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TOP Microbiology MCQS Questions
Q.
Bacterial spores are destroyed by_______________?
Disinfection by hypochlorite solution
Autoclave
Boiling at 100
Pasteurisation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The interaction of antigens with antibodies on the surface of a mast cel leads to degranulation and anaphylaxis. The mast cell granules produce anaphylaxis because they contain________________?
Lysosomes
Proteolytic enzymes
Vasoactive mediators
Lymphotoxins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vasoactive mediators
Q.
Bacteria with potent exotoxin is_______________?
Clostridium tetani
Klebsiella
Pseudomonas
Shigella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani
Q.
True about prions________________?
Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective
Viruses which are genetically deficient
Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
Q.
The best skin disinfectant is________________?
Alcohol
None of the above
Savlon
Chlorhexdine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chlorhexdine
Q.
Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates_____________?
Late convalescence
High infectivity
Simple carriers
Carrier status
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: High infectivity
Q.
The facultative anaerobic bacteria are those who are_______________?
Unable to grow in the absence of oxygen
Able to grow in the presence of carbon dioxide
Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Unable to grow in the presence of oxygen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
Q.
A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium malaria
Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Erysipelas is caused by________________?
Pneumococci
Group B staphylococci
Gonococci
Group A steptococci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B staphylococci
Q.
True about immune response of hepatitis B is__________________?
Antibody to HBC is not protective
Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
CMI disappears soon after recover
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
Q.
Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria______________?
Lowenstein Jensen Medium
Saborauds agar
Loefflers serum slope
Mc Conkey
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Loefflers serum slope
Q.
A full course of immunization agianst. Telanus with 3 doses to Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how many years ?
5
20
10
15
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 10
Q.
Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?
Western blot followed by ELISA
ELISA followed by western blot technique
Polymers chain reaction
Virus isolation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA followed by western blot technique
Q.
Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-5m in size, multi-septate, chestnut, brown color is characteristic of________________?
Rhinosporodiosis
Histoplasmosis
Phaeohypomycosis
Chromoblastomycosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chromoblastomycosis
Q.
The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell
Haemagglutination inhibition test
Haemagglutination test
Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytopathic changes in culture cells
Q.
An oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod which produces a bluish-green pigment has been grown in culture from a swab obtained from an infected burn wound. This organism is susceptible to gentamicin, ticarcillin and tobramicin, but resistant to all the other antibiotics which of the following organisms is it likely to be ?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Escherichia coli
Proteus miribilis
Klebsiella pnemoniae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q.
Exaltation is________________?
Decreased virulence
No change
None
Increased Virulence
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increased Virulence
Q.
Which of the following is not true of boiling water_____________?
Can kill vegetative bacterial cells
It can kill hepatitis B virus
Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
Q.
The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is_______________?
IgD
IgM
IgG
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Germ tubes are formed mainly by_______________?
Candida albicans
Candida tropicalis
Candida pseudotropicalls
Candida stellatoidea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
The best method of sterilization of dressing powder is_____________?
Tyndallization
Inspissation
Hot air oven
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with______________?
IgA antibodies
IgM antibodies
Mast cells
Lysozyme
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA antibodies
Q.
Loss of capsule in bacteria is generally associated with______________?
Loss of infectivity
Inability to spread through tissue
Decease in virulence
increase in invasiveness
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Decease in virulence
Q.
Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify______________?
Rickettsiae
Mycoplasma
Spirochaetes
Chlamydiae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochaetes
Q.
Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_____________?
Cryptococcosis
Tuberculosis
Aspergilosis
Candidiasis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candidiasis
Q.
Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans_________________?
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Hot air oven is used for sterilization of all EXCEPT__________________?
Rubber tubes
Sharp instrument
Liquid paraffin
Glassware
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubber tubes
Q.
Which worm is longest________________?
Hook worm
T. Saginata
A. Lumbricoides
T. Solium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T. Saginata
Q.
Malignant pustule is referred to_________________?
None of the above
Facio-cervical actinomycosis
Infected squamous cell carcinoma
Cutaneous anthrax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cutaneous anthrax
Q.
In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started________________?
Influenza
Rabies
Poliomyelitis
Herpes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabies
Q.
True about VDRL test________________?
Best followed for drug therapy
All of the above
Non
Slide flocculation test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is_____________?
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis A virus
Hepatitis E virus
Hepatitis C virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
Lancefields classification of B hemolytic streptococcus is based on______________?
M Protein
Type of lipid in cell membrane
Physiological properties
Polysaccharide C antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Polysaccharide C antigen
Q.
Virulence of Gonococcus is due to___________________?
Cell Membrane
Pili
Cytolytic enzymes
Its intracellular location
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
Which of the following fulfil all the criterias of kich
Treponema pallidum
None of the above
Mycobacterium leprae
N. gonorrhoeae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: None of the above
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria grow_______________?
differential media
in the presence of oxygen
in the presence of nitrogen
in the absence of oxygen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in the absence of oxygen
Q.
Which of the following is an acid-fast bacillus_____________?
All of the above
Mycobacterium bacilli
Treponema pallidum
Neisseria gonorrhea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium bacilli
Q.
Which of the following is obligate aerobe ?
diphtheria
Proteus
Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Q.
Malaria pigment is________________?
Iron
Haematin-globin pigment
Haemoglobin
Bilurubin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haematin-globin pigment
Q.
The key cell types involved in the acquired immunity include all EXCEPT________________?
Erythrocytes
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
Antigen presenting cells (APC
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythrocytes
Q.
Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor_____________?
M protein
Streptolysin 0
Carbohydrate cell wall
Pyrogenic exotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pyrogenic exotoxin
Q.
The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as_____________?
Epitope
Clone
Idiotope
Paratope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epitope
Q.
Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose_______________?
Serum sickness
Arthus reaction
Contact dermatitis
Anaphylaxis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Immunoglobulin consists of________________?
1 heavy, 2 light chains
3 light, 1 heavy chain
2 light, 2 heavy chains
1 light, 1 heavy chain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2 light, 2 heavy chains
Q.
Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in________________?
Rabbit testis only
Chick embryos
Tissue culture
Artificial media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rabbit testis only
Q.
Which of the following characteristics of bacteria is not true?
Unicellular
Cell wall containing muramic acid
Free living
Having either DNA or RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Having either DNA or RNA
Q.
A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT________________?
Imipenem
Vancomycin
Teichoplanin
Linezolid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Imipenem
Q.
The overall effect of HIV is to gradually impair the immune system by interference with______________?
Natural killer cells
Helper T lymphocytes
Plasma cells
Macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes
Q.
Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?
Core antigen
Core antibody
Surface antibody
Surface antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Surface antigen
Q.
Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies_____________?
Rabies
Chicken pox
Measles
Small pox
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles
Q.
Prozone phenomenon is due to______________?
Excess antigen
Disproportionate antigen antibody levels
Hyper immune reaction
Excess antibody
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Excess antibody
Q.
Actinomycosis is a_________________?
Anaerobic bacterial disease
Aerobic bacterial disease
Aerobic fungal disease
Anaerobic fungal disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic bacterial disease
Q.
HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except________________?
Sexual intercourse
Blood transmission
Saliva
Needle prick injury
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saliva
Q.
Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_______________?
Presence of either DNA or RNA
All of the above
Complex multiplication
Simple structure
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
False +ve for VDRL is seen in______________?
All of the above
Malaria
Yaws
Lepromatous Leprosy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Most fungi of medical importance belongs to__________________?
Deuteromycetes
Ascomycetes
Zygomycetes
Basidiomycetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deuteromycetes
Q.
Most of the drug resistances occurs due to_____________?
Transduction
conjugation
Mutation
Transformation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: conjugation
Q.
The bacterial cell wall has all of the following properties except______________?
It is a unique flexible plastic structure
It is the structure principally responsible for the reaction of gram staining
It consists of a mixed polymer called peptidoglycon
It contains D-isomers of amino acids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It is a unique flexible plastic structure
Q.
