Erysipelas is caused by________________?
Pneumococci
Group B staphylococci
Gonococci
Group A steptococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B staphylococci
Q.
True about immune response of hepatitis B is__________________?
Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
Antibody to HBC is not protective
Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
CMI disappears soon after recover
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Q.
Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria______________?
Saborauds agar
Loefflers serum slope
Mc Conkey
Lowenstein Jensen Medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Loefflers serum slope
Q.
A full course of immunization agianst. Telanus with 3 doses to Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how many years ?
20
10
15
5
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 10
Q.
Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?
ELISA followed by western blot technique
Polymers chain reaction
Western blot followed by ELISA
Virus isolation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA followed by western blot technique
Q.
Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-5m in size, multi-septate, chestnut, brown color is characteristic of________________?
Chromoblastomycosis
Rhinosporodiosis
Histoplasmosis
Phaeohypomycosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chromoblastomycosis
Q.
The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell
Haemagglutination test
Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Haemagglutination inhibition test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Q.
An oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod which produces a bluish-green pigment has been grown in culture from a swab obtained from an infected burn wound. This organism is susceptible to gentamicin, ticarcillin and tobramicin, but resistant to all the other antibiotics which of the following organisms is it likely to be ?
Escherichia coli
Klebsiella pnemoniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Proteus miribilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q.
Exaltation is________________?
None
No change
Increased Virulence
Decreased virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increased Virulence
Q.
Which of the following is not true of boiling water_____________?
Can kill vegetative bacterial cells
Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis
It can kill hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Q.
The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is_______________?
IgM
IgG
IgD
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Germ tubes are formed mainly by_______________?
Candida stellatoidea
Candida pseudotropicalls
Candida albicans
Candida tropicalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
The best method of sterilization of dressing powder is_____________?
Inspissation
Hot air oven
Tyndallization
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with______________?
Lysozyme
IgM antibodies
IgA antibodies
Mast cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA antibodies
Q.
Loss of capsule in bacteria is generally associated with______________?
Inability to spread through tissue
Loss of infectivity
Decease in virulence
increase in invasiveness
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Decease in virulence
Q.
Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify______________?
Chlamydiae
Mycoplasma
Rickettsiae
Spirochaetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochaetes
Q.
Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_____________?
Candidiasis
Aspergilosis
Tuberculosis
Cryptococcosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candidiasis
Q.
Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans_________________?
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Hot air oven is used for sterilization of all EXCEPT__________________?
Liquid paraffin
Sharp instrument
Glassware
Rubber tubes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubber tubes
Q.
Which worm is longest________________?
T. Solium
A. Lumbricoides
T. Saginata
Hook worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T. Saginata
Q.
Malignant pustule is referred to_________________?
Facio-cervical actinomycosis
Cutaneous anthrax
Infected squamous cell carcinoma
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cutaneous anthrax
Q.
In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started________________?
Influenza
Rabies
Poliomyelitis
Herpes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabies
Q.
True about VDRL test________________?
All of the above
Best followed for drug therapy
Slide flocculation test
Non
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is_____________?
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis A virus
Hepatitis E virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
Lancefields classification of B hemolytic streptococcus is based on______________?
Polysaccharide C antigen
Physiological properties
M Protein
Type of lipid in cell membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Polysaccharide C antigen
Q.
Virulence of Gonococcus is due to___________________?
Its intracellular location
Cell Membrane
Pili
Cytolytic enzymes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
Which of the following fulfil all the criterias of kich
Mycobacterium leprae
None of the above
N. gonorrhoeae
Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: None of the above
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria grow_______________?
differential media
in the presence of nitrogen
in the absence of oxygen
in the presence of oxygen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in the absence of oxygen
Q.
Which of the following is an acid-fast bacillus_____________?
Mycobacterium bacilli
Neisseria gonorrhea
All of the above
Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium bacilli
Q.
Which of the following is obligate aerobe ?
Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Proteus
diphtheria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Q.
Malaria pigment is________________?
Bilurubin
Haematin-globin pigment
Iron
Haemoglobin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haematin-globin pigment
Q.
The key cell types involved in the acquired immunity include all EXCEPT________________?
B lymphocytes
Antigen presenting cells (APC
T lymphocytes
Erythrocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythrocytes
Q.
Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor_____________?
Pyrogenic exotoxin
Carbohydrate cell wall
Streptolysin 0
M protein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pyrogenic exotoxin
Q.
The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as_____________?
Clone
Paratope
Epitope
Idiotope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epitope
Q.
Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose_______________?
Contact dermatitis
Arthus reaction
Anaphylaxis
Serum sickness
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Immunoglobulin consists of________________?
1 heavy, 2 light chains
2 light, 2 heavy chains
1 light, 1 heavy chain
3 light, 1 heavy chain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2 light, 2 heavy chains
Q.
Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in________________?
Rabbit testis only
Artificial media
Tissue culture
Chick embryos
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabbit testis only
Q.
Which of the following characteristics of bacteria is not true?
Cell wall containing muramic acid
Free living
Unicellular
Having either DNA or RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Having either DNA or RNA
Q.
A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT________________?
Linezolid
Imipenem
Teichoplanin
Vancomycin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Imipenem
Q.
The overall effect of HIV is to gradually impair the immune system by interference with______________?
Macrophages
Helper T lymphocytes
Plasma cells
Natural killer cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes
Q.
Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?
Core antibody
Surface antigen
Core antigen
Surface antibody
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Surface antigen
Q.
Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies_____________?
Small pox
Chicken pox
Rabies
Measles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles
Q.
Prozone phenomenon is due to______________?
Excess antibody
Excess antigen
Hyper immune reaction
Disproportionate antigen antibody levels
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Excess antibody
Q.
Actinomycosis is a_________________?
Anaerobic bacterial disease
Aerobic fungal disease
Aerobic bacterial disease
Anaerobic fungal disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic bacterial disease
Q.
HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except________________?
Needle prick injury
Sexual intercourse
Saliva
Blood transmission
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saliva
Q.
Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_______________?
Simple structure
Complex multiplication
All of the above
Presence of either DNA or RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
False +ve for VDRL is seen in______________?
All of the above
Malaria
Yaws
Lepromatous Leprosy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Most fungi of medical importance belongs to__________________?
Ascomycetes
Basidiomycetes
Deuteromycetes
Zygomycetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deuteromycetes
Q.
Most of the drug resistances occurs due to_____________?
Mutation
Transduction
conjugation
Transformation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: conjugation
Q.
The bacterial cell wall has all of the following properties except______________?
It contains D-isomers of amino acids
It is the structure principally responsible for the reaction of gram staining
It is a unique flexible plastic structure
It consists of a mixed polymer called peptidoglycon
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It is a unique flexible plastic structure
Q.
The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is_____________?
Tuberculosis
Apthous stomatitis
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Herpetic gingivostomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Q.
Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in which of the following viruses_____________?
Hepatitis B virus
Measles virus
Pox virus
HIV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is______________?
Bartonella henselae
Chlamydia trachomatis
Donovania granulomatis
Hemophilia ducreya
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bartonella henselae
Q.
Which of the following is not a feature of anaphylaxis ?
passive transfer by serum
Immediate reaction
None of the above
Delayed reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Delayed reaction
Q.
DNA covering material in a virus is called as________________?
Capsomere
Capsid
Nucleocapsid
Envelope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Capsid
Q.
ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______________?
Less sensitive, more specific
Less sensitive less specific
More sensitive, less specific
More sensitive, more specific
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: More sensitive, less specific
Q.