The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is_____________?
Apthous stomatitis
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Tuberculosis
Herpetic gingivostomatitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Q.
Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in which of the following viruses_____________?
HIV
Measles virus
Pox virus
Hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is______________?
Bartonella henselae
Hemophilia ducreya
Donovania granulomatis
Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bartonella henselae
Q.
Which of the following is not a feature of anaphylaxis ?
Delayed reaction
None of the above
Immediate reaction
passive transfer by serum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Delayed reaction
Q.
DNA covering material in a virus is called as________________?
Capsomere
Nucleocapsid
Capsid
Envelope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Capsid
Q.
ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______________?
More sensitive, more specific
Less sensitive, more specific
More sensitive, less specific
Less sensitive less specific
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: More sensitive, less specific
Q.
Who first introduced solid media_______________?
Hensen
Louis pasteur
Robert koch
Ogston
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robert koch
Q.
cAMP reaction is shown by which streptococci ?
Group C
Group D
Group A
Group B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Group B
Q.
Widal test is specific for____________?
Typhoid
Plague
Leprosy
Pemhigoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid
Q.
Which of the following is not a koch
The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue
Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the experimental animals
When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Pure cultures can be obtained
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
Q.
All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_________________?
gingivalis
histolytica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: gingivalis
Q.
When horse serum is injected intravenoulsy in to a rabbit and again in to the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs as the site of the second injection________________?
Anaphylaxis
Atopy
Serum sickness
Arthus phenomenon
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus phenomenon
Q.
Fimbriae are demonstrated by ___________________?
Biochemical reaction
Culture
Gram stain
Haemagglutination test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Haemagglutination test
Q.
The following is not true of Candida albicans______________?
Blastomeres seen in isolates
Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them
Yeast like fungus
Forms Chlamydospores
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blastomeres seen in isolates
Q.
The temperature required for cultivating mycobacterium________________?
0 degree
37 degrees
27 degrees
2 degree
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 37 degrees
Q.
All are true about bordetella pertussis except______________?
Most common cause is B. Petrussis
It may occur in children and young adult after vaccination
Bacteria culture from nasopharyngeal swab is the definitive diagnosis
Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
Q.
Causative organism of Kalahazar is_______________?
Entamoeba histolytica
Leishman donovani
Toxoplasma
Plasmodium ovaie
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leishman donovani
Q.
Interferon interferes with replication of virus at the time of_____________?
When virus enters the cell
DNA/RNA replication
Protein synthesis
Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein synthesis
Q.
Rideal Walker test is used to determine the efficiency of the_____________?
Antibiotics
Dry heat sterilization
Disinfectant
Moist heat sterilisation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Disinfectant
Q.
The difference between sterilization and disinfection is that_______________?
Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Disinfection kills all spores but sterilization does not
Sterilization involves chemicals and disinfection involves physical methods
Sterilization is easier to achieve
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
Q.
The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is_______________?
Conjugation
Lysogeny
Transformation
Translation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysogeny
Q.
For uniform staining reaction, morphology and biochemical activity it is advisable to study bacterial cultures during the_____________?
Logarithmic phase
Stationary phase
Lag phase
Death phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Logarithmic phase
Q.
The structure in involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface is_______________?
None of the above
Fimbria
Flagella
Capsule
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fimbria
Q.
Vibrio cholera was discovered by_________________?
Medintoff
Koch
Virchow
John snow
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Koch
Q.
Noguchi
Bordetella
None of the above
Brucella
Borrelia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia
Q.
Donovanosis, true is___________________?
Characterized by painful genital ulcers
Penicillin is drug of choice
Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic
Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Q.
Which of the following statement about P24 antigen of HIV is Not True ?
It remains during asymptomatic phase
Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:
It can be detected during the window period
Virus load parallel P24 titre
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It remains during asymptomatic phase
Q.
A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?
Xenograft
Isograft
Allograft
Autograft
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Isograft
Q.
In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_______________?
Merozoite
Sporozoite
Hypnozoite
Gametocyte
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sporozoite
Q.
Virus infected cell is killed by________________?
Neutrophils
Autolysis
Interferons
Macrophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Interferons
Q.
In small intestine, cholera toxin acts by______________?
Activation of GTPase
Active absorption of NaCI
Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
ADP
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ADP
Q.
Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by_____________?
Streptococcus viridans
Haemolytic streptococci
Nisseria
Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus viridans
Q.
Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by______________?
Inspissation
Autoclaving
Hot air oven
UV-Radiation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Candida is most often implicated in causation___________________?
Desert rheumatism
Conjunctivitis
Tenea capitis
Thrush
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thrush
Q.
Diphtheria is pathogenic only when infected with______________?
Lambda K12
Delta Phage
Beta phage
Alfa phage
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Beta phage
Q.
The antigen used in Weil Felix test is obtained from________________?
Staphylococcus
Proteus
coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to______________?
NK
CD4 T-cells
CD8 T-cells
B
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4 T-cells
Q.
Actinomycosis is caused by______________?
Retrovirus
Fungus
Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Acid fast, non-motile bacillus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
Q.
The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route________________?
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis D virus
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis E virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E virus
Q.
During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______________?
ELISA IS
PCR is
Both are
Western Blot is
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both are
Q.
Lepromin test is useful for________________?
Epidemiology
Diagnosis
Prognosis
Treatment plan
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prognosis
Q.
Staphylococci typically occur in_________________?
Pairs
Tetrads
Irregular clusters
Chains
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Irregular clusters
Q.
The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the________________?
CH1 domian
CH2 domian
CL domian
VL domian
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CH2 domian
Q.
Multiple drug resistance of bacteria depends on which of the following_______________?
All of the above
Fertility factor (F+)
Colicigenic factor (Col)
Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
Q.
Immunity that is conferred to the foetus by transfer of IgG and IgA antibodies is called as______________?
Passive natural immunity
Active acquired immunity
Passive acquired immunity
Natural active immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Passive natural immunity
Q.
Viron is defined as______________?
Smallest virus
Extracellular infectious virus particle
None of the above
A smallest particle similar to virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Extracellular infectious virus particle
Q.
Cough plate method is used to identify________________?
Pertussis
Mycoplasma
M-Tuberculosis
Y. pestis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pertussis
Q.
Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functional of the cell______________?
wall
Capsule
membrane
nucleus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: membrane
Q.
A dentist suffred from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is_____________?
Convalscent carrier
Inactive carrier
Healthy carrier
Paradoxical carrier
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Convalscent carrier
Q.
Sunlight acts as sterilizing agent because_________________?
Long wavelength
short wave lenght
Heat
Ozone
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: short wave lenght
Q.
Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in______________?
4 weeks
2 weeks
12 weeks
9 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4 weeks
Q.
What is the sequence which a retro virus follows on entering a host cell ?
DNA-RNA-DNA
RNA -DNA-RNA
DNA-RNA
RNA-DNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: RNA -DNA-RNA
Q.
Nagglers reaction detects________________?
Hyaluronidase
Lecithinase
None of the above
Coagulase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Man is the only reservoir for_______________?
Camphylobacter jejuni
Y. enterocolitica
histolytica
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: histolytica
Q.
Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_________________?
Cytokinin
Theta toxin
Desmolase
Lecithinase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lecithinase
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except___________________?
Though plasmids
through conjugation
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through bacteriophages
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is__________________?
Gamma globulin injection
Placental transfer of antibodies
Hepatitis vaccination
Immune blood transfusion
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Placental transfer of antibodies
Q.
All are true about legionella pneumophilia except______________?
Person to person transmission
Aquatic bodies are main habitat
Urine test is a reliable method
It can replicate in amoeba
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Person to person transmission
Q.
Smith noguchi
Salmonella
Spirochetes
Bacillus
Klebsiella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
Tyndallisation is carried out for________________?
Three successive days
Two successive days
One day
60 minutes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Three successive days
Q.
Prions true is____________?
Sensitive to most chemical sterilization
Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Evokes strong immunogenic reaction
Contains DNA/ RNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
Q.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which of the following________________?
Active T cells
Plasma cells
B-cells
NK cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active T cells
Q.
All are oncogenic except________________?
Anopheles
Aedes
Mansoni
Culex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aedes
Q.
Which of the following viruses appears to be involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi
Human Herpes Virus 1
Human Herpes Virus 3
Human Herpes Virus 8
Human Herpes Virus 4
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Human Herpes Virus 4
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Vincent
Ulcerative gingivostomatitis
A symbiotic infection
Caused due to malnutrition
Caused by leptospira interrogans
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caused by leptospira interrogans
Q.
Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores can be achieved with_______________?
KOH wet mount
Hematoxylin and Eosin
Peri-iodic Acid Schiff
Grocott Gomori Methenamine silver
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: KOH wet mount
Q.
The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum ?
IgG3
IgG1
IgG4
IgG2
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG1
Q.
Cytopathic effect is shown by_____________?
Virus
Spirochete
Bacteria
Anaerobe
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
Methods for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infection________________?
Microscopic examination of skin scrapings
KOH staining
All of the above
Wood light examination
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Culture medium used for Bordatella pertussis is_________________?
Bile broth
Bordet Gengou medium
Robertson cooked meat medium
Wilson Blair medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bordet Gengou medium
Q.
Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_____________________?
no antibodies are present in primary HSV
antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis
in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
only after one year
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
Q.
Graft versus host reaction is caused by_________________?
Leukocytes
T-lymphocytes
B-Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T-lymphocytes
Q.
Black pigmented anaerobes include all of the following except______________?
Buccae
Tannerella
Porphyromonas
Prevotella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Buccae
Q.
A protoplast is best characterized as a bacterial cell______________?
with a cell wall but free of a capsule
containing a cell wall and a capsule
Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Uniquely sensitive to penicillin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Free of a cell wall and a capsule
Q.
Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes______________?
Cytotoxic T cells
B cells
NK Cells
Memory B cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NK Cells
Q.
Grape bunch shaped colonies are seen in______________?
Streptococcus
E.coli
Gonococci
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staphylococcus
Q.
The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is_______________?
Hepatitis
Parvo virus
Adeno
EB virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parvo virus
Q.
Most antibodies are produced in the________________?
Spleen and the lymph nodes
Thymus and the appendix
Heart and the liver
Brain and the meninges
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spleen and the lymph nodes
Q.
Post streptococcal acute glomerulo nephritis is an example of________________?
Type I hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type III hypersensitivity
Q.
Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups ?
Herpes viruses
Flavi viruses
Picorna viruses
Hepadana viruses
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi viruses
Q.
Phase contrast microscopy is based on principle of__________________?
Different refractive indices of object
Different reflective indices of object
Light scattering
Light attenuation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Different refractive indices of object
Q.
The medium of choice for culturing yeast from of dimorphic fungi is_________________?
Sabouraud
Sabouraud
Any medium incubated at 35-37
Brain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
The diagnosis of gonorrhea is established by_____________?
Compliment fixation tests
Haemagglutination tests
All of the above tests
Pili agglutination tests
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above tests
Q.
Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to______________?
Hook worm
Thread worm
Guinea worm
Ascaris
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hook worm
Q.
Candida albicans causes all of the following except______________?
Meningitis
Mycetoma
Oral thrush
Endocarditis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycetoma
Q.
CD4 count in normal healthy adult is_______________?
500
1000
200
300
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1000
Q.
A darkfield microscope would be useful in examining blood for_______________?
Streptococcus
Actinomyces
Treponema
Mycobacterium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema
Q.
Immunoglobulins ar secreted by______________?
Neutrophils
Plasma cells
Macrophages
T-cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasma cells
Q.
Haptane is_______________?
Same as epitopes
Carrier required for specific antibody production
None of the above
High molecular protein
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Carrier required for specific antibody production
Q.
Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by______________?
Isolation from bile
Isolation form stool
IgM antibodies in serum
Culture from blood
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM antibodies in serum
Q.
VDRL is a________________?
Slide flocculation test
Latex agglutination test
Tube flocculation test
Tube agglutination test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Slide flocculation test
Q.
One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is____________?
Permutation
Viral interference
Mutation
Supervision
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Viral interference
Q.
The difference between gram positive and negative bacteria lies in their_______________?
Nuclear material
cell wall
cell membrane
Mesosomes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cell wall
Q.
The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are______________?
Mycoplasma
Gram negative organisms
Virus infections
Gram positive organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram negative organisms
Q.
Endotoxins differ from exotoxins in that endotoxins______________?
activate complement by the alternate pathway
are highly antigenic
are heat labile
are proteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: activate complement by the alternate pathway
Q.
The Dane particle is the______________?
HBV
HBC Ag
IgG anti HAV
Delta Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBV
Q.
Tuberculin test screens for_____________?
Complement function
Phagocyte dysfunction
Cell mediated immunity
Hemoral immunity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell mediated immunity
Q.
Endoscopes are sterilized by using_______________?
Gamma radiation
Autoclaving
Cidex
Boiling
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Boiling
Q.
One of the following statement about statements about sterilization is not true_______________?
Glass syringes ? Boiling at 169
Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Flash pasteurization of milk ? 72
Liquid paraffin ? Dry heat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vaccines ? Ethylene oxide
Q.
Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?
Lipids
Polysaccharides
Adjuvant
Proteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteins
Q.
IgG antibodies have a half-life of approximately_______________?
1 day
1 week
1 Month
1 hour
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 Month
Q.
Exotoxins are____________________?
Lipoprotein
None
Lipid-polysaccharide complex
Protein compound
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein compound
Q.
Following is a retrovirus_____________?
Hepatitis virus
Influenza
Polio virus
Immunodeficiency virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immunodeficiency virus
Q.
The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement_________________?
IgM
IgA
IgE
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
The reaginic antibody is________________?
IgG
IgD
IgE
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Kaposi
Below 200
Above 600
Between 1000-2000
Above 2000
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Below 200
Q.
All are not true for cultivation of anaerobic organisms except_______________?
Centrifuge
Refrigerator
anaerobic jar
Incubator
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: anaerobic jar
Q.
Each of the following can cause food poisoning except________________?
Staphylococcus
Cl. difficile
Cl. botulinum
Cl. welchii
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. difficile
Q.
Which of the following does not go into chronic hepatitis stage ?
HEV
HCV
HBV
HDV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HEV
Q.
Physical sterilization was discovered by__________________?
Joeph Lister
Robert Koch
Alexander flemings
John Hunter
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Joeph Lister
Q.
Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito______________?
Sporozoite
Zygote
Merozoite
Gametocyte
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gametocyte
Q.
Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with_______________?
Kin Young stain
Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Giemsa stain
Ziel Nelson
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Q.
Which of the following are correctly matched ?
Antigenic stimulus given by vaccine (polio) is artificial active immunity
All of the above
Injection of antibodies (Hepatitis) is artificially acquired passive immunity
Transfer of antibody from mother to child is through colostrum and acquired passive immunity naturally
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which is type II hypersensitivity ?
Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Delayed hypersensitivity
Anaphylaxis
Immune complex mediated
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Q.
By using phase contrast microscope_______________?
Internal metabolic activities can be observed
External capsule formation can be observed
Internal structures are differentiated in dead cells
Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
Q.
One of the following is a treponemal test for diagnosis of syphilis_____________?
Widal test
Kahn test
Wasserman test
FTAB
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: FTAB
Q.
Which of the following have the capability to produce extra cellular polysaccharides______________?
Peptostreptococcus
Strep. pyogenes
Strep. Mutans
Enterococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strep. Mutans
Q.
Opportunistic infection is caused by___________________?