Who first introduced solid media_______________?
Hensen
Louis pasteur
Ogston
Robert koch
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robert koch
Q.
cAMP reaction is shown by which streptococci ?
Group B
Group A
Group C
Group D
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B
Q.
Widal test is specific for____________?
Plague
Leprosy
Pemhigoid
Typhoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid
Q.
Which of the following is not a koch
When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue
Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the experimental animals
Pure cultures can be obtained
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Q.
All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_________________?
gingivalis
histolytica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: gingivalis
Q.
When horse serum is injected intravenoulsy in to a rabbit and again in to the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs as the site of the second injection________________?
Atopy
Serum sickness
Anaphylaxis
Arthus phenomenon
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus phenomenon
Q.
Fimbriae are demonstrated by ___________________?
Biochemical reaction
Culture
Haemagglutination test
Gram stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haemagglutination test
Q.
The following is not true of Candida albicans______________?
Forms Chlamydospores
Yeast like fungus
Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them
Blastomeres seen in isolates
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blastomeres seen in isolates
Q.
The temperature required for cultivating mycobacterium________________?
0 degree
37 degrees
2 degree
27 degrees
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 37 degrees
Q.
All are true about bordetella pertussis except______________?
Most common cause is B. Petrussis
It may occur in children and young adult after vaccination
Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Bacteria culture from nasopharyngeal swab is the definitive diagnosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Q.
Causative organism of Kalahazar is_______________?
Toxoplasma
Leishman donovani
Entamoeba histolytica
Plasmodium ovaie
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leishman donovani
Q.
Interferon interferes with replication of virus at the time of_____________?
Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule
Protein synthesis
DNA/RNA replication
When virus enters the cell
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein synthesis
Q.
Rideal Walker test is used to determine the efficiency of the_____________?
Moist heat sterilisation
Dry heat sterilization
Antibiotics
Disinfectant
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Disinfectant
Q.
The difference between sterilization and disinfection is that_______________?
Sterilization is easier to achieve
Disinfection kills all spores but sterilization does not
Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Sterilization involves chemicals and disinfection involves physical methods
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Q.
The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is_______________?
Translation
Conjugation
Transformation
Lysogeny
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysogeny
Q.
For uniform staining reaction, morphology and biochemical activity it is advisable to study bacterial cultures during the_____________?
Death phase
Stationary phase
Lag phase
Logarithmic phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Logarithmic phase
Q.
The structure in involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface is_______________?
Capsule
Fimbria
Flagella
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fimbria
Q.
Vibrio cholera was discovered by_________________?
Koch
Medintoff
Virchow
John snow
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Koch
Q.
Noguchi
Bordetella
Borrelia
Brucella
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia
Q.
Donovanosis, true is___________________?
Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic
Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Characterized by painful genital ulcers
Penicillin is drug of choice
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Q.
Which of the following statement about P24 antigen of HIV is Not True ?
Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:
Virus load parallel P24 titre
It can be detected during the window period
It remains during asymptomatic phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It remains during asymptomatic phase
Q.
A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?
Allograft
Isograft
Xenograft
Autograft
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Isograft
Q.
In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_______________?
Sporozoite
Merozoite
Gametocyte
Hypnozoite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sporozoite
Q.
Virus infected cell is killed by________________?
Autolysis
Neutrophils
Interferons
Macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Interferons
Q.
In small intestine, cholera toxin acts by______________?
Activation of GTPase
Active absorption of NaCI
ADP
Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ADP
Q.
Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by_____________?
Nisseria
Haemolytic streptococci
Streptococcus viridans
Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus viridans
Q.
Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by______________?
Hot air oven
Autoclaving
UV-Radiation
Inspissation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Candida is most often implicated in causation___________________?
Thrush
Conjunctivitis
Tenea capitis
Desert rheumatism
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thrush
Q.
Diphtheria is pathogenic only when infected with______________?
Delta Phage
Lambda K12
Alfa phage
Beta phage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Beta phage
Q.
The antigen used in Weil Felix test is obtained from________________?
Proteus
coli
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to______________?
B
CD8 T-cells
CD4 T-cells
NK
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4 T-cells
Q.
Actinomycosis is caused by______________?
Fungus
Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Acid fast, non-motile bacillus
Retrovirus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Q.
The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route________________?
Hepatitis D virus
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis E virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______________?
ELISA IS
PCR is
Both are
Western Blot is
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both are
Q.
Lepromin test is useful for________________?
Epidemiology
Treatment plan
Diagnosis
Prognosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prognosis
Q.
Staphylococci typically occur in_________________?
Tetrads
Pairs
Chains
Irregular clusters
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Irregular clusters
Q.
The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the________________?
VL domian
CH2 domian
CL domian
CH1 domian
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CH2 domian
Q.
Multiple drug resistance of bacteria depends on which of the following_______________?
Colicigenic factor (Col)
All of the above
Fertility factor (F+)
Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Q.
Immunity that is conferred to the foetus by transfer of IgG and IgA antibodies is called as______________?
Active acquired immunity
Natural active immunity
Passive natural immunity
Passive acquired immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Passive natural immunity
Q.
Viron is defined as______________?
Smallest virus
A smallest particle similar to virus
Extracellular infectious virus particle
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Extracellular infectious virus particle
Q.
Cough plate method is used to identify________________?
M-Tuberculosis
Mycoplasma
Pertussis
Y. pestis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pertussis
Q.
Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functional of the cell______________?
membrane
Capsule
nucleus
wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: membrane
Q.
A dentist suffred from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is_____________?
Convalscent carrier
Inactive carrier
Healthy carrier
Paradoxical carrier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Convalscent carrier
Q.
Sunlight acts as sterilizing agent because_________________?
Long wavelength
Heat
short wave lenght
Ozone
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: short wave lenght
Q.
Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in______________?
4 weeks
9 weeks
12 weeks
2 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4 weeks
Q.
What is the sequence which a retro virus follows on entering a host cell ?
RNA -DNA-RNA
RNA-DNA
DNA-RNA-DNA
DNA-RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: RNA -DNA-RNA
Q.
Nagglers reaction detects________________?
Lecithinase
Coagulase
None of the above
Hyaluronidase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Man is the only reservoir for_______________?
histolytica
Y. enterocolitica
Camphylobacter jejuni
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: histolytica
Q.
Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_________________?
Desmolase
Cytokinin
Lecithinase
Theta toxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except___________________?
through conjugation
Incorporating part of host DNA
Though plasmids
Through bacteriophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is__________________?
Immune blood transfusion
Hepatitis vaccination
Placental transfer of antibodies
Gamma globulin injection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Placental transfer of antibodies
Q.
All are true about legionella pneumophilia except______________?
It can replicate in amoeba
Person to person transmission
Aquatic bodies are main habitat
Urine test is a reliable method
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Person to person transmission
Q.
Smith noguchi
Bacillus
Spirochetes
Salmonella
Klebsiella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
Tyndallisation is carried out for________________?
Two successive days
60 minutes
One day
Three successive days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Three successive days
Q.
Prions true is____________?
Sensitive to most chemical sterilization
Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Evokes strong immunogenic reaction
Contains DNA/ RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Q.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which of the following________________?
B-cells
Plasma cells
Active T cells
NK cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active T cells
Q.
All are oncogenic except________________?
Anopheles
Mansoni
Aedes
Culex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aedes
Q.
Which of the following viruses appears to be involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi
Human Herpes Virus 3
Human Herpes Virus 1
Human Herpes Virus 4
Human Herpes Virus 8
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Human Herpes Virus 4
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Vincent
Caused due to malnutrition
Ulcerative gingivostomatitis
Caused by leptospira interrogans
A symbiotic infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by leptospira interrogans
Q.
Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores can be achieved with_______________?
KOH wet mount
Grocott Gomori Methenamine silver
Hematoxylin and Eosin
Peri-iodic Acid Schiff
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: KOH wet mount
Q.
The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum ?
IgG4
IgG3
IgG2
IgG1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG1
Q.
Cytopathic effect is shown by_____________?
Bacteria
Virus
Spirochete
Anaerobe
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
Methods for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infection________________?
Wood light examination
KOH staining
All of the above
Microscopic examination of skin scrapings
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Culture medium used for Bordatella pertussis is_________________?
Bordet Gengou medium
Wilson Blair medium
Bile broth
Robertson cooked meat medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bordet Gengou medium
Q.
Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_____________________?
only after one year
antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis
in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
no antibodies are present in primary HSV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
Q.
Graft versus host reaction is caused by_________________?
Leukocytes
Monocytes
T-lymphocytes
B-Lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T-lymphocytes
Q.
Black pigmented anaerobes include all of the following except______________?
Buccae
Tannerella
Prevotella
Porphyromonas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Buccae
Q.
A protoplast is best characterized as a bacterial cell______________?
Free of a cell wall and a capsule
containing a cell wall and a capsule
with a cell wall but free of a capsule
Uniquely sensitive to penicillin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Q.
Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes______________?
Memory B cells
NK Cells
Cytotoxic T cells
B cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NK Cells
Q.
Grape bunch shaped colonies are seen in______________?
Gonococci
Staphylococcus
E.coli
Streptococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staphylococcus
Q.
The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is_______________?
Adeno
EB virus
Hepatitis
Parvo virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parvo virus
Q.
Most antibodies are produced in the________________?
Thymus and the appendix
Brain and the meninges
Spleen and the lymph nodes
Heart and the liver
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spleen and the lymph nodes
Q.
Post streptococcal acute glomerulo nephritis is an example of________________?
Type I hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type III hypersensitivity
Q.
Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups ?
Hepadana viruses
Picorna viruses
Flavi viruses
Herpes viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi viruses
Q.
Phase contrast microscopy is based on principle of__________________?
Different refractive indices of object
Different reflective indices of object
Light scattering
Light attenuation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Different refractive indices of object
Q.
The medium of choice for culturing yeast from of dimorphic fungi is_________________?
Sabouraud
Sabouraud
Brain
Any medium incubated at 35-37
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
The diagnosis of gonorrhea is established by_____________?
Haemagglutination tests
Compliment fixation tests
All of the above tests
Pili agglutination tests
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above tests
Q.
Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to______________?
Ascaris
Hook worm
Thread worm
Guinea worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hook worm
Q.
Candida albicans causes all of the following except______________?
Meningitis
Endocarditis
Mycetoma
Oral thrush
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycetoma
Q.
CD4 count in normal healthy adult is_______________?
200
500
1000
300
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1000
Q.
A darkfield microscope would be useful in examining blood for_______________?
Actinomyces
Streptococcus
Mycobacterium
Treponema
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema
Q.
Immunoglobulins ar secreted by______________?
Plasma cells
T-cells
Neutrophils
Macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasma cells
Q.
Haptane is_______________?
High molecular protein
None of the above
Same as epitopes
Carrier required for specific antibody production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Carrier required for specific antibody production
Q.
Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by______________?
Isolation from bile
Culture from blood
IgM antibodies in serum
Isolation form stool
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM antibodies in serum
Q.
VDRL is a________________?
Slide flocculation test
Tube agglutination test
Tube flocculation test
Latex agglutination test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Slide flocculation test
Q.
One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is____________?
Permutation
Viral interference
Mutation
Supervision
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Viral interference
Q.
The difference between gram positive and negative bacteria lies in their_______________?
Nuclear material
Mesosomes
cell wall
cell membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cell wall
Q.
The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are______________?
Virus infections
Gram negative organisms
Mycoplasma
Gram positive organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram negative organisms
Q.
Endotoxins differ from exotoxins in that endotoxins______________?
are highly antigenic
are heat labile
are proteins
activate complement by the alternate pathway
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: activate complement by the alternate pathway
Q.
The Dane particle is the______________?
Delta Virus
IgG anti HAV
HBC Ag
HBV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBV
Q.
Tuberculin test screens for_____________?
Hemoral immunity
Cell mediated immunity
Phagocyte dysfunction
Complement function
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell mediated immunity
Q.
Endoscopes are sterilized by using_______________?
Boiling
Autoclaving
Gamma radiation
Cidex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Boiling
Q.
One of the following statement about statements about sterilization is not true_______________?
Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Flash pasteurization of milk ? 72
Liquid paraffin ? Dry heat
Glass syringes ? Boiling at 169
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Q.
Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?
Proteins
Adjuvant
Lipids
Polysaccharides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteins
Q.
IgG antibodies have a half-life of approximately_______________?
1 day
1 hour
1 week
1 Month
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 Month
Q.
Exotoxins are____________________?
None
Protein compound
Lipoprotein
Lipid-polysaccharide complex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein compound
Q.
Following is a retrovirus_____________?
Polio virus
Immunodeficiency virus
Influenza
Hepatitis virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immunodeficiency virus
Q.
The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement_________________?
IgA
IgE
IgM
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
The reaginic antibody is________________?
IgG
IgD
IgE
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Kaposi
Below 200
Between 1000-2000
Above 600
Above 2000
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Below 200
Q.
All are not true for cultivation of anaerobic organisms except_______________?
Refrigerator
Centrifuge
anaerobic jar
Incubator
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: anaerobic jar
Q.
Each of the following can cause food poisoning except________________?
Staphylococcus
Cl. welchii
Cl. difficile
Cl. botulinum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. difficile
Q.
Which of the following does not go into chronic hepatitis stage ?
HDV
HEV
HBV
HCV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HEV
Q.
Physical sterilization was discovered by__________________?
Robert Koch
Joeph Lister
Alexander flemings
John Hunter
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Joeph Lister
Q.
Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito______________?
Zygote
Merozoite
Sporozoite
Gametocyte
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gametocyte
Q.
Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with_______________?
Kin Young stain
Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Giemsa stain
Ziel Nelson
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Q.
Which of the following are correctly matched ?
All of the above
Injection of antibodies (Hepatitis) is artificially acquired passive immunity
Transfer of antibody from mother to child is through colostrum and acquired passive immunity naturally
Antigenic stimulus given by vaccine (polio) is artificial active immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which is type II hypersensitivity ?
Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Immune complex mediated
Anaphylaxis
Delayed hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Q.
By using phase contrast microscope_______________?
External capsule formation can be observed
Internal structures are differentiated in dead cells
Internal metabolic activities can be observed
Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Q.
One of the following is a treponemal test for diagnosis of syphilis_____________?
FTAB
Widal test
Wasserman test
Kahn test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: FTAB
Q.
Which of the following have the capability to produce extra cellular polysaccharides______________?
Strep. Mutans
Peptostreptococcus
Strep. pyogenes
Enterococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strep. Mutans
Q.
Opportunistic infection is caused by___________________?
Penicillium
All of the above
Aspergillus
Mucor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The minimum time required for the sterilization of surgical instruments by moist heat at 134
30 minutes
60 minutes
15 minutes
3 minutes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3 minutes
Q.
Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti_________________?
Terminal nuclei absent
Body is slender and long
Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Causes filariasis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Q.