Aspergillus
Mucor
Penicillium
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The minimum time required for the sterilization of surgical instruments by moist heat at 134
30 minutes
3 minutes
15 minutes
60 minutes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3 minutes
Q.
Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti_________________?
Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Body is slender and long
Causes filariasis
Terminal nuclei absent
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Q.
Granules in the corynebacterium diphtheria are called by following names, except______________?
Voluntin granules
Refractile granules
Babes Ernst granules
Metachromatic granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile granules
Q.
Neurotoxin of tetanus acts on______________?
Muscle
Brain
Spinal card
Synapse
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spinal card
Q.
Sporulation occurs in__________________?
Lag phase
Log phase
Decline phase
Stationary phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
True about HIV are all except______________?
Decrease CD4 count in late stages
DNA virus
Macrophages are the reservoir
Attacks CD4 cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: DNA virus
Q.
IgG has subclasses_______________?
2
3
1
4
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 4
Q.
Anti HBsAB indicates______________?
Good prognosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Resistance to hepatitis B
Acute infection
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Good prognosis
Q.
Causative agents of Vincent
Borrelia recurrents and bateroides
Leptospira and Treponema pallidum
Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Borrelia burgoloferi and lactobacillus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
Q.
Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______________?
Serum sickness
Atopic allergy
Contact dermatitis
Transfusion reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serum sickness
Q.
Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is________________?
Counter immune electroporesis
Indirect hemagglutination
ELISA
Microscopy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: ELISA
Q.
Test for differentiating virulent form non-virulent tubercular bacilli_____________?
Neutral red test
Aryl sulphatase test
Niacin test
Catalase peroxidase test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neutral red test
Q.
Rickettsiae__________________?
Multiply within living cell
All of the above
Transmitted by arthropod vectors
Respond to tetracycline therapy
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Virus is cultured in_______________?
Nonembryonated egg
Saubourd
Embryonated egg
Rogosa medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Embryonated egg
Q.
Disinfection frees the surface from______________?
Vegetative forms
None of the above
Spore forms
Both of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Vegetative forms
Q.
Human immunoglobulins are divided based on_____________?
Structural differences
None of the above
Complemented fixation
Functional differences
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Structural differences
Q.
Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to__________________?
Invasion
Capsule
Endotoxin
Exotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Exotoxin
Q.
Chemotactic cytokine is_________________?
IL-1
IL-8
TNF
IL-6
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IL-8
Q.
The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in vivo from one bacterium to another by_____________?
Transduction
Transformation
Rarefaction
Conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
The culture media for fungus is__________________?
Chocolate agar medium
NNN medium
Sabourauds medium
Tellurite medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabourauds medium
Q.
Immunoglobin, Which is produced first by the fetus in response to infection_______________?
IgD
IgA
IgM
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Which of the following is an enrichment medium________________?
Blood agar
Nutrient Broth
Selenite F Broth
Mac Conkey agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Selenite F Broth
Q.
What is the transport medium for cholera___________________?
B & C
Cary Blair Medium
Venkatraman
Tellurite Medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: B & C
Q.
A type of immediately occuring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called_____________?
Type II hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type I hypersensitivity
Q.
Same or closely related antigens present in different biological species are known as________________?
Heterophile antigens
Haptens
Suquestrated antigens
Isoantigens
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Heterophile antigens
Q.
One of the following is an agglutination test in the diagnosis of typhoid___________?
Widal test
Mantoux test
Wasserman test
Eleks test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
Sterilization is a process in which_________________?
Deactivate all pathogens not spores
Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Kill all pathogenic micro-organisms
Kill all non-pathogenic micro-organisms in the environment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Q.
Human immune deficiency virus is ________________ virus?
Rheo
Flavi
Rhabdo
Retro
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Retro
Q.
A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned in to an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis______________?
Calcoflour White
Carbol Fuschin
Acid Fast Stain
Trichrome Methylene blue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trichrome Methylene blue
Q.
Half-life of free HIV in plasma is________________?
12 hours
6 hours
3 months
24 hours
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 6 hours
Q.
Among The infectious diseases transmitted by food, one is___________________?
Diptheria
Viral stomatitis
Typhoid fever
Tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Typhoid fever
Q.
Moist heat kills all of the following EXCEPT_______________?
Mycobacterium
Brucella
Salmonella
Coxiella burnetti
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coxiella burnetti
Q.
The Ig found in exocrine secretions is_____________?
IgG
IgM
IgD
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Operation theatres are sterilized by_____________?
ETO gas
Carbolic acid spraying
Formaldehyde fumigation
Washing with soap and water
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Formaldehyde fumigation
Q.
Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci________________?
Sarcina
Aerococcus
Staphylococcus
Micrococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sarcina
Q.
About Bacteroids True are all Except_______________?
Present mainly in mixed infections
Most common species is B fragilis
Susceptible to many antibiotics
Bile resistant anerobes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Susceptible to many antibiotics
Q.
Encapsulation in bacteria helps in__________________?
Prevent their phagocytosis
Oxygen effect
Decreased virulence
Spore formation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prevent their phagocytosis
Q.
In initial stages of tyhoid, salmonella can be detected in________________?
All of the above
Urine
Blood
Feacus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood
Q.
All of the following are true of streptococcus except_____________?
Shows adherence to dental enamel
Most common in humans
It
Most common is animals
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It
Q.
Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phase of the bacterial growth curve______________?
Lag
Stationary phase
Exponential growth
Decline
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Stationary phase
Q.
Viruses can be cultured in all except_______________?
Blood agar
Chick embryo
Guinea pigs
Cell culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Blood agar
Q.
Kolmer test is a screening test done for_________________?
Gonorrhea
Syphilis
Tuberculosis
Lymphoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Function of T-lymphocyte is/are________________?
All of the above
Production of interferon
Lymphokine production
Rosette formation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
The following are applicable to bacterial genoms except________________?
It is circular
Its DNA has both introns and extrons
It doe not contain histones
It is composed of DNA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Q.
EBV causes all except_________________?
Infectious mononucleosis
Burkitt
Carcinoma of nasopharynx
Papilloma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma
Q.
Which of the following is not used as disinfectant________________?
100% alcohol
2% Lysol
1-2% cetrimide
5% chloroxylene
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 100% alcohol
Q.
Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by_______________?
M. ulcerans
M. chelonae
M. smegmatis
M. Kansasii
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. chelonae
Q.
All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except____________?
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis E
HIV
Hepatitis C
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis E
Q.
Which of the following correctly indicates the infectivity of hepatitis virus in human ?
HBCAg
Anti-HBS
HBeAg
Anti-HBC
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBeAg
Q.
In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except__________________?
Spleen sequestration
Malabsorption
Hemolysis
Bone marrow depression
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Malabsorption
Q.
Which of the following is not a pox virus ?
Molluscum contagiosum
Cowpox
Small pox
chicken pox
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: chicken pox
Q.
A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is______________?
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Methanamine silver stain
India ink preparation
Pyte-ferraco stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
Staphylococcal food poisoning includes the following features_______________?
Heat labile enterotoxin
Incubation period of 24 hours
Common with dairy products
Requires immediate antibiotics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Common with dairy products
Q.
Causative organism for gas gangrene_______________?
Clostridium welchii
Coli
Strep. Faecalis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Streptococcus is classified based on__________________?
Bile Solubility
Cell wall carbohydrate
M Protein
Cultural characteristics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall carbohydrate
Q.
compared with autoclave, use of a dry heat over for sterilization has the following disadvantages______________?
Causes instruments to rust
Causes sharp instruments to dull
Less effective
Time-consuming
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Time-consuming
Q.
Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces?
Capsule
Pili
Mesosomes
Flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Pili
Q.
All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except_____________?
Salmonella typhi
Legionella pneumophila
Streptococcus pyogenes
Neisseria meningitides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus pyogenes
Q.