Granules in the corynebacterium diphtheria are called by following names, except______________?
Metachromatic granules
Refractile granules
Voluntin granules
Babes Ernst granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile granules
Q.
Neurotoxin of tetanus acts on______________?
Muscle
Synapse
Spinal card
Brain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spinal card
Q.
Sporulation occurs in__________________?
Log phase
Decline phase
Lag phase
Stationary phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
True about HIV are all except______________?
DNA virus
Macrophages are the reservoir
Attacks CD4 cells
Decrease CD4 count in late stages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: DNA virus
Q.
IgG has subclasses_______________?
1
4
2
3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4
Q.
Anti HBsAB indicates______________?
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Good prognosis
Resistance to hepatitis B
Acute infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Good prognosis
Q.
Causative agents of Vincent
Borrelia recurrents and bateroides
Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Leptospira and Treponema pallidum
Borrelia burgoloferi and lactobacillus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Q.
Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______________?
Serum sickness
Contact dermatitis
Transfusion reaction
Atopic allergy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is________________?
Indirect hemagglutination
ELISA
Counter immune electroporesis
Microscopy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA
Q.
Test for differentiating virulent form non-virulent tubercular bacilli_____________?
Neutral red test
Catalase peroxidase test
Aryl sulphatase test
Niacin test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neutral red test
Q.
Rickettsiae__________________?
Transmitted by arthropod vectors
Respond to tetracycline therapy
Multiply within living cell
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Virus is cultured in_______________?
Saubourd
Embryonated egg
Rogosa medium
Nonembryonated egg
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Embryonated egg
Q.
Disinfection frees the surface from______________?
Spore forms
Both of the above
None of the above
Vegetative forms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vegetative forms
Q.
Human immunoglobulins are divided based on_____________?
Functional differences
Complemented fixation
None of the above
Structural differences
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Structural differences
Q.
Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to__________________?
Invasion
Endotoxin
Capsule
Exotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Exotoxin
Q.
Chemotactic cytokine is_________________?
IL-1
IL-8
TNF
IL-6
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IL-8
Q.
The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in vivo from one bacterium to another by_____________?
Conjugation
Transduction
Rarefaction
Transformation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
The culture media for fungus is__________________?
Chocolate agar medium
Sabourauds medium
NNN medium
Tellurite medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabourauds medium
Q.
Immunoglobin, Which is produced first by the fetus in response to infection_______________?
IgM
IgG
IgD
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Which of the following is an enrichment medium________________?
Mac Conkey agar
Selenite F Broth
Blood agar
Nutrient Broth
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Selenite F Broth
Q.
What is the transport medium for cholera___________________?
Venkatraman
Cary Blair Medium
Tellurite Medium
B & C
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: B & C
Q.
A type of immediately occuring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called_____________?
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type I hypersensitivity
Q.
Same or closely related antigens present in different biological species are known as________________?
Suquestrated antigens
Isoantigens
Heterophile antigens
Haptens
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Heterophile antigens
Q.
One of the following is an agglutination test in the diagnosis of typhoid___________?
Eleks test
Wasserman test
Widal test
Mantoux test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
Sterilization is a process in which_________________?
Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Kill all non-pathogenic micro-organisms in the environment
Kill all pathogenic micro-organisms
Deactivate all pathogens not spores
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Q.
Human immune deficiency virus is ________________ virus?
Rheo
Retro
Flavi
Rhabdo
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Retro
Q.
A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned in to an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis______________?
Trichrome Methylene blue
Calcoflour White
Carbol Fuschin
Acid Fast Stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trichrome Methylene blue
Q.
Half-life of free HIV in plasma is________________?
12 hours
3 months
24 hours
6 hours
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 6 hours
Q.
Among The infectious diseases transmitted by food, one is___________________?
Tuberculosis
Typhoid fever
Diptheria
Viral stomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid fever
Q.
Moist heat kills all of the following EXCEPT_______________?
Coxiella burnetti
Brucella
Salmonella
Mycobacterium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coxiella burnetti
Q.
The Ig found in exocrine secretions is_____________?
IgG
IgM
IgD
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Operation theatres are sterilized by_____________?
Formaldehyde fumigation
Washing with soap and water
Carbolic acid spraying
ETO gas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Formaldehyde fumigation
Q.
Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci________________?
Staphylococcus
Aerococcus
Sarcina
Micrococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sarcina
Q.
About Bacteroids True are all Except_______________?
Present mainly in mixed infections
Most common species is B fragilis
Susceptible to many antibiotics
Bile resistant anerobes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Susceptible to many antibiotics
Q.
Encapsulation in bacteria helps in__________________?
Prevent their phagocytosis
Oxygen effect
Decreased virulence
Spore formation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prevent their phagocytosis
Q.
In initial stages of tyhoid, salmonella can be detected in________________?
Feacus
All of the above
Urine
Blood
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood
Q.
All of the following are true of streptococcus except_____________?
Shows adherence to dental enamel
It
Most common in humans
Most common is animals
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It
Q.
Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phase of the bacterial growth curve______________?
Decline
Exponential growth
Stationary phase
Lag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
Viruses can be cultured in all except_______________?
Cell culture
Blood agar
Chick embryo
Guinea pigs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood agar
Q.
Kolmer test is a screening test done for_________________?
Lymphoma
Syphilis
Tuberculosis
Gonorrhea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Function of T-lymphocyte is/are________________?
Production of interferon
Lymphokine production
All of the above
Rosette formation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The following are applicable to bacterial genoms except________________?
It is circular
It is composed of DNA
Its DNA has both introns and extrons
It doe not contain histones
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Q.
EBV causes all except_________________?
Carcinoma of nasopharynx
Infectious mononucleosis
Papilloma
Burkitt
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma
Q.
Which of the following is not used as disinfectant________________?
5% chloroxylene
100% alcohol
2% Lysol
1-2% cetrimide
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 100% alcohol
Q.
Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by_______________?
M. smegmatis
M. ulcerans
M. Kansasii
M. chelonae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. chelonae
Q.
All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except____________?
HIV
Hepatitis E
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Which of the following correctly indicates the infectivity of hepatitis virus in human ?
HBCAg
Anti-HBS
Anti-HBC
HBeAg
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBeAg
Q.
In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except__________________?
Malabsorption
Bone marrow depression
Hemolysis
Spleen sequestration
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Malabsorption
Q.
Which of the following is not a pox virus ?
Small pox
Cowpox
chicken pox
Molluscum contagiosum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: chicken pox
Q.
A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is______________?
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Pyte-ferraco stain
India ink preparation
Methanamine silver stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
Staphylococcal food poisoning includes the following features_______________?
Heat labile enterotoxin
Incubation period of 24 hours
Requires immediate antibiotics
Common with dairy products
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Common with dairy products
Q.
Causative organism for gas gangrene_______________?
Clostridium welchii
Strep. Faecalis
Coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Streptococcus is classified based on__________________?
Bile Solubility
M Protein
Cell wall carbohydrate
Cultural characteristics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall carbohydrate
Q.
compared with autoclave, use of a dry heat over for sterilization has the following disadvantages______________?
Less effective
Causes sharp instruments to dull
Time-consuming
Causes instruments to rust
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Time-consuming
Q.
Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces?
Pili
Flagella
Mesosomes
Capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except_____________?
Legionella pneumophila
Salmonella typhi
Neisseria meningitides
Streptococcus pyogenes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus pyogenes
Q.
The best sterilization method for a hand-piece is________________?
dry heat
Ethylene oxide gas
All of the above
chemical vapour
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ethylene oxide gas
Q.
Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is____________?
Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Histidine rich proteins
Sialoperoxidase
Secretory IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Q.
Sleeping sickness is caused by_______________?
Reduvid bug
House fly
Tick
Sand fly
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reduvid bug
Q.
The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_____________?
Pilomatrixoma
Alopecia areata
Kerison
Tenia incognito
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kerison
Q.
Steam under pressure in used in ________ sterilization?
Autoclave
Pasteurization
Kochs sterilizer
hot air oven
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The small nonparticulate protein leading to enhanced replication of HBV as well as HIV is______________?
Hbe Ag
HBs Ag
HBx Ag
HBc Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBx Ag
Q.
T cells multiplication is stimulated by_______________?
Phytohaemagglutinin
Heat
Bovine serum
Macrolin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Phytohaemagglutinin
Q.
Bacteria reproduce mainly by______________?
Budding
Sporing
Binary fission
Bacterial components produced by host cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Binary fission
Q.
The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine doses not play a major role is______________?
Asthma
Anaphylaxis
Arthus reaction
Urticaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus reaction
Q.
Robertsons cooked meat medium is best suited for cultivation of_______________?
S. epidermidis
Mycobacterium
Choleria
Clostridia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridia
Q.
A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates________________?
Carrier state
Prodromal phase
Acute infection
Convalescence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acute infection
Q.
Which of the following organisms does NOT react with gram
Candida albicans
Streptococcus mutan
Actinomyces israelii
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q.
Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins ?
IgG
IgM
IgA
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Disinfection of the rooms can be done by using_______________?
Chlorine gas
High efficiency particle arrestors
20% phenol
40% formaldehyde vapour
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 40% formaldehyde vapour
Q.
Negative staining is used to demonstrate________________?
Bacterial capsule
Bacterial Flagella
Bacterial spore
Bacterial fimbriae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacterial fimbriae
Q.
Which is not true about vibrio cholera_________________?
Grows on simple media
Cannot survive in extracellular environment
It is non-halophilic
Man is the only natural host
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Q.
Group A carbohydrate of Str. pyogenes cross reacts with human_________________?
Vascular intima
Myocardium
Synovial fluid
Cardiac valves
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiac valves
Q.
Pneumococus can be differentiated from streptococcus by________________?
Growth characteristics
Bile solubility
Type of hemolysis
Gram staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bile solubility
Q.
Phage conversion is required for________________?
Gonorrhoea
All o f the above
Tularemia
Diptheria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Diptheria
Q.
parasitic inflammation would show predominantly____________________?
Lymphocytes
Basophils
Neutrophilis
Eosinophils
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Eosinophils
Q.
Pseudohphae are seen in____________?
Osporium
Aspergillus
Alternaria
Candida albicans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?
Epidemic typhus
Trench fever
Relapsing fever
Q fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Q fever
Q.
The causative organism of syphilis is___________?
Chalamydia trachomatis
Borrelia burgolorferi
Leptospira interrogans
Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema pallidum
Q.
Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except______________?
Ascaris lumbriocoides
Entamoeba
Giardia lambia
Strongyloides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strongyloides
Q.
Toxoids are_________________?
antigenic and non-toxic
non-antigenic and non-toxic
non-antigenic and toxic
antigenic and toxic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: antigenic and non-toxic
Q.
Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000_________________?
H chain
Secretory piece
J piece
L chain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: H chain
Q.
IL-1 is produced by_________________?
Helper B cells
Helper T cells
Monocytes
Macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Macrophages
Q.
In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by_____________?
Blood culture
Widal test
Stool culture
Urine culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except__________________?
All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Found exclusively in human beings.
Most common cause of urethritis is male
Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Q.
Pigs are important source of_____________?
Kuru
Yellow fever
Rabies
Japanese encephalitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Japanese encephalitis
Q.
A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains and haemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism ?
Optochin sensitivity
Bile solubility
Cataslase positive
Bacitracin sensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacitracin sensitivity
Q.
Organ of locomotion in bacteria is________________?
Cell wall
Fimbria
Flagella
Capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flagella
Q.
All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except______________?
Colony morphology on saliva agar
Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital
Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide
Gram staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram staining
Q.
Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in______________?
Tapeworm
Ascariasis
Ascariasis and tapeworm
Hood worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ascariasis
Q.
Bacteria with tuft of flagella at one end are called_______________?
Bipolar
Peritrichate
Lophotrichate
Monotrichate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lophotrichate
Q.
Certain viruses have been isolated in crytalline form and have been found to be_____________?
Nucleotides
Scleroproteins
Nucleoproteins
Phospholipids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleoproteins
Q.
Fungal infection of human beings is called as_____________?
Mycosis
Fungosis
Micromia
Mucorsis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycosis
Q.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa_________________?
Causes Shangai fever
Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.
Does not produce any pigment
Produces heat stable enterotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Causes Shangai fever
Q.
The world german measles is applied for_____________?
Herpetic ginglvostomatitis
Rubella
Herpes simplex
Rubeola
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Which of the following provides best gurantee for sterlization in the heat sterilizer ?
Using chemical indicator strip or pouch
Recording a temperature/ pressure readings from sterilizer guage
Using a bacterial spore test
Determining the ability of a sterilizer to kill the hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Using a bacterial spore test
Q.
Active artificial immunization is induced by the administration of all of the following EXCEPT______________?
Antitoxins
Bacterial products
Toxoids
Vaccines
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antitoxins
Q.
Plaque test is used routinely in virology lab
Identification of viral disease
To prepare vaccines
To separate specific clone of virus
To maintain certain viral culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Identification of viral disease
Q.
The commonest method of detection of diptheria carriers is_______________?
Dick test
Casoni
Schick test
Charles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Schick test
Q.
Most common tumor associated with AIDS is______________?
Ewing
Carcinoma
Melanoma
Kaposi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kaposi
Q.
Which of the following is a RNA virus ?
Adeno virus
Measles virus
Papavo virus
Herpes Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
A 6 year old boy comes with abdominal pain, vomiting after consuming mild products within 6 hours. The most likely organism responsible is______________?
B.Cereus
Salmonella
Staph. aureus
Clostridium botulinum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staph. aureus
Q.
The medium of choice for growing most fungi is_______________?
Thioglycollate medium
Tissue culture
Blood agar
Sabouraud
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
Hydatid cyst is__________________?
Fungal
Parasitic in nature
Viral
Congenital
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parasitic in nature
Q.
Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called______________?
Opsonisation
Chemotaxis
De coding
CFT
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Opsonisation
Q.
The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is___________________?
2%
10%
15%
5%
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2%
Q.
Selective media for MYCOBACTERIUM _____________?
Lowenstein Jensen medium
Agar
Sabourauds medium
Loefflers serum slope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lowenstein Jensen medium
Q.
A sporangium contains_______________?
Chlamydospores
porangiospores
Spherules
Oidia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: porangiospores
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria can be cultured in__________________?
Robertson cooked meat medium
Loefflers medium
L-J medium
Sabourauds agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robertson cooked meat medium
Q.
All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except________________?
Trophozoites colonise in the colon
Cysts are 4 nucleated
The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides
Cysts are 8 nucleated
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cysts are 8 nucleated
Q.
Gram -ve bacteria stain during gram staining____________?
Green
Blue color
Red color
Colorless
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Red color
Q.
The optimal time and temperature required for sterilization in an autoclave is___________________?
121
140
121
121
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 121
Q.
Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus ?
Keratoacanthoma
Verruca vulgaris
Focal epithelial hyperplasia
Condyloma acuminatum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Keratoacanthoma
Q.
IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by______________?
Platelet
Lymphocytes
Plasma cells
Activated macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Activated macrophages
Q.
The major intestinal pathogens which are non-lactose fermenters are_________________?
Salmonella
Paracolons
Escherichia
Klebsiella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salmonella
Q.
Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by________________?
ELISA
Culture
DNA probe
Direct microscopy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Culture
Q.
Which component of the cell wall is responsible________________?
Region I
Boivin antigen
Region II
Region III
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Region III
Q.
In patients with asthma due to an allergic cause the serum levels of which immunoglobulin increase____________________?
IgE
IgM
IgA
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Which regards to temperature requirement, most pathogenic bacteria are_____________?
Thermophiles
Psychrophiles
Cryophiles
Mesophiles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mesophiles
Q.
Negative phase is seen in ________ immunity?
Passive
Active
Local
Herd
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active
Q.
Bacterial cell does not possess___________________?
Mitochondria
dna
Ribosome
Cell wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mitochondria
Q.
Australian antigen is_______________?
None of the above
HBs AG
HBV
HB Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBs AG
Q.
Which does not have a viral etiology______________?
Hepatoma
Lymphoma
Carcinoma Cervix
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Endotoxins are produced by________________?
Gram +ve bacteria
Fungi
Virus
Gram -ve bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram -ve bacteria
Q.
EBV is responsible for all except______________?
Burkitt
Hepatoma
Infectious mononucleosis
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Complement factor through which common pathway begins___________________?
Protein B
C5
C3
C2
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C3
Q.
Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is___________________?
Liver
Spleen
Brain
Lungs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Liver
Q.
The time gap between appearance of Koplik
10 days
2 weeks
24 Hrs
3-4 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3-4 days
Q.
CD4 cells recognize the antigens in association with_____________?
MHC III
MHC I
MHC II
B-cell receptor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: MHC II
Q.
Each of the following viruses possesses an outer lipoprotein envelope except_____________?
Papilloma Virus
Influenza Virus
Varicella Zoster Virus
Human immunodeficiency virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma Virus
Q.
Mark true in following ?
Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
None of the above
Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Q.
First released immunoglobulin after primary immunization_______________?
IgE
IgG
IgM
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is_________________?
Streptococcus fecalis
T-strain mycoplasma
Escherichia coli
Neisseria gonorrhea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Escherichia coli
Q.
Black water fever is caused by______________?
Plasmodium vivax
Leishmania donovani
Plasmodium falciparum
Microfilaria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______________?
Comma
Sickle
Banana
Dot
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sickle
Q.
Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____________?
1 week
6 months
6 week
3 months
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 week
Q.
About Psedomonas. All are true except________________?
Most common organism is burn patient
Strick aerobes
Can grow in disinfectants in hospital
Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except_______________?
Through plasmids
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through conjugation
Through bacteriophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____________?
Type 6,12,18
16,18,31
3,10,19
6,8,11
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 16,18,31
Q.
Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except_______________?
Embryonated eggs
Chemically defined media
Tissue culture
Animals
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chemically defined media
Q.
Type of receptor present on T-cells are__________________?
CD4
Ig A
Prostaglandins
Ig G
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4
Q.
All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_____________?
Chromatid bars
Refractile nucleus
Eccentric nucleus
Glycogen mass
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile nucleus
Q.
Leprosy bacilli can be grown in_________________?
Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Testes of guinea pig
Testes of albino rats
Tail of guinea pig
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Q.
Group A B-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the pharynx may be followed in some by_____________?
Diphtheria
Rheumatic fever
Syphilis
Typhoid fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatic fever
Q.
Secretory Ig is_______________?
IgD
IgA
IgM
IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Which of the following viruses does not infect salivary glands ?
Echo virus
Hepatitis C
Orthomyxovirus
HIV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxovirus
Q.
Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following________________?
All of the above
Salk vaccine
Tetanus toxoid
Sabin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salk vaccine
Q.
True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by_______________?
cats
Rats
Dogs
Cow
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cats
Q.
Candidal hyphae can be stained using_______________?
Masson Trichrome stain
Periodic acid schiff stain
Toluidine blue stain
Van Gieson
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Periodic acid schiff stain
Q.
The prototype of Type II hypersensitivity reaction is__________________?
SLE
Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Arthus reaction
Contact dermatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Q.
The earliest identifiable cells of T-Cell lineage during maturation are_______________?
CD8+ Pro-T-Cells
CD5+ Pre-T-Cells
CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
CD8+ Pre-T-Cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
Q.
Dengue virus belongs to______________?
Togaviridae
Rhabdoviridae
Flavi virus
Reoviridae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi virus
Q.
T cell matures in______________?
Lymph node
Busra of Fabricius
Payers patch
Thymus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thymus
Q.
The presence of Which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility ?
Lipids
Enzymes
Polysaccharide
Protein coat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein coat
Q.
Wasserman test test is diagnostic of__________________?
Gonorrhea
TB
Tyhoid
Syphilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Glasswares are sterilised by______________?
Formaldehyde
Autoclaving
Incineration
Hot air oven
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by which of the following_____________?
All of the above
Boiling
Cidex
Ethanol
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affets_______________?
Fibroblasts
Mast cells
Red blood cells
Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Q.
Which of the following enzyme is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot pathogenic staphylococci_____________?
S protein
Lysozyme
Coagulase
Fibrinolysin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coagulase
Q.
Secondary response is mediated by_______________?
IgA
IgE
IgM
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Bacterial species which is protective or beneficial to the host is_______________?
Streptococcus sanguis
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Treponema denticola
Spirochetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus sanguis
Q.
Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve________________?
Jejunum and Ileum
Stomach
Duodenum
Caecum and large intestine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caecum and large intestine
Q.
A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents________________?
Auto
ISO
Allo
Xeno
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Allo
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical mycobacteria by______________?
Pas staining
None of the above
Niacin test
AFB staining
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Niacin test
Q.
The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by____________?
Transduction
Cell fusion
Translation
Conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
Sterilisation control for moist heat is
Using methylene blue
Using chemical indicator
using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Using non-pathogenic strain of clostridium tetani
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Q.
Complement binding immunoglobin via the classical pathway is_______________?
IgG & IgA
IgG & IgD
IgG & igM
IgD & IgE
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG & igM
Q.
Commonest mycobacterial infection in tropical countries_______________?
M. tuberculosis
Kansasi
M. avium intracellulare
M. leprae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. tuberculosis
Q.
Sterilisation is______________?
Only pathogenic micro-organisms killed
Non-pathogenic killed
All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Pathogens killed but spores are not affected
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Q.
Killer and Helper cells are part of_______________?
Macrophage
B cells
Monocytes
T cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T cells
Q.
Bacteriophage was discovered by_________________?
Twort and d
Menkin
Robert koch
Metchinkoff
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Twort and d
Q.
Growth factor needed for Salmonella_________________?
Niacin
Tryptophan
B-12
Citrate
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Tryptophan
Q.
Louis Pasteur is not associated with_______________?
Introduction of complex media
Disproved spontaneous regression theory
Discovery of Rabies Vaccine
Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Q.
Synthesis of antibodies in plasma cells occurs in_________________?
Golgi body
Endoplasmic reticulum
Nucleus
Mitochondria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.
Leishmania is cultured in ________________ media?
Chocolate agar
Tellurite
NNN
Sabourauds
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NNN
Q.
Purpose of Sterilization is to eliminate________________?