The best sterilization method for a hand-piece is________________?
dry heat
Ethylene oxide gas
chemical vapour
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ethylene oxide gas
Q.
Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is____________?
Histidine rich proteins
Secretory IgA
Sialoperoxidase
Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
Q.
Sleeping sickness is caused by_______________?
Sand fly
House fly
Reduvid bug
Tick
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reduvid bug
Q.
The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_____________?
Kerison
Pilomatrixoma
Tenia incognito
Alopecia areata
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kerison
Q.
Steam under pressure in used in ________ sterilization?
Autoclave
Kochs sterilizer
hot air oven
Pasteurization
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Autoclave
Q.
The small nonparticulate protein leading to enhanced replication of HBV as well as HIV is______________?
HBs Ag
HBc Ag
HBx Ag
Hbe Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBx Ag
Q.
T cells multiplication is stimulated by_______________?
Bovine serum
Macrolin
Phytohaemagglutinin
Heat
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Phytohaemagglutinin
Q.
Bacteria reproduce mainly by______________?
Sporing
Bacterial components produced by host cells
Binary fission
Budding
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Binary fission
Q.
The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine doses not play a major role is______________?
Urticaria
Asthma
Anaphylaxis
Arthus reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Arthus reaction
Q.
Robertsons cooked meat medium is best suited for cultivation of_______________?
Clostridia
Choleria
S. epidermidis
Mycobacterium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridia
Q.
A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates________________?
Carrier state
Acute infection
Convalescence
Prodromal phase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acute infection
Q.
Which of the following organisms does NOT react with gram
Candida albicans
Streptococcus mutan
Actinomyces israelii
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q.
Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins ?
IgG
IgM
IgE
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Disinfection of the rooms can be done by using_______________?
20% phenol
40% formaldehyde vapour
High efficiency particle arrestors
Chlorine gas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 40% formaldehyde vapour
Q.
Negative staining is used to demonstrate________________?
Bacterial capsule
Bacterial Flagella
Bacterial spore
Bacterial fimbriae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacterial fimbriae
Q.
Which is not true about vibrio cholera_________________?
Man is the only natural host
It is non-halophilic
Grows on simple media
Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Q.
Group A carbohydrate of Str. pyogenes cross reacts with human_________________?
Vascular intima
Synovial fluid
Cardiac valves
Myocardium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiac valves
Q.
Pneumococus can be differentiated from streptococcus by________________?
Bile solubility
Growth characteristics
Gram staining
Type of hemolysis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bile solubility
Q.
Phage conversion is required for________________?
All o f the above
Gonorrhoea
Tularemia
Diptheria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Diptheria
Q.
parasitic inflammation would show predominantly____________________?
Lymphocytes
Eosinophils
Basophils
Neutrophilis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Eosinophils
Q.
Pseudohphae are seen in____________?
Alternaria
Candida albicans
Aspergillus
Osporium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?
Q fever
Trench fever
Epidemic typhus
Relapsing fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Q fever
Q.
The causative organism of syphilis is___________?
Leptospira interrogans
Treponema pallidum
Borrelia burgolorferi
Chalamydia trachomatis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Treponema pallidum
Q.
Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except______________?
Strongyloides
Entamoeba
Giardia lambia
Ascaris lumbriocoides
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Strongyloides
Q.
Toxoids are_________________?
antigenic and toxic
antigenic and non-toxic
non-antigenic and non-toxic
non-antigenic and toxic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: antigenic and non-toxic
Q.
Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000_________________?
J piece
H chain
Secretory piece
L chain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: H chain
Q.
IL-1 is produced by_________________?
Macrophages
Monocytes
Helper T cells
Helper B cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Macrophages
Q.
In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by_____________?
Stool culture
Widal test
Urine culture
Blood culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal test
Q.
About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except__________________?
Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection
Most common cause of urethritis is male
All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Found exclusively in human beings.
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Q.
Pigs are important source of_____________?
Rabies
Kuru
Yellow fever
Japanese encephalitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Japanese encephalitis
Q.
A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains and haemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism ?
Optochin sensitivity
Bacitracin sensitivity
Bile solubility
Cataslase positive
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacitracin sensitivity
Q.
Organ of locomotion in bacteria is________________?
Fimbria
Flagella
Capsule
Cell wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flagella
Q.
All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except______________?
Gram staining
Colony morphology on saliva agar
Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide
Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram staining
Q.
Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in______________?
Ascariasis
Ascariasis and tapeworm
Tapeworm
Hood worm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ascariasis
Q.
Bacteria with tuft of flagella at one end are called_______________?
Monotrichate
Peritrichate
Lophotrichate
Bipolar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lophotrichate
Q.
Certain viruses have been isolated in crytalline form and have been found to be_____________?
Phospholipids
Scleroproteins
Nucleotides
Nucleoproteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleoproteins
Q.
Fungal infection of human beings is called as_____________?
Mycosis
Mucorsis
Fungosis
Micromia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycosis
Q.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa_________________?
Does not produce any pigment
Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.
Causes Shangai fever
Produces heat stable enterotoxin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Causes Shangai fever
Q.
The world german measles is applied for_____________?
Rubeola
Herpetic ginglvostomatitis
Rubella
Herpes simplex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Which of the following provides best gurantee for sterlization in the heat sterilizer ?
Using a bacterial spore test
Using chemical indicator strip or pouch
Recording a temperature/ pressure readings from sterilizer guage
Determining the ability of a sterilizer to kill the hepatitis B virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Using a bacterial spore test
Q.
Active artificial immunization is induced by the administration of all of the following EXCEPT______________?
Antitoxins
Bacterial products
Vaccines
Toxoids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antitoxins
Q.
Plaque test is used routinely in virology lab
To prepare vaccines
To separate specific clone of virus
Identification of viral disease
To maintain certain viral culture
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Identification of viral disease
Q.
The commonest method of detection of diptheria carriers is_______________?
Casoni
Charles
Dick test
Schick test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Schick test
Q.
Most common tumor associated with AIDS is______________?
Ewing
Carcinoma
Kaposi
Melanoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kaposi
Q.
Which of the following is a RNA virus ?
Herpes Virus
Measles virus
Papavo virus
Adeno virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Measles virus
Q.
A 6 year old boy comes with abdominal pain, vomiting after consuming mild products within 6 hours. The most likely organism responsible is______________?
B.Cereus
Salmonella
Clostridium botulinum
Staph. aureus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Staph. aureus
Q.
The medium of choice for growing most fungi is_______________?
Sabouraud
Blood agar
Tissue culture
Thioglycollate medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sabouraud
Q.
Hydatid cyst is__________________?
Fungal
Congenital
Viral
Parasitic in nature
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parasitic in nature
Q.
Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called______________?
Opsonisation
CFT
De coding
Chemotaxis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Opsonisation
Q.
The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is___________________?
10%
2%
15%
5%
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2%
Q.
Selective media for MYCOBACTERIUM _____________?
Agar
Sabourauds medium
Loefflers serum slope
Lowenstein Jensen medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lowenstein Jensen medium
Q.
A sporangium contains_______________?
porangiospores
Chlamydospores
Oidia
Spherules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: porangiospores
Q.
Anaerobic bacteria can be cultured in__________________?
L-J medium
Sabourauds agar
Loefflers medium
Robertson cooked meat medium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Robertson cooked meat medium
Q.
All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except________________?
Cysts are 4 nucleated
The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides
Trophozoites colonise in the colon
Cysts are 8 nucleated
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cysts are 8 nucleated
Q.
Gram -ve bacteria stain during gram staining____________?
Green
Colorless
Blue color
Red color
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Red color
Q.
The optimal time and temperature required for sterilization in an autoclave is___________________?
121
121
140
121
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 121
Q.
Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus ?
Verruca vulgaris
Keratoacanthoma
Condyloma acuminatum
Focal epithelial hyperplasia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Keratoacanthoma
Q.
IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by______________?
Plasma cells
Activated macrophages
Lymphocytes
Platelet
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Activated macrophages
Q.
The major intestinal pathogens which are non-lactose fermenters are_________________?
Paracolons
Klebsiella
Escherichia
Salmonella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salmonella
Q.
Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by________________?
Culture
ELISA
Direct microscopy
DNA probe
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Culture
Q.
Which component of the cell wall is responsible________________?
Region III
Region I
Region II
Boivin antigen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Region III
Q.
In patients with asthma due to an allergic cause the serum levels of which immunoglobulin increase____________________?
IgD
IgA
IgE
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
Which regards to temperature requirement, most pathogenic bacteria are_____________?
Cryophiles
Psychrophiles
Thermophiles
Mesophiles
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mesophiles
Q.
Negative phase is seen in ________ immunity?
Local
Active
Passive
Herd
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Active
Q.
Bacterial cell does not possess___________________?
Ribosome
dna
Cell wall
Mitochondria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mitochondria
Q.
Australian antigen is_______________?
HBV
None of the above
HBs AG
HB Ag
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HBs AG
Q.
Which does not have a viral etiology______________?
Lymphoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Hepatoma
Carcinoma Cervix
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Endotoxins are produced by________________?
Gram -ve bacteria
Virus
Fungi
Gram +ve bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram -ve bacteria
Q.
EBV is responsible for all except______________?
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Hepatoma
Burkitt
Infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatoma
Q.
Complement factor through which common pathway begins___________________?
C2
Protein B
C3
C5
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C3
Q.
Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is___________________?
Brain
Spleen
Lungs
Liver
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Liver
Q.
The time gap between appearance of Koplik
24 Hrs
3-4 days
10 days
2 weeks
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 3-4 days
Q.
CD4 cells recognize the antigens in association with_____________?
MHC II
MHC I
MHC III
B-cell receptor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: MHC II
Q.
Each of the following viruses possesses an outer lipoprotein envelope except_____________?
Varicella Zoster Virus
Papilloma Virus
Human immunodeficiency virus
Influenza Virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Papilloma Virus
Q.
Mark true in following ?
Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
None of the above
Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
Q.
First released immunoglobulin after primary immunization_______________?
IgG
IgD
IgE
IgM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM
Q.
Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is_________________?
Escherichia coli
Streptococcus fecalis
T-strain mycoplasma
Neisseria gonorrhea
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Escherichia coli
Q.
Black water fever is caused by______________?
Microfilaria
Plasmodium falciparum
Leishmania donovani
Plasmodium vivax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium falciparum
Q.
Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______________?
Sickle
Comma
Banana
Dot
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Sickle
Q.
Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____________?
3 months
1 week
6 week
6 months
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 1 week
Q.
About Psedomonas. All are true except________________?
Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Can grow in disinfectants in hospital
Strick aerobes
Most common organism is burn patient
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Q.
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except_______________?
Through bacteriophages
Incorporating part of host DNA
Through plasmids
Through conjugation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Incorporating part of host DNA
Q.
Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____________?
16,18,31
6,8,11
3,10,19
Type 6,12,18
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 16,18,31
Q.
Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except_______________?
Tissue culture
Animals
Embryonated eggs
Chemically defined media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chemically defined media
Q.
Type of receptor present on T-cells are__________________?
Prostaglandins
Ig G
Ig A
CD4
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD4
Q.
All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_____________?
Refractile nucleus
Eccentric nucleus
Glycogen mass
Chromatid bars
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Refractile nucleus
Q.
Leprosy bacilli can be grown in_________________?
Tail of guinea pig
Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Testes of albino rats
Testes of guinea pig
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
Q.
Group A B-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the pharynx may be followed in some by_____________?
Rheumatic fever
Syphilis
Diphtheria
Typhoid fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatic fever
Q.
Secretory Ig is_______________?
IgD
IgM
IgE
IgA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
Which of the following viruses does not infect salivary glands ?
Orthomyxovirus
Hepatitis C
Echo virus
HIV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxovirus
Q.
Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following________________?
Salk vaccine
Sabin
All of the above
Tetanus toxoid
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Salk vaccine
Q.
True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by_______________?
Rats
Cow
cats
Dogs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: cats
Q.
Candidal hyphae can be stained using_______________?
Toluidine blue stain
Van Gieson
Periodic acid schiff stain
Masson Trichrome stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Periodic acid schiff stain
Q.
The prototype of Type II hypersensitivity reaction is__________________?
SLE
Contact dermatitis
Arthus reaction
Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auto immune hemolytic anemia
Q.
The earliest identifiable cells of T-Cell lineage during maturation are_______________?
CD8+ Pro-T-Cells
CD5+ Pre-T-Cells
CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
CD8+ Pre-T-Cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
Q.
Dengue virus belongs to______________?
Flavi virus
Togaviridae
Rhabdoviridae
Reoviridae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Flavi virus
Q.
T cell matures in______________?
Lymph node
Payers patch
Thymus
Busra of Fabricius
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Thymus
Q.
The presence of Which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility ?
Polysaccharide
Enzymes
Protein coat
Lipids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein coat
Q.
Wasserman test test is diagnostic of__________________?
Syphilis
Gonorrhea
Tyhoid
TB
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Syphilis
Q.
Glasswares are sterilised by______________?
Hot air oven
Incineration
Autoclaving
Formaldehyde
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by which of the following_____________?
Ethanol
Boiling
All of the above
Cidex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affets_______________?
Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Red blood cells
Mast cells
Fibroblasts
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
Q.
Which of the following enzyme is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot pathogenic staphylococci_____________?
Lysozyme
S protein
Fibrinolysin
Coagulase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Coagulase
Q.
Secondary response is mediated by_______________?
IgM
IgA
IgE
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG
Q.
Bacterial species which is protective or beneficial to the host is_______________?
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Streptococcus sanguis
Treponema denticola
Spirochetes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Streptococcus sanguis
Q.
Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve________________?
Jejunum and Ileum
Caecum and large intestine
Duodenum
Stomach
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Caecum and large intestine
Q.
A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents________________?
Auto
ISO
Allo
Xeno
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Allo
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical mycobacteria by______________?
AFB staining
Pas staining
None of the above
Niacin test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Niacin test
Q.
The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by____________?
Transduction
Translation
Conjugation
Cell fusion
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Conjugation
Q.
Sterilisation control for moist heat is
Using non-pathogenic strain of clostridium tetani
Using chemical indicator
using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Using methylene blue
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
Q.
Complement binding immunoglobin via the classical pathway is_______________?
IgG & IgA
IgG & IgD
IgD & IgE
IgG & igM
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgG & igM
Q.
Commonest mycobacterial infection in tropical countries_______________?
Kansasi
M. leprae
M. avium intracellulare
M. tuberculosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M. tuberculosis
Q.
Sterilisation is______________?
Only pathogenic micro-organisms killed
Pathogens killed but spores are not affected
All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Non-pathogenic killed
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Q.
Killer and Helper cells are part of_______________?
Monocytes
T cells
Macrophage
B cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T cells
Q.
Bacteriophage was discovered by_________________?
Robert koch
Metchinkoff
Twort and d
Menkin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Twort and d
Q.
Growth factor needed for Salmonella_________________?
B-12
Tryptophan
Citrate
Niacin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Tryptophan
Q.
Louis Pasteur is not associated with_______________?
Introduction of complex media
Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Discovery of Rabies Vaccine
Disproved spontaneous regression theory
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
Q.
Synthesis of antibodies in plasma cells occurs in_________________?
Mitochondria
Golgi body
Nucleus
Endoplasmic reticulum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.
Leishmania is cultured in ________________ media?
Tellurite
Sabourauds
NNN
Chocolate agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: NNN
Q.
Purpose of Sterilization is to eliminate________________?
Bacteria
Fungus
Viruses
Spore formers
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spore formers
Q.
The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to_____________?
Kill mircobes
Dehydrate microbial cells
Inhibit microbial growth
Remove microbes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Remove microbes
Q.
The only virus, which has double stranded RNA, is______________?
Reo virus
Bunya virus
Calci virus
Rhabdo virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reo virus
Q.
Culture media of candida is_________________?
Saboraud
All of the above
Pingolevin
Methylene blue dextrose agar
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Saboraud
Q.
L.D bodies are seen in_______________?
Kalahazar
Malaria
Toxoplasmosis
Sleeping sickness
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Kalahazar
Q.
Schuffner
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium malariae
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Plasmodium vivax
Q.
Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus infection during window period ?
Anti HBs
HBs Ag
IgM anti
None of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgM anti
Q.
Delhi boil refer to_______________?
L. Tropica sore
Malignant pustule
Venereal ulcer
Solar Keratosis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: L. Tropica sore
Q.
Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except________________?
Failure to thrive
Have infections
All are true
50% chances to have AIDS
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 50% chances to have AIDS
Q.
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to_______________?
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
Histiocytes
Monocytes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: T lymphocytes
Q.
The cell wall deficient bacteria_______________?
Mycoplasma
Ehrlichiae
Chlamydiae
Rickettsiae
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycoplasma
Q.
Pasteur developed the vaccine for_______________?
Rabies
Cholera
All of the above
Anthrax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Borrelia vincenti is always associated with______________?
None of the above
Spirochaetes
Fusiform bacilli
Treponema vincenti
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fusiform bacilli
Q.
The Manufacturing unit of surgical needle & sutures are sterilized by ________________?
Gamma-Rays
X-Rays
Boiling
Autoclaving
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma-Rays
Q.
Glutaraldehyde is preferred more than formaldehyde because______________?
It has got more bactericidal activity
Its application is easier
It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
It has got more bacteriostatic activity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
Q.
The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is_____________?
Chocolate agar
Chorio allantoic membrane
Sabourad
Robertoson
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Chorio allantoic membrane
Q.
Rh incompatibility is which type of hyper sensitivity reaction ?
Type III
Type II
Type I
Type IV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Silver impregnation method of staining is useful to demonstrate_____________?
Spirochetes
Both of the above
None of the above
Bacterial flagella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Both of the above
Q.
Which of the following would you consider to be general properties of viruses______________?
Contain DNA but no RNA
New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses
Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
Q.
Dematophytes are fungi infecting________________?
Subcutaneous tissue
Superficial skin and deep tissue
Nails, hair and skin
Systemic organs
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nails, hair and skin
Q.
Chlamydia causes all of the following except________________?
Pneumonia
Trachoma
Non-gonococcal urethritis
Parotitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Parotitis
Q.
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (SSS syndrome) is due to______________?
Enterotoxin B
Enterotoxin D
Enterotoxin A
Enterotoxin F
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterotoxin F
Q.
Leprosy bacilli are transmitted from person to person by all except______________?
Through intact skin
Through breast milk
From open sore
Dischange from nasal mucosa
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Through breast milk
Q.
ASO (Antistreptolysin 0) test is uesd for the diagnosis of________________?
Rheumatie fever
Typhoid fever
Rheumatoid arthritis
Rickettsial fever
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rheumatie fever
Q.
Actinomycetes is______________?
Gram negative bacteria
Gram positive bacteria
A yeast like form
Fungus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is_____________?
Blue stain
Eosin stain
Haemotoxin stain
Ninhydrin stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ninhydrin stain
Q.
Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by_____________?
Parasite
Bacteria
Virus
Bacteria superadded on virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Virus
Q.
The term animalcules to oral microorganisms is given by__________________?
Robertson
Leumenhoek
Wd miller
Socranci
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Leumenhoek
Q.
Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly_______________?
Lung
Gastrointestinal tract
Skin
Nasal mucosa
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gastrointestinal tract
Q.
Phospholipid used to investigate syphilis by the reagin test is________________?
Cardiolipin
Palmityl lecithin
Serine
Plasminogen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cardiolipin
Q.
Cleavage of IgG molecule by Papin gives rise to:One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments_______________?
One Fc fragment and four Fab fragments
One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Two Fc fragments and two Fab fragments
Two Fc fragment and one Fab fragment
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
Q.
Following reaction are produced by heterophil antigens except_____________?
Weil-Felix reaction
Paul bunnel reaction
Widal reaction
Forssman antigen antibody reaction
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Widal reaction
Q.
The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______________?
IgE
IgA
IgD
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgA
Q.
The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV irradiation_______________?
Nucleic acids
Carbohydrates
Inorganic salts
Lipids
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Nucleic acids
Q.
Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by________________?
Epithelial cells
Sucrose
Dextran
Bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dextran
Q.
The anaphylaxis should be treated first with_____________?
Anti histamines
Epinephrine
Steroids
Antibiotics
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Epinephrine
Q.
Dorset
Gonococcus
Staphylococcus
Mycobacterium
Streptococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Mycobacterium
Q.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best demonstrated by_________________?
H & E stain
PAS stain
Gram
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Q.
The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is______________?
Treponjema pertenue
Treponema pallidum
Borrelia vincenti
Borrelia burgdorferi
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Borrelia vincenti
Q.
Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is ________________?
Aspergillus
Penicillium
Mucor
Rhizopus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus
Q.
Best method of sterilizing disposable syringes_______________?
Boiling
Hot air oven
Gamma rays
U.V. rays
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gamma rays
Q.
Anaphylaxis refers to the________________?
Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions
Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens
State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
Q.
Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________________?
Basidiomycetes yeast
Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Melanin production related to virulence
Causes meningitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
Q.
The Process of attenuation can be achieved by all except___________________?
Repeated cultures in artificial media
Growing bacteria in unconventional host
Growing bacteria in adverse environment
Serial passage in an experimental host
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Serial passage in an experimental host
Q.
Probiotic organism used_________________?
Bifido bacteria
Staphylococcus
Salmonella
E coli
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bifido bacteria
Q.
Staphylococcus does not causes_______________?
Osteomyelitis
Scarlet fever
Abscess
Pneumonia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Scarlet fever
Q.
Oil and Grease are sterilized by________________?
Auto claving
Ethylene dioxide
Hot air oven
Irradiation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hot air oven
Q.
Most sensitive test for antigen detection is_______________?
Passive hemaglutination
Radioimmuno Assay
Immunoflourescence
ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Radioimmuno Assay
Q.
Antigen combining site of the antibody is____________________?
Hapten
Paratope
Idiotope
Epitope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Paratope
Q.
The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______________?
Erythema
Necrosis
Vasculitis
Induration
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Erythema
Q.
The most common site where organisms are present in a typhoid carrier is______________?
Gall Bladder
Salivary gland
Liver
Spleen
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gall Bladder
Q.
Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause foetal defect ?
Mumps
Herpes Simplex
Rubella
Papilloma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Rubella
Q.
Babu, a 28 year old male comes with compaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by____________?
Lymph node biopsy
Western blot
P24 antigen
ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: P24 antigen
Q.
The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is ________________?
lecithinase production
exotoxin production
Coagulase production
hypersensitivity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: hypersensitivity
Q.
In T.B cell mediated immunity is by_______________?
CD 8*
None of the above
B
CD 4*
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: CD 4*
Q.
Australia antigen is associated with________________?
Basal cell carcinoma
Chronic leukemia
Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
AIDS
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
Q.
Incubation pariod of herpes zoster is________________?
1 months
7-14 days
1-2 years
3-6 months
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 7-14 days
Q.
Salmonella typhi can be isolated at different times from______________?
Blood
All of the above
Feaces
Urine
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Which of the following antibacterial substance is present in eggs and saliva ?
Albumin
Lysozyme
Isozyme
Secretozyme
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Lysozyme
Q.
Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection_________________?
Balantidium coli
Giardia lambella
Isopora belli
Taenia solium
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Taenia solium
Q.