Bacteria
Viruses
Spore formers
Fungus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spore formers
Q.
The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to_____________?
Dehydrate microbial cells
Kill mircobes
Inhibit microbial growth
Remove microbes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Remove microbes
Q.
The only virus, which has double stranded RNA, is______________?
Reo virus
Bunya virus
Calci virus
Rhabdo virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reo virus
Q.
Culture media of candida is_________________?
Pingolevin
Methylene blue dextrose agar
Saboraud
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saboraud
Q.
L.D bodies are seen in_______________?
Malaria
Toxoplasmosis
Kalahazar
Sleeping sickness
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kalahazar
Q.
Schuffner
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium malariae
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium vivax
Q.
Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus infection during window period ?
HBs Ag
None of the above
IgM anti
Anti HBs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM anti
Q.
Delhi boil refer to_______________?
L. Tropica sore
Solar Keratosis
Malignant pustule
Venereal ulcer
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: L. Tropica sore
Q.
Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except________________?
50% chances to have AIDS
All are true
Have infections
Failure to thrive
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 50% chances to have AIDS
Q.
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to_______________?
Monocytes
T lymphocytes
Histiocytes
B lymphocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T lymphocytes
Q.
The cell wall deficient bacteria_______________?
Rickettsiae
Ehrlichiae
Chlamydiae
Mycoplasma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycoplasma
Q.
Pasteur developed the vaccine for_______________?
All of the above
Cholera
Anthrax
Rabies
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Borrelia vincenti is always associated with______________?
Fusiform bacilli
None of the above
Treponema vincenti
Spirochaetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fusiform bacilli
Q.
The Manufacturing unit of surgical needle & sutures are sterilized by ________________?
Boiling
Autoclaving
Gamma-Rays
X-Rays
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma-Rays
Q.
Glutaraldehyde is preferred more than formaldehyde because______________?
It has got more bacteriostatic activity
It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
It has got more bactericidal activity
Its application is easier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Q.
The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is_____________?
Chocolate agar
Robertoson
Sabourad
Chorio allantoic membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chorio allantoic membrane
Q.
Rh incompatibility is which type of hyper sensitivity reaction ?
Type I
Type II
Type IV
Type III
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Silver impregnation method of staining is useful to demonstrate_____________?
Spirochetes
None of the above
Both of the above
Bacterial flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both of the above
Q.
Which of the following would you consider to be general properties of viruses______________?
Contain DNA but no RNA
Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids
Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Q.
Dematophytes are fungi infecting________________?
Systemic organs
Superficial skin and deep tissue
Subcutaneous tissue
Nails, hair and skin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nails, hair and skin
Q.
Chlamydia causes all of the following except________________?
Non-gonococcal urethritis
Pneumonia
Parotitis
Trachoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parotitis
Q.
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (SSS syndrome) is due to______________?
Enterotoxin A
Enterotoxin B
Enterotoxin F
Enterotoxin D
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterotoxin F
Q.
Leprosy bacilli are transmitted from person to person by all except______________?
Dischange from nasal mucosa
From open sore
Through breast milk
Through intact skin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Through breast milk
Q.
ASO (Antistreptolysin 0) test is uesd for the diagnosis of________________?
Rickettsial fever
Rheumatie fever
Typhoid fever
Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatie fever
Q.
Actinomycetes is______________?
Fungus
Gram negative bacteria
Gram positive bacteria
A yeast like form
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is_____________?
Eosin stain
Haemotoxin stain
Blue stain
Ninhydrin stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ninhydrin stain
Q.
Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by_____________?
Bacteria superadded on virus
Bacteria
Virus
Parasite
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
The term animalcules to oral microorganisms is given by__________________?
Wd miller
Socranci
Leumenhoek
Robertson
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leumenhoek
Q.
Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly_______________?
Lung
Nasal mucosa
Gastrointestinal tract
Skin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gastrointestinal tract
Q.
Phospholipid used to investigate syphilis by the reagin test is________________?
Cardiolipin
Serine
Palmityl lecithin
Plasminogen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiolipin
Q.
Cleavage of IgG molecule by Papin gives rise to:One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments_______________?
Two Fc fragments and two Fab fragments
Two Fc fragment and one Fab fragment
One Fc fragment and four Fab fragments
One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Q.
Following reaction are produced by heterophil antigens except_____________?
Weil-Felix reaction
Widal reaction
Forssman antigen antibody reaction
Paul bunnel reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal reaction
Q.
The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______________?
IgG
IgA
IgE
IgD
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV irradiation_______________?
Lipids
Inorganic salts
Carbohydrates
Nucleic acids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleic acids
Q.
Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by________________?
Epithelial cells
Dextran
Sucrose
Bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dextran
Q.
The anaphylaxis should be treated first with_____________?
Epinephrine
Antibiotics
Anti histamines
Steroids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epinephrine
Q.
Dorset
Mycobacterium
Streptococcus
Gonococcus
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best demonstrated by_________________?
PAS stain
Gram
H & E stain
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Q.
The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is______________?
Borrelia vincenti
Treponjema pertenue
Treponema pallidum
Borrelia burgdorferi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti
Q.
Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is ________________?
Rhizopus
Penicillium
Mucor
Aspergillus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus
Q.
Best method of sterilizing disposable syringes_______________?
Gamma rays
Boiling
Hot air oven
U.V. rays
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma rays
Q.
Anaphylaxis refers to the________________?
Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions
Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens
State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________________?
Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Causes meningitis
Melanin production related to virulence
Basidiomycetes yeast
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Q.
The Process of attenuation can be achieved by all except___________________?
Growing bacteria in adverse environment
Repeated cultures in artificial media
Growing bacteria in unconventional host
Serial passage in an experimental host
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serial passage in an experimental host
Q.
Probiotic organism used_________________?
Salmonella
E coli
Bifido bacteria
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bifido bacteria
Q.
Staphylococcus does not causes_______________?
Osteomyelitis
Pneumonia
Abscess
Scarlet fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Scarlet fever
Q.
Oil and Grease are sterilized by________________?
Irradiation
Hot air oven
Ethylene dioxide
Auto claving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Most sensitive test for antigen detection is_______________?
Immunoflourescence
Passive hemaglutination
Radioimmuno Assay
ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Radioimmuno Assay
Q.
Antigen combining site of the antibody is____________________?
Idiotope
Epitope
Paratope
Hapten
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Paratope
Q.
The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______________?
Induration
Necrosis
Erythema
Vasculitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythema
Q.
The most common site where organisms are present in a typhoid carrier is______________?
Liver
Gall Bladder
Spleen
Salivary gland
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gall Bladder
Q.
Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause foetal defect ?
Rubella
Herpes Simplex
Mumps
Papilloma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Babu, a 28 year old male comes with compaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by____________?
ELISA
P24 antigen
Western blot
Lymph node biopsy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: P24 antigen
Q.
The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is ________________?
exotoxin production
hypersensitivity
Coagulase production
lecithinase production
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: hypersensitivity
Q.
In T.B cell mediated immunity is by_______________?
None of the above
CD 8*
B
CD 4*
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD 4*
Q.
Australia antigen is associated with________________?
Chronic leukemia
Basal cell carcinoma
AIDS
Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Q.
Incubation pariod of herpes zoster is________________?
7-14 days
1 months
3-6 months
1-2 years
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 7-14 days
Q.
Salmonella typhi can be isolated at different times from______________?
All of the above
Feaces
Blood
Urine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which of the following antibacterial substance is present in eggs and saliva ?
Albumin
Lysozyme
Isozyme
Secretozyme
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysozyme
Q.
Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection_________________?
Isopora belli
Taenia solium
Giardia lambella
Balantidium coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Taenia solium
Q.
Electron microscopic examination of the bacterial flora of necrotising ulcerative gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are______________?
Spirochetes
Bacteriophages
Cocci
Filamentous rods
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
The most frequently encountered clostridial species in gas gangrene is______________?
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium welchii
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Q fever is caused by________________?
C. burnetti
Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
R. prowozekii
R. quintana
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C. burnetti
Q.
Mesophilic organisms are those that grow best at temperature of______________?
25
-7
55
-20
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 25
Q.
An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry cough, sputum culture showed growth on charcoal yeast Extract Medium, theorganism is______________?
Legionella
Burkholderia cepacia
Moraxella catarrhalis
H. influenza
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Legionella
Q.
Techoic acid is present in_____________?
Cytoplasm of Gram negative organisms
Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Cell wall of Gram negative organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram positive organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Q.
Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?
The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission
Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Causes positive Nagler reaction
The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Q.
Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by_________________?
Fish tapeworm
Dog tapeworm
Threadworm
Hookworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fish tapeworm
Q.
Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?
Coccidia
Mycobacteria
Spore
Prions
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prions
Q.
Blood agar is________________?
Transport media
Differential media
Simple media
Enriched media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enriched media
Q.
Signs of tyhoid fever is/are_____________________?
Osteomyelitis
perforation
All of the above
Haemorrhage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by ___________________?
Candida albicans
Aspergillus
Cryptococcus
Mucor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction______________?
Proteus
E.coli
Staphylococcus
Haemophilus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?
Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity
Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Immediately wash wound with soap and water
Give ARV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Q.
One of the following is a zoonotic disease_____________?
Anthrax
Typhoid
Bacillary dysentery
Cholera
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anthrax
Q.
Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of______________?
Malaria
Whooping cough
Wool sorters disease
Gas gangrene
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gas gangrene
Q.
Which of the following is a live vaccine_____________?
HDCV
Hepatitis
Salk
17 D
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HDCV
Q.
The function of IgD is______________?
Reagin activity
Antigen recognition by B cells
Compliment activation
Localization protection in external secretion
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antigen recognition by B cells
Q.
The following statement is true regarding fungal infection__________________?
Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man
Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal
albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals
Candida infection is usually endogenous
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida infection is usually endogenous
Q.
One of the following staining methods is an example of negative staining_______________?
Zheil-Neilson
Fontana
India ink preparation
Gram
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
All are true about widel test except________________________?
O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
H antigen cannot differentiate between subtypes
High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative
Base lines differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Q.
The virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhea include all of the following except____________?
Pili
M-Proteins
IgA Protease
Outer membrane proteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M-Proteins
Q.
Characteristic feature of retrovirus is_____________?
Restriction endonuclease
DNA polymerase
Ribonuclease
Reverse transcriptase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reverse transcriptase
Q.
Serum sickness syndrome is an example of________________?
Systemic arthus reaction
Cell-mediated immunity
Angioneurotic edema
Anaphylactic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Systemic arthus reaction
Q.
The Window period in HIV infection means______________?
The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS
None of the above
The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
Q.
Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to________________?
Increase antigenicity
Increase toxigenicity
Reduce the antigenicity
reduce the toxigenicity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increase antigenicity
Q.
Which of the following is true about amoebic liver disease ?
Portal system is the main filtration system
Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Non-suppurative form is the serious form of extra intestinal amoebiasis
Left lobe of liver is commonly involved
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Q.
Teichoic acid is present in cell walls of_________________?
Gram negative bacteria
Protozoa
Yeast
Gram positive bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Grave
Type I
Type III
Type IV
Type II
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Madura mycosis produces______________?
White to yellow granules
Brown to black granules
No granules
Red granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: White to yellow granules
Q.
A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?
Brucella spp
Bartonella spp
Francisella spp
Pasturella spp
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Brucella spp
Q.
Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a_______________?
Immunodot
RIPA
ELISA
Western Blot
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Western Blot
Q.
Rabies virus________________?
Cytotropic
Dermatotropic
Chromophilic
Neurotropic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neurotropic
Q.
Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is_______________?
IgE
IgM
IgG
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
B.C.G untrue is_____________?
Orally administered
live vaccine
All of the above
T.B vaccine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orally administered
Q.
In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a_______________?
Carrier
Hapten
Super antigen
Toxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hapten
Q.
Thread worm is______________?
Enterobius
Ascaris
Necator
Ancylostoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterobius
Q.
Endotoxin have all but one of the properties given below_______________?
Produced by gram positive bacteria
Not secreted outside the cell
Produced by gram negative bacteria
Cannot be toxoided
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Produced by gram positive bacteria
Q.
The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is___________?
The catalase test
Detection of coagulase
Mannitol fermentation
Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Detection of coagulase
Q.
Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus is due to ________________________?
Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Penicillin analogue production
Lack of nucleic acid in the cell wall
Pleomorphism
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Q.
Influenza is caused by_____________?
Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Q.
Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is_________________?
3:1
1:2
1:3
2:1
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2:1
Q.
On a stained slide, clostridium tetani has the appearance of a__________________?
Bunch of a
Safely pin
Drum stick
Chain of beads
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Drum stick
Q.
Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine ?
Tuberculosis (BCG)
Varicella Zoster virus
Cholera
Typhoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cholera
Q.
which of the following is anaerobic_______________?
E.coli
Bacteroides
Pseudomonas
Klebsiella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacteroides
Q.
Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstratig________________?
Trophozoites in the pus
Cysts in the intestine
Trophozoites in the feces
Cysts in the sterile pus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites in the pus
Q.
The urine sample of a patient has been sent to the laboratory to look for Leptospira. The specimen is to be screened by use of the__________________?
Dark ground microscope
Inverted microscope
Scanning microscope
Electron microscope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dark ground microscope
Q.
Function of Ig A is________________?
Kills virus infected cells
Circulating antibody
Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Activates macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Q.
Aflatoxins are produced by________________?
Aspergillus niger
Aspergillus flavus
All of the above
Aspergillus fumigatus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus flavus
Q.
The chemotactic factor is______________?
C2a
C5a
C4a
C3b
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C5a
Q.
Characters of exotoxin include all, except_______________?
Has specific tissue affinity
Highly potent
Heat labile
Protein polysaccharide complex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein polysaccharide complex
Q.
Leptospirosis, all are true except______________?
Incubation period is 10 days
It is sensitive to penicillin
Faeces & urine of rodents is the cause
Onset of IgM in 2 days
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Onset of IgM in 2 days
Q.
Which of the following belongs to cell fraction derived vaccine______________?
Rubella
Mumps
Measles
Hepatitis B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B
Q.
The killer cells are associated with immunologic response___________________?
Type I
Type II
Type IV
Type III
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
The term epitope refers to________________?
complete antigen molecule
Hapten
Immunogen
Smallest antigenic determinant
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Smallest antigenic determinant
Q.
Drumstick appearance is seen in______________?
Cl. tetani
All of the above
Cl. tetanomorphum
Cl. sphenoids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. tetani
Q.
The commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercie bacilli________________?
Acridine orange
Auramine and Rhodamine
Congo red
Thioglavin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine and Rhodamine
Q.
Common name for Trichuris trichura________________?
Tape worm
Seat woman
Round worm
Whip worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Whip worm
Q.
Herpes virus_____________?
Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane
Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Q.
The specific test for Treponema pallidum is___________?