Electron microscopic examination of the bacterial flora of necrotising ulcerative gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are______________?
Spirochetes
Bacteriophages
Cocci
Filamentous rods
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Spirochetes
Q.
The most frequently encountered clostridial species in gas gangrene is______________?
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium welchii
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium welchii
Q.
Q fever is caused by________________?
R. quintana
C. burnetti
Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
R. prowozekii
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C. burnetti
Q.
Mesophilic organisms are those that grow best at temperature of______________?
25
55
-7
-20
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 25
Q.
An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry cough, sputum culture showed growth on charcoal yeast Extract Medium, theorganism is______________?
Burkholderia cepacia
Moraxella catarrhalis
H. influenza
Legionella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Legionella
Q.
Techoic acid is present in_____________?
Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Cell wall of Gram negative organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram positive organisms
Cytoplasm of Gram negative organisms
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
Q.
Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?
The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously
Causes positive Nagler reaction
The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission
Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
Q.
Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by_________________?
Dog tapeworm
Fish tapeworm
Hookworm
Threadworm
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Fish tapeworm
Q.
Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?
Spore
Prions
Mycobacteria
Coccidia
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Prions
Q.
Blood agar is________________?
Transport media
Enriched media
Simple media
Differential media
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enriched media
Q.
Signs of tyhoid fever is/are_____________________?
All of the above
perforation
Haemorrhage
Osteomyelitis
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: All of the above
Q.
Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by ___________________?
Aspergillus
Cryptococcus
Candida albicans
Mucor
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida albicans
Q.
Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction______________?
Proteus
E.coli
Haemophilus
Staphylococcus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Proteus
Q.
For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?
Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity
Immediately wash wound with soap and water
Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Give ARV
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Q.
One of the following is a zoonotic disease_____________?
Cholera
Bacillary dysentery
Typhoid
Anthrax
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Anthrax
Q.
Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of______________?
Gas gangrene
Malaria
Whooping cough
Wool sorters disease
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gas gangrene
Q.
Which of the following is a live vaccine_____________?
Hepatitis
17 D
HDCV
Salk
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: HDCV
Q.
The function of IgD is______________?
Antigen recognition by B cells
Localization protection in external secretion
Reagin activity
Compliment activation
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Antigen recognition by B cells
Q.
The following statement is true regarding fungal infection__________________?
albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals
Candida infection is usually endogenous
Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal
Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Candida infection is usually endogenous
Q.
One of the following staining methods is an example of negative staining_______________?
India ink preparation
Zheil-Neilson
Fontana
Gram
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: India ink preparation
Q.
All are true about widel test except________________________?
High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative
O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Base lines differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
H antigen cannot differentiate between subtypes
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: O antibodiest last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
Q.
The virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhea include all of the following except____________?
M-Proteins
IgA Protease
Pili
Outer membrane proteins
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: M-Proteins
Q.
Characteristic feature of retrovirus is_____________?
Ribonuclease
Restriction endonuclease
DNA polymerase
Reverse transcriptase
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Reverse transcriptase
Q.
Serum sickness syndrome is an example of________________?
Cell-mediated immunity
Systemic arthus reaction
Angioneurotic edema
Anaphylactic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Systemic arthus reaction
Q.
The Window period in HIV infection means______________?
The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
None of the above
The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab
The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
Q.
Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to________________?
Increase toxigenicity
Increase antigenicity
reduce the toxigenicity
Reduce the antigenicity
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Increase antigenicity
Q.
Which of the following is true about amoebic liver disease ?
Non-suppurative form is the serious form of extra intestinal amoebiasis
Left lobe of liver is commonly involved
Portal system is the main filtration system
Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
Q.
Teichoic acid is present in cell walls of_________________?
Gram positive bacteria
Yeast
Protozoa
Gram negative bacteria
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Gram positive bacteria
Q.
Grave
Type III
Type IV
Type I
Type II
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
Madura mycosis produces______________?
Brown to black granules
No granules
White to yellow granules
Red granules
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: White to yellow granules
Q.
A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?
Pasturella spp
Bartonella spp
Francisella spp
Brucella spp
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Brucella spp
Q.
Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a_______________?
Western Blot
RIPA
Immunodot
ELISA
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Western Blot
Q.
Rabies virus________________?
Chromophilic
Cytotropic
Neurotropic
Dermatotropic
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Neurotropic
Q.
Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is_______________?
IgA
IgE
IgM
IgG
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: IgE
Q.
B.C.G untrue is_____________?
T.B vaccine
live vaccine
Orally administered
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orally administered
Q.
In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a_______________?
Carrier
Toxin
Super antigen
Hapten
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hapten
Q.
Thread worm is______________?
Necator
Ascaris
Enterobius
Ancylostoma
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Enterobius
Q.
Endotoxin have all but one of the properties given below_______________?
Produced by gram positive bacteria
Not secreted outside the cell
Produced by gram negative bacteria
Cannot be toxoided
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Produced by gram positive bacteria
Q.
The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is___________?
Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes
Detection of coagulase
Mannitol fermentation
The catalase test
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Detection of coagulase
Q.
Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus is due to ________________________?
Penicillin analogue production
Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Pleomorphism
Lack of nucleic acid in the cell wall
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
Q.
Influenza is caused by_____________?
Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Q.
Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is_________________?
3:1
1:2
2:1
1:3
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: 2:1
Q.
On a stained slide, clostridium tetani has the appearance of a__________________?
Chain of beads
Bunch of a
Drum stick
Safely pin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Drum stick
Q.
Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine ?
Tuberculosis (BCG)
Typhoid
Cholera
Varicella Zoster virus
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cholera
Q.
which of the following is anaerobic_______________?
E.coli
Klebsiella
Bacteroides
Pseudomonas
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Bacteroides
Q.
Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstratig________________?
Trophozoites in the pus
Cysts in the intestine
Cysts in the sterile pus
Trophozoites in the feces
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Trophozoites in the pus
Q.
The urine sample of a patient has been sent to the laboratory to look for Leptospira. The specimen is to be screened by use of the__________________?
Scanning microscope
Inverted microscope
Dark ground microscope
Electron microscope
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Dark ground microscope
Q.
Function of Ig A is________________?
Activates macrophages
Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Circulating antibody
Kills virus infected cells
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
Q.
Aflatoxins are produced by________________?
Aspergillus fumigatus
Aspergillus flavus
All of the above
Aspergillus niger
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Aspergillus flavus
Q.
The chemotactic factor is______________?
C5a
C2a
C4a
C3b
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: C5a
Q.
Characters of exotoxin include all, except_______________?
Heat labile
Has specific tissue affinity
Highly potent
Protein polysaccharide complex
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Protein polysaccharide complex
Q.
Leptospirosis, all are true except______________?
Faeces & urine of rodents is the cause
Onset of IgM in 2 days
Incubation period is 10 days
It is sensitive to penicillin
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Onset of IgM in 2 days
Q.
Which of the following belongs to cell fraction derived vaccine______________?
Hepatitis B
Mumps
Measles
Rubella
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Hepatitis B
Q.
The killer cells are associated with immunologic response___________________?
Type II
Type IV
Type I
Type III
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Type II
Q.
The term epitope refers to________________?
complete antigen molecule
Immunogen
Hapten
Smallest antigenic determinant
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Smallest antigenic determinant
Q.
Drumstick appearance is seen in______________?
Cl. sphenoids
Cl. tetani
Cl. tetanomorphum
All of the above
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Cl. tetani
Q.
The commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercie bacilli________________?
Thioglavin
Acridine orange
Auramine and Rhodamine
Congo red
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Auramine and Rhodamine
Q.
Common name for Trichuris trichura________________?
Round worm
Tape worm
Whip worm
Seat woman
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Whip worm
Q.
Herpes virus_____________?
Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane
None of the above
Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question is: Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
Q.
The specific test for Treponema pallidum is___________?